clinical conditions of the lower limb Flashcards

1
Q

what movement is controlled by the L2 myotome

A

hip flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what movement is controlled by the L3 myotome

A

knee extension and hip abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what movement is controlled by the L4 myotome

A

ankle dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what movement is controlled by the L5 myotome

A

big toe extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what movement is controlled by the S1 myotome

A

ankle plantar flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what movement is controlled by the S2 myotome

A

knee flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what allows for distension of the femoral vein during exercise

A

the femoral canal which is an empty space found in the femoral sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is found at the mid point of the injuinal ligament

A

femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is found at the mid inguinal point

A

femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the mid inguinal point

A

half way between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a bakers cyst

A

inflammation and swelling of the semimembranosus burse in the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does an aneurysm in the popliteal fossa affect the most

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what nerve is damaged in Trendelenburg gait

A

superior gluteal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what nerve is damaged in foot drop

A

deep peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what can cause foot drop

A

tight fitting shoes compressing the extensor retinaculum

damage to the head of the fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is piriformis syndrome

A

the piriformis compresses the sciatic nerve giving sciatica due to ill formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what can block the knee to keep it locked

A

torn meniscus or pieces of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is housemaids knee

A

prepatella bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is clergymmans knee

A

infrapatella bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you asses collateral ligament of the knee damage

A

through medial and lateral rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how is the ACL torn

A

hyperextension or force to the back of the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how is the PCL torn

A

when the knee is flexed and force hits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the unhappy triad

A

ACL, medial collateral ligament and medial meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how is the limb seen in a hip dislocation

A

shortened and medially rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is an intracapsular fracture
fractures of the femoral neck (inside the fibrous capsule)
26
what artery is affected in an intracapsular fracture
medial circumflex artery
27
what is at risk of happening in an intracapsular fracture
AVN of the femur head
28
what would be the treatment for an intracapsular fracture
total hip replacement and not dynamic screws as the bone is dead
29
how is the leg seen in intertrochanteric fractures
shortened and laterally rotated
30
what is a Pott's fracture
bimalleolar ankle fracture
31
what are bunions
bony deformities on the big toe
32
what is a valgus bunion
a deformity causing the big toe to deviate away from the midline
33
what is a varus bunion
a deformity of the big toe to deviate it towards the midline
34
what is the treatment for bunions
changing shoes
35
what is hallux rigidus
arthritis of the big toe giving a painful lump on top of the MTPJ
36
what is the treatment for hallux rigidus
re-alignment, fusion of the bones, replace the bones or removal of the bones
37
why are ruptures of the Achilles tendon common
due to poor blood supply
38
what is thompsons test
test for Achilles tendon rupture by grabbing the calf and squeezing
39
what is charcot anthropathy
when diabetics have fractures and dislocation with minimal or no known trauma
40
what is the appearance of tredenlenburg gait
pelvic drop in the other side as gluteus medius and minimus cant contract to stabilise the pelvis
41
what is an antalgic gait
pain on weight bearing so use a walking stick on the other side
42
what is a hemiplegic gait
when the limb is extended due to a hemi brain injury
43
what is a diplegic gait
seen in cerebral palsy where there is knee flexion, adduction and plantarflexion giving a scissoring movement
44
how is a Parkinsonian gait seen
short steps and shuffling
45
true or false the ACL heels well
false
46
where can the femoral pulse be felt
midway between the pubis symthysis and ASIS
47
what is a femoral hernia
when part of the bowel pushes through the saphenous opening
48
what is adductor canal block
where local anaesthetic blocks the saphenous nerve for surgery
49
what is adductor canal compression syndrome
entrapment of the neurovascular bundle within the adductor canal
50
what can cause adductor canal compression syndrome
hypertrophy of vastus medialis
51
what are reasons for swelling in the popliteal fossa
aneurysm, bakers cyst, DVT, neoplasms
52
what causes fractures of the neck of the talus
excessive dorsiflexion
53
what causes fractures to the body of the talus
jumping from a height
54
what type of fracture is seen with the calcaneus
comminuted - bone breaks into several pieces
55
what 3 ways can fracture the metatarsals
direct blow, stress fracture and excessive inversion
56
how do patella dislocations occur
high impact force or sudden twisting
57
how do patella fractures occur
trauma
58
what is the most common type of patella dislocation
lateral
59
what prevents lateral dislocation of the patella
vastus medialis
60
why might the saphenous vein be stripped
due to varicose veins
61
what nerve may be damaged when the saphenous vein is stripped
saphenous nerve
62
where should intramuscular injections be given
in the upper lateral quadrant of the gluteal region
63
what is found in the tarsal tunnel
posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve
64
what are the causes of tarsal tunnel syndrome
osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and trauma
65
what is congenital hip displacement
when the hip joint does not develop properly in utero
66
how is congenital hip dislocation treated
with a Pavlik harness holding the femoral head in the hip joint
67
what type of hip dislocation is most common
posterior - as this is where the joint capsule is weakest
68
how can you test for ACL damage
attempt to pull the tibia forward if it moves then the ligament has been torn
69
how do you test for PCL damage
attempt to push the tibia posteriorly if it moves it has been torn
70
what is an ankle sprain
partial or complete tears in the ligaments of the ankle joint
71
which ankle ligament is most at risk of irreversible damage
anterior talofibular ligament
72
true or false the lateral ligament at the ankle is stronger than the medial
false
73
where is the dorsalis pedis pulse located
between extensor halluces longus tendon and extensor digitorium
74
how can you treat varicose veins
surgical removement, reconstruction of the valves, tying off the valves