Clinical Procedures - Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

8 Parts of the CBC

A
PCV (%)
TP (g/deciliter)
Dehydration artificially elevates PCV and TP
RBC (# x 10^6/µl)
WBC (#x1000/µl)
Hgb concentration (g/dl) 
Differential (# and %)
Platelet Estimate (range/µl)
Indices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MCV Indicates what?

A

size (microcytic, macrocytic, normocytic) (femtoliter)

PCV x 10/RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MCHC indicates what?

A

color (hypochromic, normochromic)

HgB x 100/PCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MCH indicates what?

A

quality control should correlate with MCV (picogram)

HgB x 10/RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Neutrophil appearance

A

nucleus any size, dark dense nucleus, segmented, cytoplasm clear in most species – dust like granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphocytes appearance

A

Round cells, nucleus will be very blue and round, cytoplasm may be very little and blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Monocytes appearance

A

Largest WBC, nucleus any shape and lacy, blue gray may have vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Eosinophils appearance

A

any shaped nucleus, cytoplasm has reddish granules, tend to be translucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Basophils appearance

A

any shaped nucleus, granules dark and dense – black or blue (except cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Platelets appearance

A

vary in size and color, often pale pink or blue, fragments of megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reticulocyte Count procedure

A

make thick slide because anemic, 1:1 ratio of methylene blue dye to blood, let sit 10 minutes and then smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What species does not have polychromatophils?

A

Horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of reticulocytes do you count?

A

Aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When are fibrinogen levels increased?

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Kidney enzyme tests?

A

BUN and Creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

BUN measures what?

A

Blood urea levels, a product from amino acid breakdown in the liver that is normally filtered out at kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Creatinine measures what?

A

Creatinine breakdown from muscle, kidneys normally filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Serum Creatine Kinase measures what?

A

Creatine released from muscle damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Liver enzyme tests?

A

ALT, AST, GGT, Alk Phos, Bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ALT measures liver damage in what species?

A

Human, Ferret, Rat, Dog, and Cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can ALT be used to determine severity of liver disease?

A

No, it is only a screening test. No correlation is seen in high levels and severity of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where else is ALT found?

A

Kidney, heart, skeletal muscle, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In what species is ALT not liver specific?

A

Horses, ruminants, pigs, rabbits, guinea pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can elevate ALT?

A

Lipemia or hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What species has high concentration of ALT in liver but no correlation with disease at all?

A

Birds

26
Q

ALT was formerly called?

A

SGPT

27
Q

AST was formerly called?

A

SGOT

28
Q

Where is AST found?

A

heart, liver, muscle, kidney, and pancreas

29
Q

Is AST organ specific?

A

No. It is released due to cellular damage.

30
Q

Common causes for AST elevation?

A

hepatic disease, muscular inflammation or injury, hemolysis

31
Q

What is used to evaluate large animal liver disease?

A

AST combined with Creatine Kinase or clinical signs to rule out muscular injury

32
Q

Unconjucated bilirubin has what properties?

A

Insoluble in water and measured indirectly

33
Q

Conjucated bilirubin has what properties?

A

Soluble in water and measured directly

34
Q

Increased Conjucated bilirubin indicates what?

A

hepatocellular damage or bile duct injury, not properly leaving liver

35
Q

Increased Unconjucated bilirubin indicates what?

A

excessive RBC destruction or difficulty bringing bilirubin into liver - can be shunt in younger animals

36
Q

GGT is found where?

A

liver, kidney, muscle

in plasma it is mostly from liver - its function is unknown

37
Q

What increases GGT?

A

liver disease, especially obstructive liver disease.

Steroids or Cushing’s Disease

38
Q

Colostrum from sheep, cows, and dogs is high in what enzyme?

A

GGT

39
Q

Alkaline Phosphatase is present where?

A

Almost all tissues, particularly osteoblast, chondroblasts, liver

40
Q

High alk phos in young animals indicates?

A

Active bone development.

Steroids or Cushing’s Disease

41
Q

High alk phos in older animals indicates?

A

Obstructive liver disease, possible bone cancer or injury. Steroids or Cushing’s Disease

42
Q

Clinical signs of acute pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation, hemorrhage, necrosis, peritonitis, death

43
Q

Chronic pancreatitis can cause?

A

Endocrine pancreatic insufficiency (Diabetes Mellitus)

44
Q

Pancreatic enzyme tests include

A

Trypsin, lipase, amylase, blood glucose

45
Q

Total protein can be affected by what?

A

Altered hepatic synthesis of protein, dehydration, overhydration

46
Q

Serum protein measures what?

A

All protein fractions in blood except fibrinogen

47
Q

Albumin is what percent of total protein?

A

30-50%

48
Q

What things will affect albumin levels?

A

Liver and renal disease, diet, intestinal malabsorption

49
Q

What electrolyte must be tested in serum?

A

Calcium, it binds with EDTA

50
Q

What function is calcium important for?

A

Maintaining neuromuscular excitability and tone

51
Q

What electrolyte is calcium inversely related too?

A

Phosphorous

52
Q

What function is phosphorous important for?

A

Carbohydrate metabolism and energy storage

53
Q

Sodium’s function in body?

A

Distribution of water and maintenance of osmotic pressure. pH regulation.

54
Q

Potassium’s function in body?

A

Muscular function, respiration, cardiac function

55
Q

Increased potassium cause and effect?

A

Acidosis - due to increased acids or loss of bicarbonate

56
Q

Decreased potassium cause and effect?

A

Alkalosis - due to excess fluid loss such as vomiting or diarrhea

57
Q

Magnesium does what?

A

Activates enzyme systems

58
Q

Calcium levels are inversely related to what?

A

Magnesium

59
Q

Muscular tetany is caused by what?

A

Inbalance of mg and ca. Seen in cattle and sheep.

60
Q

Chloride is important to what?

A

Water retention and osmotic pressure

61
Q

Chloride is related to what other electrolytes?

A

Sodium and bicarbonate

62
Q

Bicarbonate does what?

A

Acts as a buffer system (pH balance) Kidneys regulate levels.
Aids in the transport of CO2.