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vet assis > Clinical Laboratory Procedures Final Exam > Flashcards

Clinical Laboratory Procedures Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

To preserve cellular morphology samples to be used for histopathology must be sectioned so that the fixative can penetrate the entire tissue within what time period?

A

24-48 hours

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2
Q

The primary wildlife carriers of rabies in the United States include all but

A

rats

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3
Q

Which document lists the characteristics of a compound that contains a potentially hazardous chemical, including precautions, instructions for use, and advice for handling the compound safely

A

Safety data sheet

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4
Q

Which item is used to calibrate the refractometer?

A

distilled water

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5
Q

What is the total magnification of an object when viewed under the standard of oil immersion lens?

A

1000x

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6
Q

If the hospital where you work employs more than 10 employees, you have the right to view the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses

A

true

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7
Q

The most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are

A

Animal related

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8
Q

Regarding workplace safety, what is a reasonable expectation from the practice leadership

A

To provide a safe workplace

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9
Q

Formalin (and all fixatives) should be handled with care. Formalin is a contact irritant and a carcinogen. Which of the following precautions is needed when handling formalin?

A

All of these should be applied

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10
Q

As an employee, you have the right and a responsibility to bring concerns about potential safety hazards to the attention of the employer without fear of reprisal

A

True

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11
Q

What is the accepted term for the examination of an animal after death?

A

Necropsy

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12
Q

During a necropsy, each part of the carcass is first examined

A

In situ

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13
Q

Which term refers to how close a test value is to the actual patient value?

A

Accuracy

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14
Q

which chemical is used for gas sterilization of equipment that cannot be autoclaved safely, although it is a suspected carcinogen

A

Ethylene oxide

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE relating to necropsy

A

The tools should be taken from surgical packs

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16
Q

Which procedure involves collecting fluid samples from body cavities

A

centesis

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17
Q

____ describe recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to the hazardous chemical or improper storage or handling

A

Precautionary statements

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18
Q

What is the primary purpose of laboratory log

A

To track patient lab results in the event the original lab reports are unable to be located

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19
Q

To prevent the use of necropsy tools on live animals, the tools should be

A

Labeled and stored in a separate area

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20
Q

When shipping specimens to a reference laboratory, all of the following should be preformed EXCEPT

A

sent through regular mail

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21
Q

Bacteria can be transferred from animals to veterinary staff in all of the following except

A

direct contact with infected animals, inhalation of aerosolized bacteria, and absorption of the bacteria absorbed through MM

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22
Q

When the results of a laboratory report have been received, they should be:

A

given to the veterinarian for interpretation

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23
Q

Which term refers to the reproducibility of a test result

A

precision

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24
Q

To reduce the chance of fire, flammable materials, such as newspapers, boxes, and cleaning chemicals must always be stored at least ___ ft away from an ignition source, such as a water heater, furnace, or stove.

A

3

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25
Q

When handling a pet with sarcoptic mange, aside from gloves, what other PPE should be worn

A

gown

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26
Q

Infectious disease that can be passed from animals to humans are known as

A

zoonotic diseases

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27
Q

Which tissue should be submitted in a case where rabies infection is suspected

A

Entire head

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28
Q

A necropsy can be preformed on a patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to

A

treat infectious diseases

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29
Q

What is a common reason for preformance of necropsy

A

to determine the cause of death

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30
Q

Toxoplasma is especially harmful to developing fetuses. Pregnant women should

A

Have Toxoplasma titers evaluated before becoming pregnant

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31
Q

Autoclaves present a danger from the pressure that is used for proper sterilization.Therefore

A

be sure to vent to release pressure and steam before you open the door

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32
Q

When caring for microscopes, what should be used to clean the lens

A

lens paper

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33
Q

Which of the following personal protective equipment can be reused?

A

clean eye protection goggles/face shield

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34
Q

Which feature of a microscope controls the amount of light illuminating an object?

A

diaphragm

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35
Q

Which is the correct total magnification for a microscope using 10x ocular lens and 40x objective

A

400x

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36
Q

serum protein is usually a little lower than plasma protein, because there is no __ in it.

A

fibrinogen

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37
Q

What information does the MCV value in a CBC reflect

A

The average size of the red blood cells

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38
Q

EDTA works to stop coagulation by

A

binding with calcium

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39
Q

Variation in RBC size is called

A

anisocytosis

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40
Q

The substage condenser of the microscope should be in a relatively high position when evaluating a blood smear or cytology prep

A

true

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41
Q

What are monocytes converted into when they migrate from blood into tissues in search of foregin invaders in an animal host?

A

Macrophages

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42
Q

___ refers to variation in RBC shape

A

Poikilocytosis

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43
Q

Back leg injection or blood taken out

A

Lateral Saphenous

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44
Q

__ is the percentage of RBC’s in a specific volume of blood

A

PCV

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45
Q

___ is the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC

A

MCH

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46
Q

Blood for a platelet count should be drawn into a tube containing ___ anticoagulant

A

EDTA

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47
Q

What clinical laboratory device can be used to manually count white blood cells

A

Hemocytometer

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48
Q

For which of the following species would the presence of nucleated red blood cells identified during a CBC not be considered abnormal

A

Birds

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49
Q

EDTA, heparin, and sodium citrate are examples of

A

anticoagulants

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50
Q

Unstained blood smears should be stored away from formalin fumes and shipped separately from surgical biopsies that have been placed in formalin

A

inhibit optimal staining

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51
Q

Neutophils

A

The predominant circulating white blood cell in dogs, cats, and horses

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52
Q

Eosinophils

A

Contain numerous, large, brightly staining granules in horses

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53
Q

Basophils

A

Have a twisted or irregular nucleus in dogs

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54
Q

Lymphocytes

A

up to 50% may be intermediate to large size in cows

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55
Q

Monocytes

A

Have abundant grey-blue cytoplasm, possibly with clear vacuoles

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56
Q

Mast cells

A

Contain numerous purple granules and a round nucleus

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57
Q

Band neutrophils

A

Are also called stabs these are immature neutrophils

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58
Q

Reactive lymphocytes

A

Have more intensely basophilic cytoplasm and may have a perinuclear clear area

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59
Q

The blood parasite Anaplasma marginale is easily mistaken for stain percipitate

A

False

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60
Q

On the microscope, the ___ objective is recommended for blood smear evaluation

A

100x oil immersion

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61
Q

Yellow

A

Hemolysis and icterus, previous hemorrhage, or ruptured bladder

62
Q

Green

A

Ruptured bile duct

63
Q

White or tan

A

Lipid or high numbers of cells

64
Q

Red or pink

A

Internal hemorrhage

65
Q

What is an alternate name for packed cell volume

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

66
Q

Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is __, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is ___

A

Clear and colorless; clear and light-yellow

67
Q

Agglutination refers to irregular, variably sized clumps of RBC’s that form because of

A

excess antibodies bound to the surface of RBC’s

68
Q

Newer hematology analyzers designed for processing animal blood samples are becoming more widely used in veterinary settings. Some of these instuments utilize ___ method, in which cells in the blood sample interfere with an electrical current, thereby providing information on the various sizes if the cells present

A

impedance

69
Q

A veterinary assistant restrains a canine in lateral recumbency. This position is most likely to be used for venipuncture of the

A

lateral saphenous vein

70
Q

Platelet clumps occur most commonly in dogs

A

false

71
Q

what process activates secondary hemostasis

A

Coagulation cascade

72
Q

It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because

A

Underfilling can lead to sample dilution with anticoagulant

73
Q

___ it is the protein in RBC’s that carries oxygen from lungs to tisssues

A

Hemoglobin

74
Q

Taking blood out in the front legs

A

Cephalic

75
Q

Which is the preferred anticoagulant used to prevent clotting in mammalian blood samples destined for hematologic

A

EDTA

76
Q

Which component of urine must be identified through microscopic examination?

A

Cellular elements

77
Q

A disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is

A

Contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract

78
Q

Urine pH should be measured shortly after sample collection, As urine stands, the pH will

A

Increase due to loss of carbon dioxide

79
Q

The refractometer is a tool that is used to measure urine specific gravity

A

True

80
Q

A urine SG less than ___ indicates that the kidneys are functioning and are able to actively dilute the urine

A

1.008

81
Q

Crystalluria is a term given to the abscence of crystals in the urine

A

False

82
Q

Collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is preformed

A

to avoid contamination

83
Q

Which would be the best method of collection when preforming a urine culture and sensitivity

A

Cystocentesis

84
Q

When completing a urinalysis, the urine must be warmed to room temperature first

A

True

85
Q

Gross examination of urine includes color, clarity, volume, and:

A

Odor

86
Q

Which of the following statements about the collection of urine is the most accurate?

A

Urinary crystals can either form or dissolve after the urine sample is collected

87
Q

To centrifuge a urine specimen for microscopic evaluation, the specimen should be spun:

A

On low speed for 5 minutes

88
Q

May increase as a result of loss of carbon dioxide as urine stands

A

pH

89
Q

May appear in the urine as a consequence of glomerular disease

A

protein

90
Q

May present in the urine in animals with starvation

A

Ketones

91
Q

May change from positive to negative if the urine is centrifuged

A

Blood

92
Q

Which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable to culture

A

Collection from cage floor

93
Q

Bilirubin is not detected in normal __ urine, so bilirubinuria in this species indicates disease

A

Cats

94
Q

Staining of urine sedimentation improves the visual aspect of cellular matter

A

True

95
Q

Normal urine should

A

not contain glucose

96
Q

A ___ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG

A

refractometer

97
Q

Alkaline urine (pH>8) can

A

give a false-positive protein results

98
Q

When sending out a urine sample to a referecne laboratory, in addition to patient information, what additional information should be provided

A

collection method

99
Q

Urate crystals may be seen in the urine of __ as the results of an inherited error of metabolism, and in some dogs with portosystemic shunts

A

Dalmatians

100
Q

Chemical properties of urine include volume, color, odor, turbidity, and specific gravity

A

False

101
Q

Pigments that give color to urine are called urochromes

A

True

102
Q

A decrease in the volume of urine produced is called oliguria

A

True

103
Q

Urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is ___ and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma

A

isosthenuric

104
Q

In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the

A

horses and rabbit

105
Q

Which statement would be helpful for a client bringing in a pet’s urine sample?

A

A free catch sample should be collected first thing in the morning

106
Q

When testing an animal’s urine using a chemistry reagent strip (dip stick), it is important to remember which tests will not yield accurate results using reagent strips. Those tests include

A

leukocytes and SG

107
Q

When setting up for urinary catheterization, the catheter may be sterile, the site may be surgically scrubbed and non-sterile exam gloves are worn

A

False

108
Q

A urine pH below 7 increased h+ is

A

aciduric

109
Q

once would expect to find calcium carbonate crystals in normal urine from a

A

horse

110
Q

Before placing stored urine on a chemical test strip, it must be:

A

Room temperature

111
Q

When removing ticks from an animals , it is important to:

A

remove the mouthparts

112
Q

Cestodes

A

tapeworms

113
Q

Nematodes

A

roundworms

114
Q

trematodes

A

Flukes

115
Q

Arthopods

A

Fleas,ticks,flies,mites,lice

116
Q

Protozoans

A

Giardia, babesia,coccidians

117
Q

When asking a client to bring in a fecal sample for his or her dog, the client should be instructed to bring approximately ___ feces in to be examined

A

1 teaspoon

118
Q

Due to the health risk posed by toxoplasmosis, pregnant women should take caution when handling

A

Cat and cat feces

119
Q

The principle of fecal flotation is based on which of the following

A

the eggs of the parasite are lighter than the flotation solution and will float to the surface where they can be stuck to a cover slip placed on the top of the vial

120
Q

Infestation with larval flies (maggots) is referred to as

A

myiasis

121
Q

the intermediate host (and vector for transmission) of dirofilaria immitis is the

A

Mosquito

122
Q

An infestation by which organism(s) is termed pediculosis

A

lice

123
Q

Zoonotic diseases can infect

A

both humans and animal species

124
Q

Which stage of the tick life cycle has six legs

A

larva

125
Q

Infestation by ____ is called acariasis

A

mites or ticks

126
Q

If a patient is suspected to have a ctenocephalides spp. infestation which of the following tools can help to confirm the diagnosis

A

flea comb

127
Q

Hookworms are found in the small intestine of dogs and cats. As a group, hookworms may produce a zoonotic confition in humans known as

A

cuataneous larva migrans

128
Q

fecal flotation and urine sedimentation are both examples of ___ techniques

A

Concentration

129
Q

A small amount of fecal material that is mixed with saline, to produce a emulsion clear enough to read

A

direct fecal smear

130
Q

A parasite that resides on the surface of its host is termed a(n)

A

ectoparasite

131
Q

Dirofilaria immitis, the canine heartworm, usually resides in the right ventricle and branches of the pulmonary artery; however it may “get off track” during its migration to the heart and become established in the anterior chamber of the eye

A

aberrant or erratic parasite

132
Q

Canine___ are voracious blood feeders owing to their unique teeth and their large buccal cavity. Pale MM and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies

A

hookworms

133
Q

What is the easiest way to tell sucking lice from biting lice

A

shape of head and mouthpiece

134
Q

An organism that harbors the immature stage of a parasite is referred to as

A

intermediate host

135
Q

Which of the following disease could potentially be transmitted from a dog to their owner

A

leptospirosis

136
Q

Which of the following groups of parasites include ticks, mosquitos and mites

A

Arthopods

137
Q

This mite dwells in hair follicles and sebaceous glands and although it is not a sarcopitform mite, it produces a similar syndrome, with localized or generalized alopecia

A

Demodex canis

138
Q

The extreme prutius associated with a sarcoptes scabei infestation caused by the mite

A

tunneling into the host’s epidermis

139
Q

The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is

A

cats

140
Q

When an owner reports finding particles that resemble dry, uncooked white rice on their dog’s or cat’s bedding, the pet should be checked for

A

cestodes

141
Q

Most gastrointestinal parasites are diagnosed by testing and examination of the:

A

feces

142
Q

Mites causing which of the following conditions can easily infect people

A

sarcoptic mange

143
Q

____ resembles a whip, hence its a common name, the whipworm

A

Trichuris vulpis

144
Q

prior to using s blade skin scraping, it must be ___

A

dulled

145
Q

Ticks that affect small animals include all the fallowing except

A

cheyletiella species

146
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi, rickettsia spp, Ehrlichia canis and anaplasma marginale are all examples of what

A

tick-borne microorganisms

147
Q

When performing skin scraping, what is the solution that must be placed on the slide before

A

Mineral oil

148
Q

Fecal samples should be collected fresh and examined within ___ hours of collection

A

24

149
Q

The supplies needed to preform a direct fecal smear are

A

Feces, wood applicator, microscope slide,saline,cover slip

150
Q

This common tapeworm is found in the small intestine of dogs,catas, and ferrets, and is commonly called the cucumber seed tapeworm and the double-pored tapeworm

A

Dipylidium caninum

vet assis (9 decks)

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