Clinical Procedures - Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

8 Parts of the CBC

A
PCV (%)
TP (g/deciliter)
Dehydration artificially elevates PCV and TP
RBC (# x 10^6/µl)
WBC (#x1000/µl)
Hgb concentration (g/dl) 
Differential (# and %)
Platelet Estimate (range/µl)
Indices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MCV Indicates what?

A

size (microcytic, macrocytic, normocytic) (femtoliter)

PCV x 10/RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MCHC indicates what?

A

color (hypochromic, normochromic)

HgB x 100/PCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MCH indicates what?

A

quality control should correlate with MCV (picogram)

HgB x 10/RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutrophil appearance

A

nucleus any size, dark dense nucleus, segmented, cytoplasm clear in most species – dust like granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphocytes appearance

A

Round cells, nucleus will be very blue and round, cytoplasm may be very little and blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Monocytes appearance

A

Largest WBC, nucleus any shape and lacy, blue gray may have vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Eosinophils appearance

A

any shaped nucleus, cytoplasm has reddish granules, tend to be translucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Basophils appearance

A

any shaped nucleus, granules dark and dense – black or blue (except cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Platelets appearance

A

vary in size and color, often pale pink or blue, fragments of megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reticulocyte Count procedure

A

make thick slide because anemic, 1:1 ratio of methylene blue dye to blood, let sit 10 minutes and then smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What species does not have polychromatophils?

A

Horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of reticulocytes do you count?

A

Aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are fibrinogen levels increased?

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Kidney enzyme tests?

A

BUN and Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BUN measures what?

A

Blood urea levels, a product from amino acid breakdown in the liver that is normally filtered out at kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Creatinine measures what?

A

Creatinine breakdown from muscle, kidneys normally filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Serum Creatine Kinase measures what?

A

Creatine released from muscle damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Liver enzyme tests?

A

ALT, AST, GGT, Alk Phos, Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALT measures liver damage in what species?

A

Human, Ferret, Rat, Dog, and Cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can ALT be used to determine severity of liver disease?

A

No, it is only a screening test. No correlation is seen in high levels and severity of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where else is ALT found?

A

Kidney, heart, skeletal muscle, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In what species is ALT not liver specific?

A

Horses, ruminants, pigs, rabbits, guinea pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can elevate ALT?

A

Lipemia or hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What species has high concentration of ALT in liver but no correlation with disease at all?
Birds
26
ALT was formerly called?
SGPT
27
AST was formerly called?
SGOT
28
Where is AST found?
heart, liver, muscle, kidney, and pancreas
29
Is AST organ specific?
No. It is released due to cellular damage.
30
Common causes for AST elevation?
hepatic disease, muscular inflammation or injury, hemolysis
31
What is used to evaluate large animal liver disease?
AST combined with Creatine Kinase or clinical signs to rule out muscular injury
32
Unconjucated bilirubin has what properties?
Insoluble in water and measured indirectly
33
Conjucated bilirubin has what properties?
Soluble in water and measured directly
34
Increased Conjucated bilirubin indicates what?
hepatocellular damage or bile duct injury, not properly leaving liver
35
Increased Unconjucated bilirubin indicates what?
excessive RBC destruction or difficulty bringing bilirubin into liver - can be shunt in younger animals
36
GGT is found where?
liver, kidney, muscle | in plasma it is mostly from liver - its function is unknown
37
What increases GGT?
liver disease, especially obstructive liver disease. | Steroids or Cushing's Disease
38
Colostrum from sheep, cows, and dogs is high in what enzyme?
GGT
39
Alkaline Phosphatase is present where?
Almost all tissues, particularly osteoblast, chondroblasts, liver
40
High alk phos in young animals indicates?
Active bone development. | Steroids or Cushing's Disease
41
High alk phos in older animals indicates?
Obstructive liver disease, possible bone cancer or injury. Steroids or Cushing's Disease
42
Clinical signs of acute pancreatitis?
Inflammation, hemorrhage, necrosis, peritonitis, death
43
Chronic pancreatitis can cause?
Endocrine pancreatic insufficiency (Diabetes Mellitus)
44
Pancreatic enzyme tests include
Trypsin, lipase, amylase, blood glucose
45
Total protein can be affected by what?
Altered hepatic synthesis of protein, dehydration, overhydration
46
Serum protein measures what?
All protein fractions in blood except fibrinogen
47
Albumin is what percent of total protein?
30-50%
48
What things will affect albumin levels?
Liver and renal disease, diet, intestinal malabsorption
49
What electrolyte must be tested in serum?
Calcium, it binds with EDTA
50
What function is calcium important for?
Maintaining neuromuscular excitability and tone
51
What electrolyte is calcium inversely related too?
Phosphorous
52
What function is phosphorous important for?
Carbohydrate metabolism and energy storage
53
Sodium's function in body?
Distribution of water and maintenance of osmotic pressure. pH regulation.
54
Potassium's function in body?
Muscular function, respiration, cardiac function
55
Increased potassium cause and effect?
Acidosis - due to increased acids or loss of bicarbonate
56
Decreased potassium cause and effect?
Alkalosis - due to excess fluid loss such as vomiting or diarrhea
57
Magnesium does what?
Activates enzyme systems
58
Calcium levels are inversely related to what?
Magnesium
59
Muscular tetany is caused by what?
Inbalance of mg and ca. Seen in cattle and sheep.
60
Chloride is important to what?
Water retention and osmotic pressure
61
Chloride is related to what other electrolytes?
Sodium and bicarbonate
62
Bicarbonate does what?
Acts as a buffer system (pH balance) Kidneys regulate levels. Aids in the transport of CO2.