Clinical Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Why are diagnostic tests perfromed?

A
  • Investigate the disease processes underlying clinical signs
  • To investigate the risk of disease/presence of positive traits in healthy animals.
  • To minimise the risk of adverse events during/following treatment or diagnostic procedure.
  • To provide baseline parameters for future monitoring.
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2
Q

How can samples be processed?

A
  • Machine vs manual
  • As submitted vs concentrated/enriched
  • With/without processing, additives, fixatives, stains
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3
Q

What information can laboratory tests give us?

A
  • Organ/tissue damage – often chemical that are released due to damage or stress, but do not always relate to function.
  • Organ function
  • Susceptibility to disease – such as genetic tests
  • Cell pathology – metabolic derangements, inflammation, neoplasia
  • Presence or historic evidence of infectious agents
  • Host response to disease
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4
Q

How must a sample be submitted?

A
  • Appropriate sample collection
  • Correct tube
  • Accurately filled
  • Well mixed
  • Stores/transported correctly
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5
Q

Why should a sample not be shaken or put near a window?

A

Releases haemoglobin, these are a bright colour and interferes with results

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6
Q

What are the uses and colours of different sample tube?

A

EDTA - haematology (cytology) = pink
Serum - biochemistry = red/orange
Heparin - rapid biochemistry = orange
Oxalate fluoride - glucose = yellow
Citrate - clotting function = green/white

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7
Q

Compare protein in plasma and serum.

A

Plasma proteins greater in plasma than serum, due to loss in clot

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8
Q

Compare potassium in plasma and serum.

A

Potassium is greater in serum than plasma, released from platelets during clot formation

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9
Q

What tests is serum used for?

A

Bile acids and haptoglobin concentration measurement and serum protein electrophoresis.

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10
Q

What tests is plasma used for?

A

Plasma better in emergency setting by rapid processing, serum takes 30 mins to clot and be spun down. Required for some parameters such as PTH and ammonia.

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11
Q

How does PCV have result variation?

A

Puppies and kittens expected to be low. Cats have a quarter and 50%, dogs are a third to 2 thirds. Greyhounds will have 2 thirds. There may be breed variations and machine may only give normal values.

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12
Q

How does cell morphology have result variability?

A

Mammalian vs camelids vs birds vs reptiles. Camelids have oval shaped cells without nuclei, so will not fit through haematology machines so must be done manually. Some reptiles have green plasma and they have a lot of haem.

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13
Q

How does age cause result variability?

A

PCV, indicators of bone growth (ALP, calcium), starts to become normal at around 6 months

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14
Q

What is biological result variation?

A

Intra-individual variation: diet, reproductive status, drugs/therapy, stress/excitement/fear

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15
Q

What is the impact of stressful sampling on white blood cells?

A

Neutrophilia and/or lymphotcytosis: marginating becomes circulating due to adrenaline and cortisol

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16
Q

What is the impact of stressful sampling on red blood cells?

A

Increased red cell mass and increases reticulocytes due to splenic contraction. Decreased red cell mass if haemolysis

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17
Q

What is the effect of stressful sampling on glucose?

A

Increases glucose > increases cortisol > insulin resistance – cats more susceptible

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18
Q

What is the effect of stressful sampling on creatine kinase activity?

A

Increased creatine kinase activity – stressful/repeated restraint

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19
Q

What is the impact of stressful sampling on clotting?

A

Activation of clotting cascade – can speed up the rate of clotting of the sample

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20
Q

What are the pre-analytical errors that cause analytic variability?

A
  • Incorrect blood tube
  • Contamination (EDTA > increased K+ and decreased Ca2+)
  • Incorrectly filled tube
  • Incorrect storage
  • Haemolysis, lipaemia (decrease serum per ml of blood sample, so have them fasted), icterus will all alter testing parameters
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21
Q

How does haemolysis interfere with spectrometric assays?

A

Pink/red, due to lysed red blood cells. False increase in RBC constituents. In vivo, sampling, post-sampling. Mimicked by synthetic oxygen carrying solutions.

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22
Q

How does lipaemia interfere with spectrometric assays?

A

Visible turbidity. Physiological vs. pathological. False decrease in other substances in serum. May want to cool sample and then spin it so as to separate out fat.

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23
Q

How does icterus interfere with spectrometric assays?

A

Plant eating herbivores have carotene-rich plasma = slight yellow discolouration (this is not jaundice). Herbivore species with high carotene may appear yellow, fat can be quite yellow and is not jaundice but is anoterh colour that can impact testing.

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24
Q

How can analytical error occur during analysis?

A
  • Laboratory environment – temperature/humidity outside range, affecting enzyme activity of stored reagents
  • Incorrect use of machine/inaccurate pipetting
  • Equipment – lack of appropriate maintenance, expired reagents, lack of calibration
  • Analytical procedure – technique not validated for species/sample used, working in plasma doesn’t mean it will work in serum, vice versa
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25
Q

What do enzymatic assays include?

A

Include liver (ALT, ALP) and muscle (CK) enzymes

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26
Q

What are the disadvantages of pattern recognition?

A

The normal reference range is devised from 95% of the target population: 5% of ‘normal’ animals will fall outside the reference range.

Individuals have their own ‘normal’. The target population for the assay, may not match the patient population

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27
Q

What does haematology assess?

A

RBC, WBC, platelets

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28
Q

What does serum biochemistry assess?

A

Proteins, kidney parameters (urea, creatinine, phosphate, calcium), glucose, sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, liver parameters, enzyme s(ALT, ALP, GGT, GLDH), bilirubin, bile acids, albumin, cholesterol, triglycerides

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29
Q

What are the markers of systemic inflammation that can be assessed?

A

APP, CRP, alpha1-AGP

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30
Q

What are the hormones we can assess?

A

T4, TSH, cortisol, insulin

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31
Q

What 2 types of protein are tested for?

A

Total protein comprises albumin and globulin fractions, the ratio of which can narrow the differential list.

Specific proteins, such as those that increase/decrease in inflammation and clotting factors

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32
Q

Define negative acute phase protein.

A

Produced at maximum rate by the liver in normal conditions, so only time we have increased albumin is if we have increased liver mass or reduced water in the blood.

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33
Q

What is serum albumin primarily responsible for?

A

Maintaining colloids oncotic pressure

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34
Q

What are some examples of analytes that are albumin bound?

A
  • Calcium – changes in albumin affect total calcium readings, directly proportional
  • Thyroid hormones
  • Steroids and fatty acids
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35
Q

What are the 2 types of hyperalbuminaemia?

A

Absolute hyperalbuminaemia is uncommon, relative hyperalbuminaemia occurs due to haemoconcentration (also increased TP).

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36
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of hypoalbuminaemia?

A
  • Reduced absorption – malnutrition, GI disease
  • Reduced production – hepatic dysfunction, mild APP response
  • Increased loss
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37
Q

How can hypoalbuminaemia be caused by increased loss?

A
  • Protein losing enteropathy (globulins and albumins)
  • Protein losing neuropathy (just albumin as barrier of charge being lost to prevent loss)
  • Haemorrhage
  • Severe exudative disease
  • 3rd spacing (fluid developing in body cavities) with/without losses via drainage
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38
Q

What is the effect of hypoalbuminaemia on the body?

A

Decreased oncotic pressure > effusions/oedema

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39
Q

What does hypoglobulinaemia cause?

A
  • Immunological incompetencies, such as failure to passive transfer
  • Protein loss, with concurrent hypoalbuminaemia
  • Haemorrhage, exudative disease and PLE
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40
Q

What is the more common mild-moderate form of hyperglobulinaemia?

A

Accompanies inflammatory/infectious diseases – APP response, polyclonal gammopathy/diverse antigen stimulation (producing too many antibodies and blood becomes sludgy)

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41
Q

What is the less common form of hyperglobulinaemia?

A

Marked - secondary to B cell neoplasia

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42
Q

How can you differentiate the 2 forms of hyperglobulinaemia?

A

Use serum protein electrophoresis to differentiate

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43
Q

What are negative acute phase proteins?

A

With decreased inflammation – albumin and transferrin (iron sequestered > inhibits RBC production)

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44
Q

What are positive acute proteins?

A

With increased inflammation – C-reactive protein in dogs, serum amyloid A in horses, alpha1-acid glycoprotein in cats, haptoglobin in ruminants.

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45
Q

How is mild post prandial hyperglycaemia measured in cats and dogs?

A

Fasted samples in cats and dogs. Due to stress, cats will have high glucose in the blood so sent home for urine sample after a few days.

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46
Q

How is mild post prandial hyperglycaemia measured in equine and ruminants?

A

Avoid fasting in equine

Fasted samples not possible in ruminants – in lactating cows, mammary vein glucose is less than jugular vein glucose

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47
Q

What are the ways that inadequate synthesis causes hypoglycaemia?

A
  • Hepatic dysfunction/portosystemic shunting
  • Toy dog hypoglycaemia, inadequate glycogen stores
  • Hypoadrenocorticism
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48
Q

How can excessive consumption cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Sepsis, indicated by brick red mmbs. Can have very low glucose levels as both body and bacteria are consuming glucose

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49
Q

How can paraneoplasia cause hypoglycaemia?

A

Insulinoma, hepatomas, IGF-2 producing tumours

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50
Q

How should you investigate hypoglycaemia?

A
  • Consider age and signalment
  • Liver dysfunction/portvascular anomaly - blood analysis, NH3 and bile acid stimulation tests
  • Hyperadrenocorticism - SCTH stimulation test
  • Sepsis - T-FAST, A-FAST tests
  • Neoplasia - imaging
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51
Q

What is transient hyperglycaemia?

A

Stress-associated hyperglycaemia common in cats, post-prandial in monogastrics

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52
Q

What is persistent hyperglycaemia?

A

Diabetes mellitus = insulin insufficiency. Glucosuria with/without ketonaemia/ketonuria, usually increased serum fructosamine

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53
Q

What causes production of ketones?

A

Negative energy balance due to inadequate carbohydrate provision leading to lipolysis and ketone bodies

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54
Q

What are some examples of when ketones can be produced?

A
  • Starvation/prolonged anorexia
  • DM – glucose provision but cannot use in absence of insulin
  • Ruminant ketosis in cattle
  • Pregnancy toxaemia in sheep
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55
Q

Which ketone is not measured on urine dipsticks?

A

Beta-hydroxybutyric acid

Most common ketone body in cats, dogs cattle, sheep. Acetone and acetoacetate produced in lower concentrations and can be measured with dipsticks.

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56
Q

What is a marker of lipolysis?

A

Non-esterified fatty acids. Mostly used in assessment of energy balance in ruminants

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57
Q

When are non-esterified fatty acids increased?

A

Pre-prandial sample
Stress
Delayed sample analysis
Negative energy balance from food deprivation
Excess demands
Hepatic lipidosis

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58
Q

What is cholesterol used for in the body?

A
  • Cell membrane formation
  • Steroid/sex hormone pathways
  • Vitamin D metabolism
  • Bile acid metabolism
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59
Q

What is the serum level of cholesterol dependent on?

A
  • Dietary uptake
  • Hepatic synthesis
  • Excretion in bile
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60
Q

What are the main sites of triglycerides in the body?

A

Enterocytes - from diet
Adipocytes - from fat
Hepatocytes

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61
Q

What alters the level of triglycerides in the blood?

A

Decreased by lipoprotein lipase
Increased by hormone sensitive lipase

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62
Q

When can altered metabolism cause hyperlipidaemia?

A

Increased cholesterol by exogenous steroids, endocrinopathy and nephrotic syndrome

Increased triglycerides by negative energy balance (especially horses and camelids) and hepatic lipidosis

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63
Q

How does hypocholesterolaemia develop?

A
  • Artefact - severe icterus
  • Decreased supply - fat restricted diet, malabsorption
  • Reduced production - liver dysfunction
  • Increased losses - blood loss, cancer
  • Hypoadrenocorticism
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64
Q

What are the clinical signs of liver disease?

A

Inappetence, lethargy
Vomiting, diarrhoea
Weight loss
Polyuria, polydipsia
Icterus
Coagulopathy
Ascites
Hepatic encephalopathy

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65
Q

What are the markers of liver damage/stress?

A

Hepatocellular enzymes - ALT, AST
Cholestatic enzymes - ALP, GGT

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66
Q

What are the markers of reduced liver function?

A

Hepatic synthetic products reduced production - urea, albumin, cholesterol, clotting factors

Hepatic detoxification products - bilirubin, bile acids, ammonia

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67
Q

What marker is increased in cats and dogs with hepatocellular damage?

A

Increased hepatocellular enzymes - AST, ALT

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68
Q

Explain how alanine aminotransferase/ALT is a marker of liver damage.

A

Cytoplasmic enzyme in liver cells so released if these cells are damaged. Also released during hepatocellular repair, dog, cat, rabbit, not useful in horses, ruminants and pigs.

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69
Q

Explain how aspartate aminotransferase/AST is a marker for liver damage.

A

Mitochondrial so released in more severe hepatic cell damage, also significant muscle presence

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70
Q

Is ALT or AST a better marker of liver damage?

A

ALT is a more specific and sensitive marker of liver damage in dogs and cats than AST, as ALT is not always liver related

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71
Q

What is sorbitol dehydrogenase/SDH?

A

Enzyme of choice for measurement of hepatocellular damage in horses and cattle, assay not readily available. More stable so can be used for exotics too.

72
Q

What is glutamate dehydrogenase/GLDH?

A

Found in tissues, primarily hepatocellular mitochondrial origin. More useful marker in large animals and exotics. Is more stable than SDH.

73
Q

How does primary liver disease cause hepatocellular damage?

A

Hepatic inflammation, infections, trauma, neoplasia, vacuolar hepatopathy, toxins and some drugs

74
Q

How does secondary/reactive liver disease cause hepatocellular damage?

A

Inflammatory/metabolic process elsewhere in the body. Commonly seen with dental disease, GI disease and endocrinopathies. Often mild unless concurrent vacuolar hepatopathy.

75
Q

Define cholestasis.

A

Impaired bile flow.

76
Q

What is alkaline phosphatase/ALP?

A

Cholestatic isoenzyme, steroid isoenzyme (dogs), bone isoenzyme

77
Q

What is gamma glutamyl transferase/γGT?

A

Steroid isoenzyme (dogs). Cattle, sheep, dogs have high GGT levels in colostrum

78
Q

What is GGT a marker of?

A
  • Valuable marker of colostrum ingestion in calves
  • More sensitive marker of cholestasis in equines/cattle than ALP
79
Q

What causes cholestatic enzyme activity to increase?

A
  • Cholestatic disease - primary biliary tree disease, diseased causing compressive lesions of the biliary tree
  • Endocrinopathies or metabolic > vacuolar hepatopathy
  • Steroid induced in dogs
  • Bone induced (ALP)
80
Q

Define cholestasis.

A

When mild, evidence of cholestatic enzyme activity increases. As it progresses, serum accumulation of other substances typically excreted in the bile: cholesterol, bile acids, bilirubin.

81
Q

How does the half lives of hepatic enzymes influence significance?

A

SDH short (12-24 hours) in horses. All short (6 hours) in cats, dogs is nearer 3 days. Cats should bever have increase in liver enzyme activity due to half-life.

82
Q

List the non-specific markers of liver dysfunction.

A

Decreased albumin, urea, cholesterol, glucose

83
Q

List the specific markers of liver dysfunction.

A

Increased bilirubin, bile acids and ammonia (failure of detoxification)

84
Q

What are the 3 stages of bilirubin metabolism?

A
  1. Synthesis from haemoproteins
  2. Breakdown for excretion – conjugation in the liver
  3. Excretion – biliary export
85
Q

Briefly give the process of bilirubin metabolism.

A
  1. Haemoglobin
  2. Reticuloendothelial cell
  3. Bilirubin-albumin
  4. Hepatocyte
  5. Conjugated bilirubin
  6. Biliary system
  7. Intestine
  8. Urobilinogen – can end up in urine, not normally seen incats
  9. Stercobilin
86
Q

What are the 3 causes of hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

Pre-hepatic – haemolysis

Hepatic – swelling or significant loss of liver function

Post-hepatic – obstruction

87
Q

How are jaundice and liver dysfunction related?

A

There can be jaundice without primary liver dysfunction.
There can be severe liver dysfunction without jaundice.

88
Q

What can cause hyperbilirubinaemia when PCV is low?

A

Regenerative (pre-hepatic) and non-regenerative anaemia

89
Q

What can cause hyperbilirubinaemia when PCV is normal?

A

Hepatic: increased hepatocellular enzymes, decreased albumin/cholesterol/glucose, increased ammonia.

Post hepatic: increased cholestatic enzymes, cholestasis

Anorexia horses and cattle, feline infectious peritonitis, toxoplasmosis

90
Q

What is the bile acid tolerance test?

A

Evaluates hepatic clearance of enterohepatically recycled bile acids. Overnight (>12 hour) fast > serum sample. Feed (> gall bladder contracts). 2 hours post-prandial > serum sample

91
Q

What does increased serum bile acids cause?

A
  • Cholestasis – exclude based on biochemistry, enzyme increases and/or
  • Liver dysfunction and/or
  • Portosystemic shunts – differentiate with imaging
92
Q

What can hyperammonaemia be caused by?

A

Liver dysfunction vs portosystemic shunts. Ruminants have urea toxicosis from contaminated feed, horses from strenuous exercise

93
Q

When is creatine kinase released?

A

Released from muscle cells into blood during muscle damage

94
Q

What causes creatine kinase to be released?

A
  • Muscle trauma – overly form handling, intramuscular injections, traumatic accidents
  • Muscle belly hypoxia
  • Myopathies – inflammatory/infectious, degenerative/hereditary, toxic, recumbency in large animals, equine rhabdomyolysis
95
Q

Which pancreatic diseases affect endocrine function?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus – hyperglycaemia, with glucosuria, fructosamine
  • Insulinoma
96
Q

Which pancreatic disease affect exocrine function?

A

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency – cTLI/fTLI (trypsin-like immunoreactivity) – sensitive/specific measure of functional pancreatic mass

Pancreatitis – routine biochemistry, non-specific lipase/amylase assays are inadequate and no longer used, cPLI/fPLI or DGGR lipase

97
Q

Where are vitamin B9 and B12 absorbed?

A

Folate/vitamin B9 absorbed in proximal small intestine (jejunum)

Cobalamin/vitamin B12 absorbed in distal small intestine (ileum)

98
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypocobalaminaemia/low B12?

A
  • Chronic diarrhoea
  • Weight loss and failure to thrive
  • Hyperammonaemia > encephalopathy
  • Blood cell changes – neutropenia, increased MCV, hypersegmented neutrophils
99
Q

What are the possible differentials for hypocobalaminaemia?

A
  • EPI – exclude with TLI
  • Ileal malabsorption – gastrointestinal ultrasound, biopsy
  • Dysbiosis
100
Q

When is hypofolataemia seen?

A

Often seen alongside hypocobalaminaemia, limited clinical significance, easy to supplement, jejunal malabsorption

100
Q

What is hypercobalaminaemia caused by?

A

Limited clinical significance, seen with supplementation, hepatopathy, neoplasia, others

100
Q

What is hyperfolataemia caused by?

A

Dysbiosis, especially following antimicrobials, no clinical significance.

101
Q

Name 3 indicators of kidney injury.

A

Nephron loss
Glomerular disease - proteinuria
tubular disease - glucosuria, proteinuria

102
Q

What can be caused as a result of nephron loss?

A
  • Loss of electrolyte/water regulation > polyuria/polydipsia and electrolyte derangements
  • Loss of acid-base regulation > metabolic acidosis > lethargy, inappetence and nausea
  • Accumulation of organic solutes > uraemia > lethargy, inappetence, vomiting/diarrhoea
  • Hyperphosphataemia/renal secondary hyperparathyroidism
  • Impaired hormone synthesis > decreased calcitriol, decreased erythropoietin > anaemia
  • Hypertension
103
Q

What is azotaemia indicated by?

A

Increased urea and/or creatinine

104
Q

What is the clinical syndrome arising from azotaemia and how?

A

Uraemia

Inadequate excretory, regulatory and endocrine function. .

105
Q

What are the clinical signs of uraemia?

A

Lethargy, inappetence, nausea and vomiting causing stomatitis, encephalopathy and bone pain

106
Q

How does pre-renal azotaemia arise?

A

Decreased blood flow to kidneys or increased protein catabolism or GI haemorrhage

107
Q

What is the body’s response to pre-renal azotaemia?

A

Kidneys do everything possible to conserve water. Azotaemia with concentrated urine (not all cases if electrolyte disturbances).

108
Q

What is renal azotaemia?

A

Fewer functional nephrons, at 67-75% loss of nephrons

109
Q

What is the body’s response to renal azotaemia?

A

The kidneys are unable to conserve water in the face of reduced blood flow so has dilute urine.

110
Q

What is post-renal azotaemia caused by?

A
  • Urinary tract obstruction causes back pressure
  • Urinary tract rupture > urine leakage > reabsorption of waste products.
111
Q

In the event of urinary tract rupture, where can urine leak?

A

Typically uroabdomen, creatine concentration will be higher in fluid than in serum. Less commonly leakage into retroperitoneal space or pelvic/hindlimb tissues. Usually traumatic or iatrogenic.

112
Q

How is increased urea a surrogate marker for GFR?

A
  • Breakdown of ammonia from the GIT in the urea cycle.
  • Production and excretion are not constant. So try to make constant by fasting.
113
Q

How is increased creatinine a surrogate marker for GFR?

A

Breakdown product of muscles (physiologically increased in foals)

114
Q

How is increased SDMA a surrogate marker fr GFR?

A

Independent on muscle mass

115
Q

What are some important consideration of GFR of ruminants and equids?

A
  • Urea may be normal in severe kidney disease, as most urea is excreted via the gut.
  • Urea also influenced by diet – grass fed will be lower than pellet diet
  • Creatinine much more reliable marker
116
Q

How is phosphate changed with reduced GFR?

A

Hyperphosphataemia – as phosphate primarily renally excreted

117
Q

How is calcium changed with reduced GFR?

A

Variable – typically, normal to hypercalcaemia in chronic kidney disease. Typically normal to low in acute kidney injury

118
Q

How is potassium affected by GFR?

A

Dependent on GFR and urine output.

119
Q

What at the kidney can cause hyperkalaemia?

A
  • Anuria or oliguria, indicative of acute kidney injury or end stage chronic kidney disease.
  • Aldosterone deficiency/hypoadrenocorticism/Adison’s disease
120
Q

What at the kidney can cause hypokalaemia?

121
Q

What does sodium levels reflect?

A

Volume status – hypernatraemia with dehydration and hyponatraemia with overhydration

Aldosterone deficiency/hypoadrenocorticism/Adison’s disease causing hyponatraemia

122
Q

When and what is glycosuria from urinalysis indicative of?

A

With hyperglycaemia = diabetes mellitus or stress response

With euglycaemia = tubulopathy. Fanconi syndrome, leptospirosis, toxicity

123
Q

When is bilirubin from urinalysis normal and abnormal?

A

Can be normal in dogs
Abnormal in other species and reflects hyperbilirubinaemia

124
Q

When is ketonuria from urinalysis observed?

A

Diabetes mellitus – diabetic ketosis or ketoacidosis
(Rarely starvation)

125
Q

List the causes of decreased urine concentration.

A

Hypercalcaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperadrenocorticism
Hypoadrenocorticism
Hyperthyroidism
Liver disease (low urea)
Glucosuria – diabetes mellitus, Fanconi
Endotoxins – pyometra
Drugs – mannitol, phenobarbital, prednisolone
Kidney disease
Young age (short loop of Henle)
High salt diet
Intravenous fluid therapy
Oral fluid intake > requirements

126
Q

What are the possible mechanisms of decreased urine concentration?

A

Central diabetes insipidus
Nephrogenic DI
Osmotic diuresis
Medullary washout - chronic water excess
Excess water intake - not always pathological

127
Q

What is blood in urinalysis indicative of?

A

Haematuria – primary urinary tract disease, coagulopathy

Haemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria – haemolysis, severe myopathy, aged sample with haematuria

128
Q

What is the usefulness of pH from urinalysis?

A

Not very accurate but useful when evaluating crystalluria.

129
Q

What is the usefulness of protein on urinalysis?

A

inaccurate as it does not take into account how concentrated urine is.
Assess for post-renal causes then measure UPC/urine protein : creatinine ratio

130
Q

What is pre-renal proteinuria indicative of?

A

Increased blood proteins – hyperglobulinaemia, haemoglobinuria/myoglobinuria

Functional – pyrexia, post-exercise, seizure

131
Q

What is renal proteinuria indicative of?

A

Intrinsic kidney disease - glomerular or tubular

132
Q

What is post-renal proteinuria indicative of?

A

Urinary tract – inflammatory, neoplastic disease, haemorrhage into urinary tract

Reproductive tract

133
Q

What is the role of sodium in the body?

A

Responsible for preservation of electroneutrality. Primarily responsible for water retention and loss via the kidneys. For maintenance for osmolarity

134
Q

How is sodium gained?

A

Reduced renal perfusion
Hypovolaemia
Increased osmolarity

135
Q

How is sodium lost?

A

Increased blood volume

136
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyponatraemia dependent on?

A

Typically localised to central nervous system, primarily forebrain. Depends on whether acute or chronic

137
Q

How does loss of sodium lead to hyponatraemia?

A

V/D, renal disease, Addison’s, 3rd spacing, osmotic diuresis, diuretics, sweating

138
Q

How does gain of free water cause hyponatraemia?

A

Drinking water
IVFT
Congestive heart failure, liver failure, nephrotic syndrome
ADH secretion

139
Q

How do endogenous shifts caused hyponatraemia?

A

Diabetes mellitus
Acute muscle damage

140
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypernatraemia?

A

Typically CNS, depending on whether acute or chronic: anorexia, lethargy, vomiting, diarrhoea as non-specific signs

141
Q

How can sodium be gained to cause hypernatraemia?

A

Sodium containing fluids
Salt poisoning
Hyperaldosteronism

142
Q

How can water be lost to cause hypernatraemia?

A

Impaired intake
GI losses
Urinary losses
Diabetes mellitus
Diuretics
Evaporation
Burns

143
Q

What is a risk of correction of sodium disturbance?

A

Brain shrinking and swelling causes myelinosis

144
Q

What is the role of chloride in the body?

A

Mainly follows sodium to preserve electroneutrality, except in hypercholaraemic metabolic acidosis

145
Q

When is chloride artefactually increased?

A

Lipaemia, hyperbilirubinaemia, haemoglobinemia, bromide inadvertently measured as chloride

146
Q

What is caused when hyperchloraemia is present with hypernatraemia?

A

Troubleshoots the hypernatraemia

147
Q

What is caused when hyperchloraemia is present without hypernatraemia?

A

Interference from bromide or true due to compensatory

Loss of the ions causes retention of chloride to compensate for electroneutrality, causing hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

148
Q

What is caused when hypochloraemia is present with hyponatraemia?

A

Troubleshoots the hyponatraemia

149
Q

What is caused when hypochloraemia is present without hyponatraemia?

A

Gain of other anions causes loss of chloride and HCO3- to compensate = high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Lactic acidosis, ketosis, azotaemia, ethylene glycol toxicity, diuretics

150
Q

How does derangement regulation of potassium have profound cardiac implications?

A

Hyperkalaemia > bradycardia > ultimately arrest

Hypokalaemia > tachydysrhythmias

151
Q

How can hyperkalaemia be caused by iatrogenic or lab error?

A

Potassium adminstration
Potassium sparing drugs
Thrombocytosis/post-clot
EDTA contamination
Failure to separate serum in horses and ruminants

152
Q

How is hyperkalaemia caused by failed excretion?

A

Hypoaldosteronism
Acute kidney injury
Chronic kidney disease
Post-renal disease

153
Q

How is hyperkalaemia caused by shifts from ICF to ECT?

A

Cell lysis - tumour, reperfusion injury, marked haemolysis

154
Q

What is the reference interval for sodium potassium ratio?

A

27-40

Below 20 is highly suspicious of hypoadrenocorticism

155
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypokalaemia?

A

Tachydysrhythmias
Muscular and generalised weakness, lethargy and inappetence

156
Q

How is hyokalaemia caused by inadequate intake?

A

Nutritional or iatrogenic

157
Q

How can hypokalaemia be caused by excessive losses?

A

Urinary - kidney disease, diuresis, hyperaldosteronism, diuretics

V/D
Diabetic ketoacidosis

158
Q

How do endogenous shifts cause hyperkalaemia?

A

Alkalaemia
Insulin therapy
Glucose infusion

159
Q

What is the role of calcium in the body?

A

Muscle contraction and nerve conduction

160
Q

What are the 3 fractions of calcium within plasma?

A

Ionised = 50% – biologically active, measure anaerobically/refrigerated

Protein bound = 40% complexed to albumin (so hypoalbuminaemia can decrease calcium)

Complexed = 10%

161
Q

Why are calcium and phosphate physiologically linked?

A

Hormonal regulation

162
Q

What is the effect of hhypercalcaemia on calcitonin?

A

Increased calcitonin > storage and renal excretion of calcium > decreased calcium

163
Q

What causes parathyroid hormone to decrease and increase?

A

Hypercalcaemia decreases PTH release

Hypocalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia increase PTH release

164
Q

What is the effect of PTH?

A

Calcium and phosphate mobilisation from bone > increase calcium

Renal calcium reabsorption and phosphate excretion > increased calcium

Activation of Vitamin D > renal and GU calcium and phosphate reabsorption and mobilisation > increased calcium

165
Q

What is the net effect of PTHrp?

A

increased calcium and decreased phosphate

166
Q

What is the net effect of vitamin D?

A

Increased calcium and increased phosphate

167
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypercalcaemia?

A

Inappetence
Lethargy
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Related to primary disease process

168
Q

Which ketones are not measured by urine test strips?

A

Acetone and beta-hydroxybutyric acid (aceto-acetic acid is measured on dipsticks)

169
Q

What are the species differences in the main hepatocellular enzymes?

A

Cats and dog = ALT, AST
Horses = GLDH, SDH

170
Q

What are the main cholestatic enzymes in cats, dogs and horses?

A

ALP and GGT

171
Q

What is a defining feature of cholestatic horses?

A

Hyperbilirubinaemic

172
Q

What are the possible causes of ALP increase?

A

Cholestasis
Steroids
Barbituates

173
Q

What are the main diseases causing post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Primary biliary disease
Hepatocyte swelling causing intrahepatic disease
Pancreatic disease

174
Q

What parameters indicate liver disease?

A

Albumin, cholesterol and urea