Clinical Laboratory Procedures Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
To preserve cellular morphology samples to be used for histopathology must be sectioned so that the fixative can penetrate the entire tissue within what time period?
A
24-48 hours
2
Q
The primary wildlife carriers of rabies in the United States include all but
A
rats
3
Q
Which document lists the characteristics of a compound that contains a potentially hazardous chemical, including precautions, instructions for use, and advice for handling the compound safely
A
Safety data sheet
4
Q
Which item is used to calibrate the refractometer?
A
distilled water
5
Q
What is the total magnification of an object when viewed under the standard of oil immersion lens?
A
1000x
6
Q
If the hospital where you work employs more than 10 employees, you have the right to view the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses
A
true
7
Q
The most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are
A
Animal related
8
Q
Regarding workplace safety, what is a reasonable expectation from the practice leadership
A
To provide a safe workplace
9
Q
Formalin (and all fixatives) should be handled with care. Formalin is a contact irritant and a carcinogen. Which of the following precautions is needed when handling formalin?
A
All of these should be applied
10
Q
As an employee, you have the right and a responsibility to bring concerns about potential safety hazards to the attention of the employer without fear of reprisal
A
True
11
Q
What is the accepted term for the examination of an animal after death?
A
Necropsy
12
Q
During a necropsy, each part of the carcass is first examined
A
In situ
13
Q
Which term refers to how close a test value is to the actual patient value?
A
Accuracy
14
Q
which chemical is used for gas sterilization of equipment that cannot be autoclaved safely, although it is a suspected carcinogen
A
Ethylene oxide
15
Q
Which of the following statements is FALSE relating to necropsy
A
The tools should be taken from surgical packs
16
Q
Which procedure involves collecting fluid samples from body cavities
A
centesis
17
Q
____ describe recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to the hazardous chemical or improper storage or handling
A
Precautionary statements
18
Q
What is the primary purpose of laboratory log
A
To track patient lab results in the event the original lab reports are unable to be located
19
Q
To prevent the use of necropsy tools on live animals, the tools should be
A
Labeled and stored in a separate area
20
Q
When shipping specimens to a reference laboratory, all of the following should be preformed EXCEPT
A
sent through regular mail
21
Q
Bacteria can be transferred from animals to veterinary staff in all of the following except
A
direct contact with infected animals, inhalation of aerosolized bacteria, and absorption of the bacteria absorbed through MM
22
Q
When the results of a laboratory report have been received, they should be:
A
given to the veterinarian for interpretation
23
Q
Which term refers to the reproducibility of a test result
A
precision
24
Q
To reduce the chance of fire, flammable materials, such as newspapers, boxes, and cleaning chemicals must always be stored at least ___ ft away from an ignition source, such as a water heater, furnace, or stove.
A
3
25
When handling a pet with sarcoptic mange, aside from gloves, what other PPE should be worn
gown
26
Infectious disease that can be passed from animals to humans are known as
zoonotic diseases
27
Which tissue should be submitted in a case where rabies infection is suspected
Entire head
28
A necropsy can be preformed on a patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to
treat infectious diseases
29
What is a common reason for preformance of necropsy
to determine the cause of death
30
Toxoplasma is especially harmful to developing fetuses. Pregnant women should
Have Toxoplasma titers evaluated before becoming pregnant
31
Autoclaves present a danger from the pressure that is used for proper sterilization.Therefore
be sure to vent to release pressure and steam before you open the door
32
When caring for microscopes, what should be used to clean the lens
lens paper
33
Which of the following personal protective equipment can be reused?
clean eye protection goggles/face shield
34
Which feature of a microscope controls the amount of light illuminating an object?
diaphragm
35
Which is the correct total magnification for a microscope using 10x ocular lens and 40x objective
400x
36
serum protein is usually a little lower than plasma protein, because there is no __ in it.
fibrinogen
37
What information does the MCV value in a CBC reflect
The average size of the red blood cells
38
EDTA works to stop coagulation by
binding with calcium
39
Variation in RBC size is called
anisocytosis
40
The substage condenser of the microscope should be in a relatively high position when evaluating a blood smear or cytology prep
true
41
What are monocytes converted into when they migrate from blood into tissues in search of foregin invaders in an animal host?
Macrophages
42
___ refers to variation in RBC shape
Poikilocytosis
43
Back leg injection or blood taken out
Lateral Saphenous
44
__ is the percentage of RBC's in a specific volume of blood
PCV
45
___ is the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC
MCH
46
Blood for a platelet count should be drawn into a tube containing ___ anticoagulant
EDTA
47
What clinical laboratory device can be used to manually count white blood cells
Hemocytometer
48
For which of the following species would the presence of nucleated red blood cells identified during a CBC not be considered abnormal
Birds
49
EDTA, heparin, and sodium citrate are examples of
anticoagulants
50
Unstained blood smears should be stored away from formalin fumes and shipped separately from surgical biopsies that have been placed in formalin
inhibit optimal staining
51
Neutophils
The predominant circulating white blood cell in dogs, cats, and horses
52
Eosinophils
Contain numerous, large, brightly staining granules in horses
53
Basophils
Have a twisted or irregular nucleus in dogs
54
Lymphocytes
up to 50% may be intermediate to large size in cows
55
Monocytes
Have abundant grey-blue cytoplasm, possibly with clear vacuoles
56
Mast cells
Contain numerous purple granules and a round nucleus
57
Band neutrophils
Are also called stabs these are immature neutrophils
58
Reactive lymphocytes
Have more intensely basophilic cytoplasm and may have a perinuclear clear area
59
The blood parasite Anaplasma marginale is easily mistaken for stain percipitate
False
60
On the microscope, the ___ objective is recommended for blood smear evaluation
100x oil immersion
61
Yellow
Hemolysis and icterus, previous hemorrhage, or ruptured bladder
62
Green
Ruptured bile duct
63
White or tan
Lipid or high numbers of cells
64
Red or pink
Internal hemorrhage
65
What is an alternate name for packed cell volume
Hematocrit (HCT)
66
Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is __, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is ___
Clear and colorless; clear and light-yellow
67
Agglutination refers to irregular, variably sized clumps of RBC's that form because of
excess antibodies bound to the surface of RBC's
68
Newer hematology analyzers designed for processing animal blood samples are becoming more widely used in veterinary settings. Some of these instuments utilize ___ method, in which cells in the blood sample interfere with an electrical current, thereby providing information on the various sizes if the cells present
impedance
69
A veterinary assistant restrains a canine in lateral recumbency. This position is most likely to be used for venipuncture of the
lateral saphenous vein
70
Platelet clumps occur most commonly in dogs
false
71
what process activates secondary hemostasis
Coagulation cascade
72
It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because
Underfilling can lead to sample dilution with anticoagulant
73
___ it is the protein in RBC's that carries oxygen from lungs to tisssues
Hemoglobin
74
Taking blood out in the front legs
Cephalic
75
Which is the preferred anticoagulant used to prevent clotting in mammalian blood samples destined for hematologic
EDTA
76
Which component of urine must be identified through microscopic examination?
Cellular elements
77
A disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is
Contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract
78
Urine pH should be measured shortly after sample collection, As urine stands, the pH will
Increase due to loss of carbon dioxide
79
The refractometer is a tool that is used to measure urine specific gravity
True
80
A urine SG less than ___ indicates that the kidneys are functioning and are able to actively dilute the urine
1.008
81
Crystalluria is a term given to the abscence of crystals in the urine
False
82
Collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is preformed
to avoid contamination
83
Which would be the best method of collection when preforming a urine culture and sensitivity
Cystocentesis
84
When completing a urinalysis, the urine must be warmed to room temperature first
True
85
Gross examination of urine includes color, clarity, volume, and:
Odor
86
Which of the following statements about the collection of urine is the most accurate?
Urinary crystals can either form or dissolve after the urine sample is collected
87
To centrifuge a urine specimen for microscopic evaluation, the specimen should be spun:
On low speed for 5 minutes
88
May increase as a result of loss of carbon dioxide as urine stands
pH
89
May appear in the urine as a consequence of glomerular disease
protein
90
May present in the urine in animals with starvation
Ketones
91
May change from positive to negative if the urine is centrifuged
Blood
92
Which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable to culture
Collection from cage floor
93
Bilirubin is not detected in normal __ urine, so bilirubinuria in this species indicates disease
Cats
94
Staining of urine sedimentation improves the visual aspect of cellular matter
True
95
Normal urine should
not contain glucose
96
A ___ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG
refractometer
97
Alkaline urine (pH>8) can
give a false-positive protein results
98
When sending out a urine sample to a referecne laboratory, in addition to patient information, what additional information should be provided
collection method
99
Urate crystals may be seen in the urine of __ as the results of an inherited error of metabolism, and in some dogs with portosystemic shunts
Dalmatians
100
Chemical properties of urine include volume, color, odor, turbidity, and specific gravity
False
101
Pigments that give color to urine are called urochromes
True
102
A decrease in the volume of urine produced is called oliguria
True
103
Urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is ___ and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma
isosthenuric
104
In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the
horses and rabbit
105
Which statement would be helpful for a client bringing in a pet's urine sample?
A free catch sample should be collected first thing in the morning
106
When testing an animal's urine using a chemistry reagent strip (dip stick), it is important to remember which tests will not yield accurate results using reagent strips. Those tests include
leukocytes and SG
107
When setting up for urinary catheterization, the catheter may be sterile, the site may be surgically scrubbed and non-sterile exam gloves are worn
False
108
A urine pH below 7 increased h+ is
aciduric
109
once would expect to find calcium carbonate crystals in normal urine from a
horse
110
Before placing stored urine on a chemical test strip, it must be:
Room temperature
111
When removing ticks from an animals , it is important to:
remove the mouthparts
112
Cestodes
tapeworms
113
Nematodes
roundworms
114
trematodes
Flukes
115
Arthopods
Fleas,ticks,flies,mites,lice
116
Protozoans
Giardia, babesia,coccidians
117
When asking a client to bring in a fecal sample for his or her dog, the client should be instructed to bring approximately ___ feces in to be examined
1 teaspoon
118
Due to the health risk posed by toxoplasmosis, pregnant women should take caution when handling
Cat and cat feces
119
The principle of fecal flotation is based on which of the following
the eggs of the parasite are lighter than the flotation solution and will float to the surface where they can be stuck to a cover slip placed on the top of the vial
120
Infestation with larval flies (maggots) is referred to as
myiasis
121
the intermediate host (and vector for transmission) of dirofilaria immitis is the
Mosquito
122
An infestation by which organism(s) is termed pediculosis
lice
123
Zoonotic diseases can infect
both humans and animal species
124
Which stage of the tick life cycle has six legs
larva
125
Infestation by ____ is called acariasis
mites or ticks
126
If a patient is suspected to have a ctenocephalides spp. infestation which of the following tools can help to confirm the diagnosis
flea comb
127
Hookworms are found in the small intestine of dogs and cats. As a group, hookworms may produce a zoonotic confition in humans known as
cuataneous larva migrans
128
fecal flotation and urine sedimentation are both examples of ___ techniques
Concentration
129
A small amount of fecal material that is mixed with saline, to produce a emulsion clear enough to read
direct fecal smear
130
A parasite that resides on the surface of its host is termed a(n)
ectoparasite
131
Dirofilaria immitis, the canine heartworm, usually resides in the right ventricle and branches of the pulmonary artery; however it may "get off track" during its migration to the heart and become established in the anterior chamber of the eye
aberrant or erratic parasite
132
Canine___ are voracious blood feeders owing to their unique teeth and their large buccal cavity. Pale MM and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies
hookworms
133
What is the easiest way to tell sucking lice from biting lice
shape of head and mouthpiece
134
An organism that harbors the immature stage of a parasite is referred to as
intermediate host
135
Which of the following disease could potentially be transmitted from a dog to their owner
leptospirosis
136
Which of the following groups of parasites include ticks, mosquitos and mites
Arthopods
137
This mite dwells in hair follicles and sebaceous glands and although it is not a sarcopitform mite, it produces a similar syndrome, with localized or generalized alopecia
Demodex canis
138
The extreme prutius associated with a sarcoptes scabei infestation caused by the mite
tunneling into the host's epidermis
139
The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is
cats
140
When an owner reports finding particles that resemble dry, uncooked white rice on their dog's or cat's bedding, the pet should be checked for
cestodes
141
Most gastrointestinal parasites are diagnosed by testing and examination of the:
feces
142
Mites causing which of the following conditions can easily infect people
sarcoptic mange
143
____ resembles a whip, hence its a common name, the whipworm
Trichuris vulpis
144
prior to using s blade skin scraping, it must be ___
dulled
145
Ticks that affect small animals include all the fallowing except
cheyletiella species
146
Borrelia burgdorferi, rickettsia spp, Ehrlichia canis and anaplasma marginale are all examples of what
tick-borne microorganisms
147
When performing skin scraping, what is the solution that must be placed on the slide before
Mineral oil
148
Fecal samples should be collected fresh and examined within ___ hours of collection
24
149
The supplies needed to preform a direct fecal smear are
Feces, wood applicator, microscope slide,saline,cover slip
150
This common tapeworm is found in the small intestine of dogs,catas, and ferrets, and is commonly called the cucumber seed tapeworm and the double-pored tapeworm
Dipylidium caninum
