Clinical Laboratory Procedures Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

To preserve cellular morphology samples to be used for histopathology must be sectioned so that the fixative can penetrate the entire tissue within what time period?

A

24-48 hours

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2
Q

The primary wildlife carriers of rabies in the United States include all but

A

rats

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3
Q

Which document lists the characteristics of a compound that contains a potentially hazardous chemical, including precautions, instructions for use, and advice for handling the compound safely

A

Safety data sheet

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4
Q

Which item is used to calibrate the refractometer?

A

distilled water

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5
Q

What is the total magnification of an object when viewed under the standard of oil immersion lens?

A

1000x

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6
Q

If the hospital where you work employs more than 10 employees, you have the right to view the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses

A

true

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7
Q

The most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are

A

Animal related

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8
Q

Regarding workplace safety, what is a reasonable expectation from the practice leadership

A

To provide a safe workplace

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9
Q

Formalin (and all fixatives) should be handled with care. Formalin is a contact irritant and a carcinogen. Which of the following precautions is needed when handling formalin?

A

All of these should be applied

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10
Q

As an employee, you have the right and a responsibility to bring concerns about potential safety hazards to the attention of the employer without fear of reprisal

A

True

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11
Q

What is the accepted term for the examination of an animal after death?

A

Necropsy

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12
Q

During a necropsy, each part of the carcass is first examined

A

In situ

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13
Q

Which term refers to how close a test value is to the actual patient value?

A

Accuracy

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14
Q

which chemical is used for gas sterilization of equipment that cannot be autoclaved safely, although it is a suspected carcinogen

A

Ethylene oxide

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE relating to necropsy

A

The tools should be taken from surgical packs

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16
Q

Which procedure involves collecting fluid samples from body cavities

A

centesis

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17
Q

____ describe recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to the hazardous chemical or improper storage or handling

A

Precautionary statements

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18
Q

What is the primary purpose of laboratory log

A

To track patient lab results in the event the original lab reports are unable to be located

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19
Q

To prevent the use of necropsy tools on live animals, the tools should be

A

Labeled and stored in a separate area

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20
Q

When shipping specimens to a reference laboratory, all of the following should be preformed EXCEPT

A

sent through regular mail

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21
Q

Bacteria can be transferred from animals to veterinary staff in all of the following except

A

direct contact with infected animals, inhalation of aerosolized bacteria, and absorption of the bacteria absorbed through MM

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22
Q

When the results of a laboratory report have been received, they should be:

A

given to the veterinarian for interpretation

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23
Q

Which term refers to the reproducibility of a test result

A

precision

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24
Q

To reduce the chance of fire, flammable materials, such as newspapers, boxes, and cleaning chemicals must always be stored at least ___ ft away from an ignition source, such as a water heater, furnace, or stove.

A

3

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25
Q

When handling a pet with sarcoptic mange, aside from gloves, what other PPE should be worn

A

gown

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26
Q

Infectious disease that can be passed from animals to humans are known as

A

zoonotic diseases

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27
Q

Which tissue should be submitted in a case where rabies infection is suspected

A

Entire head

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28
Q

A necropsy can be preformed on a patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to

A

treat infectious diseases

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29
Q

What is a common reason for preformance of necropsy

A

to determine the cause of death

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30
Q

Toxoplasma is especially harmful to developing fetuses. Pregnant women should

A

Have Toxoplasma titers evaluated before becoming pregnant

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31
Q

Autoclaves present a danger from the pressure that is used for proper sterilization.Therefore

A

be sure to vent to release pressure and steam before you open the door

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32
Q

When caring for microscopes, what should be used to clean the lens

A

lens paper

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33
Q

Which of the following personal protective equipment can be reused?

A

clean eye protection goggles/face shield

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34
Q

Which feature of a microscope controls the amount of light illuminating an object?

A

diaphragm

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35
Q

Which is the correct total magnification for a microscope using 10x ocular lens and 40x objective

A

400x

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36
Q

serum protein is usually a little lower than plasma protein, because there is no __ in it.

A

fibrinogen

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37
Q

What information does the MCV value in a CBC reflect

A

The average size of the red blood cells

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38
Q

EDTA works to stop coagulation by

A

binding with calcium

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39
Q

Variation in RBC size is called

A

anisocytosis

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40
Q

The substage condenser of the microscope should be in a relatively high position when evaluating a blood smear or cytology prep

A

true

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41
Q

What are monocytes converted into when they migrate from blood into tissues in search of foregin invaders in an animal host?

A

Macrophages

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42
Q

___ refers to variation in RBC shape

A

Poikilocytosis

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43
Q

Back leg injection or blood taken out

A

Lateral Saphenous

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44
Q

__ is the percentage of RBC’s in a specific volume of blood

A

PCV

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45
Q

___ is the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC

A

MCH

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46
Q

Blood for a platelet count should be drawn into a tube containing ___ anticoagulant

A

EDTA

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47
Q

What clinical laboratory device can be used to manually count white blood cells

A

Hemocytometer

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48
Q

For which of the following species would the presence of nucleated red blood cells identified during a CBC not be considered abnormal

A

Birds

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49
Q

EDTA, heparin, and sodium citrate are examples of

A

anticoagulants

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50
Q

Unstained blood smears should be stored away from formalin fumes and shipped separately from surgical biopsies that have been placed in formalin

A

inhibit optimal staining

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51
Q

Neutophils

A

The predominant circulating white blood cell in dogs, cats, and horses

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52
Q

Eosinophils

A

Contain numerous, large, brightly staining granules in horses

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53
Q

Basophils

A

Have a twisted or irregular nucleus in dogs

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54
Q

Lymphocytes

A

up to 50% may be intermediate to large size in cows

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55
Q

Monocytes

A

Have abundant grey-blue cytoplasm, possibly with clear vacuoles

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56
Q

Mast cells

A

Contain numerous purple granules and a round nucleus

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57
Q

Band neutrophils

A

Are also called stabs these are immature neutrophils

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58
Q

Reactive lymphocytes

A

Have more intensely basophilic cytoplasm and may have a perinuclear clear area

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59
Q

The blood parasite Anaplasma marginale is easily mistaken for stain percipitate

A

False

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60
Q

On the microscope, the ___ objective is recommended for blood smear evaluation

A

100x oil immersion

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61
Q

Yellow

A

Hemolysis and icterus, previous hemorrhage, or ruptured bladder

62
Q

Green

A

Ruptured bile duct

63
Q

White or tan

A

Lipid or high numbers of cells

64
Q

Red or pink

A

Internal hemorrhage

65
Q

What is an alternate name for packed cell volume

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

66
Q

Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is __, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is ___

A

Clear and colorless; clear and light-yellow

67
Q

Agglutination refers to irregular, variably sized clumps of RBC’s that form because of

A

excess antibodies bound to the surface of RBC’s

68
Q

Newer hematology analyzers designed for processing animal blood samples are becoming more widely used in veterinary settings. Some of these instuments utilize ___ method, in which cells in the blood sample interfere with an electrical current, thereby providing information on the various sizes if the cells present

69
Q

A veterinary assistant restrains a canine in lateral recumbency. This position is most likely to be used for venipuncture of the

A

lateral saphenous vein

70
Q

Platelet clumps occur most commonly in dogs

71
Q

what process activates secondary hemostasis

A

Coagulation cascade

72
Q

It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because

A

Underfilling can lead to sample dilution with anticoagulant

73
Q

___ it is the protein in RBC’s that carries oxygen from lungs to tisssues

A

Hemoglobin

74
Q

Taking blood out in the front legs

75
Q

Which is the preferred anticoagulant used to prevent clotting in mammalian blood samples destined for hematologic

76
Q

Which component of urine must be identified through microscopic examination?

A

Cellular elements

77
Q

A disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is

A

Contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract

78
Q

Urine pH should be measured shortly after sample collection, As urine stands, the pH will

A

Increase due to loss of carbon dioxide

79
Q

The refractometer is a tool that is used to measure urine specific gravity

80
Q

A urine SG less than ___ indicates that the kidneys are functioning and are able to actively dilute the urine

81
Q

Crystalluria is a term given to the abscence of crystals in the urine

82
Q

Collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is preformed

A

to avoid contamination

83
Q

Which would be the best method of collection when preforming a urine culture and sensitivity

A

Cystocentesis

84
Q

When completing a urinalysis, the urine must be warmed to room temperature first

85
Q

Gross examination of urine includes color, clarity, volume, and:

86
Q

Which of the following statements about the collection of urine is the most accurate?

A

Urinary crystals can either form or dissolve after the urine sample is collected

87
Q

To centrifuge a urine specimen for microscopic evaluation, the specimen should be spun:

A

On low speed for 5 minutes

88
Q

May increase as a result of loss of carbon dioxide as urine stands

89
Q

May appear in the urine as a consequence of glomerular disease

90
Q

May present in the urine in animals with starvation

91
Q

May change from positive to negative if the urine is centrifuged

92
Q

Which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable to culture

A

Collection from cage floor

93
Q

Bilirubin is not detected in normal __ urine, so bilirubinuria in this species indicates disease

94
Q

Staining of urine sedimentation improves the visual aspect of cellular matter

95
Q

Normal urine should

A

not contain glucose

96
Q

A ___ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG

A

refractometer

97
Q

Alkaline urine (pH>8) can

A

give a false-positive protein results

98
Q

When sending out a urine sample to a referecne laboratory, in addition to patient information, what additional information should be provided

A

collection method

99
Q

Urate crystals may be seen in the urine of __ as the results of an inherited error of metabolism, and in some dogs with portosystemic shunts

A

Dalmatians

100
Q

Chemical properties of urine include volume, color, odor, turbidity, and specific gravity

101
Q

Pigments that give color to urine are called urochromes

102
Q

A decrease in the volume of urine produced is called oliguria

103
Q

Urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is ___ and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma

A

isosthenuric

104
Q

In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the

A

horses and rabbit

105
Q

Which statement would be helpful for a client bringing in a pet’s urine sample?

A

A free catch sample should be collected first thing in the morning

106
Q

When testing an animal’s urine using a chemistry reagent strip (dip stick), it is important to remember which tests will not yield accurate results using reagent strips. Those tests include

A

leukocytes and SG

107
Q

When setting up for urinary catheterization, the catheter may be sterile, the site may be surgically scrubbed and non-sterile exam gloves are worn

108
Q

A urine pH below 7 increased h+ is

109
Q

once would expect to find calcium carbonate crystals in normal urine from a

110
Q

Before placing stored urine on a chemical test strip, it must be:

A

Room temperature

111
Q

When removing ticks from an animals , it is important to:

A

remove the mouthparts

112
Q

Cestodes

113
Q

Nematodes

A

roundworms

114
Q

trematodes

115
Q

Arthopods

A

Fleas,ticks,flies,mites,lice

116
Q

Protozoans

A

Giardia, babesia,coccidians

117
Q

When asking a client to bring in a fecal sample for his or her dog, the client should be instructed to bring approximately ___ feces in to be examined

A

1 teaspoon

118
Q

Due to the health risk posed by toxoplasmosis, pregnant women should take caution when handling

A

Cat and cat feces

119
Q

The principle of fecal flotation is based on which of the following

A

the eggs of the parasite are lighter than the flotation solution and will float to the surface where they can be stuck to a cover slip placed on the top of the vial

120
Q

Infestation with larval flies (maggots) is referred to as

121
Q

the intermediate host (and vector for transmission) of dirofilaria immitis is the

122
Q

An infestation by which organism(s) is termed pediculosis

123
Q

Zoonotic diseases can infect

A

both humans and animal species

124
Q

Which stage of the tick life cycle has six legs

125
Q

Infestation by ____ is called acariasis

A

mites or ticks

126
Q

If a patient is suspected to have a ctenocephalides spp. infestation which of the following tools can help to confirm the diagnosis

127
Q

Hookworms are found in the small intestine of dogs and cats. As a group, hookworms may produce a zoonotic confition in humans known as

A

cuataneous larva migrans

128
Q

fecal flotation and urine sedimentation are both examples of ___ techniques

A

Concentration

129
Q

A small amount of fecal material that is mixed with saline, to produce a emulsion clear enough to read

A

direct fecal smear

130
Q

A parasite that resides on the surface of its host is termed a(n)

A

ectoparasite

131
Q

Dirofilaria immitis, the canine heartworm, usually resides in the right ventricle and branches of the pulmonary artery; however it may “get off track” during its migration to the heart and become established in the anterior chamber of the eye

A

aberrant or erratic parasite

132
Q

Canine___ are voracious blood feeders owing to their unique teeth and their large buccal cavity. Pale MM and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies

133
Q

What is the easiest way to tell sucking lice from biting lice

A

shape of head and mouthpiece

134
Q

An organism that harbors the immature stage of a parasite is referred to as

A

intermediate host

135
Q

Which of the following disease could potentially be transmitted from a dog to their owner

A

leptospirosis

136
Q

Which of the following groups of parasites include ticks, mosquitos and mites

137
Q

This mite dwells in hair follicles and sebaceous glands and although it is not a sarcopitform mite, it produces a similar syndrome, with localized or generalized alopecia

A

Demodex canis

138
Q

The extreme prutius associated with a sarcoptes scabei infestation caused by the mite

A

tunneling into the host’s epidermis

139
Q

The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is

140
Q

When an owner reports finding particles that resemble dry, uncooked white rice on their dog’s or cat’s bedding, the pet should be checked for

141
Q

Most gastrointestinal parasites are diagnosed by testing and examination of the:

142
Q

Mites causing which of the following conditions can easily infect people

A

sarcoptic mange

143
Q

____ resembles a whip, hence its a common name, the whipworm

A

Trichuris vulpis

144
Q

prior to using s blade skin scraping, it must be ___

145
Q

Ticks that affect small animals include all the fallowing except

A

cheyletiella species

146
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi, rickettsia spp, Ehrlichia canis and anaplasma marginale are all examples of what

A

tick-borne microorganisms

147
Q

When performing skin scraping, what is the solution that must be placed on the slide before

A

Mineral oil

148
Q

Fecal samples should be collected fresh and examined within ___ hours of collection

149
Q

The supplies needed to preform a direct fecal smear are

A

Feces, wood applicator, microscope slide,saline,cover slip

150
Q

This common tapeworm is found in the small intestine of dogs,catas, and ferrets, and is commonly called the cucumber seed tapeworm and the double-pored tapeworm

A

Dipylidium caninum