Clinical Applications to OCMM Flashcards

1
Q

If patient presents with diplopia or estropia where might the dysfunction be and which cranial nerve may be involved?

A

superior orbital fissure in the ethmoid bone and CNVI

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2
Q

If patient presents with tinnitus, vertigo or healing loss where might the dysfunction be and which cranial nerve may be involved?

A

acoustic meatus in the temporal bone and CNVIII

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3
Q

If patient presents with headaches, arrhythmias, GI upset or respiratory problems where might the dysfunction be and which cranial nerve(s) may be involved?

A

jugular foramen in the occipital bone and CNIX and CNX

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4
Q

If patient presents with somatic dysfunction of the SCM or trapezium muscles where might the dysfunction be and which cranial nerve may be involved?

A

the spinal division of CNXI as it enters through the foramen magnum in the occipital bone

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5
Q

Which ganglion is suspected to be involved in palatine somatic dysfunction?

A

pterigopalatine ganglia

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6
Q

Which ganglion heavily influences the trigeminal nerves motor input?

A

pterigopalatine ganglia; watch for swallowing/speech difficulties in newborns or children

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7
Q

Explain the anatomy of the eustachian tube

A

passes within the temporal bone and exits in the auditory canal; impaired drainage of the tube can contribute to otitis media

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8
Q

Cephalgia

A

Headaches; commonly caused by distention, traction or dilation of intracranial or extra cranial arteries

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9
Q

What two arteries are commonly though of to cause headaches?

A

Middle meningeal artery and superficial temporal artery

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10
Q

What is a possible result of a temporal bone torsion?

A

injury to CNVII; can contribute to Bell’s palsy - weakness of side facial muscles and change in taste

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11
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

lancinating pain in the face that is incapacitating along the maxillary distribution (V2 - exits from foramen rotundum)

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12
Q

if the temporal bone is rotated and structures deep to the tentorium cerebra are effected, which CN would you be most concerned about?

A

CNV

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13
Q

True or false, CRI is synchronized with breathing?

A

False; CRI is independent of breathing

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14
Q

What measurement of cranial volume change was proven in the intracranial hemodynamics research?

A

12-15 ml; found at a rate of 6-14 cycles/min

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15
Q

CRI was concluded to be the product of what?

A

CSF volume and pressure, and metabolic regulation

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16
Q

Contractile proteins where observed in which CNS cells?

A

exclusive to pericytes

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17
Q

Major role of glial cells are it contributed to CSF fluctuation?

A

regulates blood flow in the brain and contributes to neuromuscular coupling; creates both contractile and dilation properties

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18
Q

Compression of which cranial nerves can cause suckling dysfunctions in which newborns?

A

CNIX and CNX at the jugular foramen and CNXII at the hypoglossal canal

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19
Q

Indications for occipital condylar decompression

A

Poor infant feeding
infant colic
head and neck pain or trauma

20
Q

Which craniosacral treatment should you consider for an infant that presents with poor feeding?

A

can be due to jugular foramen dysfunction involving CNIX and CNX or the CNXII at the hypoglossal canal - Occipital Condylar Decompression

21
Q

Explain how to appropriate perform the occipital condylar decompression treatment?

A

Contact the occipital condyles; gently apply traction and pull occipital tissues posterior and lateral; wait for give and then re-examine

22
Q

Indications for Balanced Membranous Tension (BMT)?

A

Asymmetrical or diminished CRI
Cranial nerve entrapment
Headaches

23
Q

Explain how to appropriate perform the Balanced Membranous Tension (BMT) treatment?

A

cranial vault; resist force of CRI until CRI stops at still point; release and return to CRI midpoint and re-examine

24
Q

If someone head feels like a “bowling ball” in your hands what should treatment should you consider?

A

SBS decompression; bowling ball = diminished CRI

25
Explain how to appropriate perform the SBS decompression treatment?
first compress head (indirect); and then direct technique - engage frontal bones and distract against occiput; pull in anterior and superior direction; await elastic release; re-examine
26
Indications for frontal lift?
frontal headaches sinus congestion
27
Explain how to appropriate perform the frontal lift treatment?
engage lateral inferior edge of frontal bone and apple anterior rotation torque until elastic release is felt equally on both sides; re-examine
28
Indications for parietal lift?
TMJ Headaches Decompresses squamosal
29
Explain how to appropriately perform the parietal lift treatment?
apply parietal traction until superior elastic release is noted; release and re-examine
30
Indications for pterigo(spheno)palatine ganglion inhibition?
TMJ Migraines Tension headaches Sinusitis
31
Explain how to appropriately perform pterigo(spheno)palatine ganglion inhibition
apply index finger posterior and later to molars; apply a superior slightly medial and posterior force with a slight medial rotation; hold and await relaxation from inhibition
32
Indications for temporal pull?
vertigo tinnitus TMJ balances of tentorium cerebelli
33
Explain how to appropriately perform the temporal pull?
pincer grip on antitragus; gentle traction laterally, posteriorly and superiorly; maintain tension at the feathers edge of restrictive barrier until release is felt on both sides
34
Which technique can be used for ANY cranial vault suture restriction?
V-spread
35
Explain the V-spread technique?
use any two fingers and form a V along the perpendicular diameters and use a spreading pressure to encourage motion
36
Indications for the CV 4 pump?
Fatigue Depression Insomnia
37
Which technique can you consider for a patient that presents with fatigue, depression or insomnia?
CV 4 Pump
38
Explain how to do the CV 4 Pump?
thenar eminences on the occiput; compression pressure through the FLEXION phase only; release and repeat for about 10-14 cycles; pumps CSF from 4th ventricle into the spinal canal
39
Compression is apply through which phase when doing the CV 4 pump?
FLEXION phase only
40
Where are the physicians thenar emends places during the CV4 still point induction?
inferior to superior nuchal line and MEDIAL to patients OM sutures
41
Which are NOT part of the 5 components of the primary respiratory mechanism? a. spinal cord b. CNS c. CSF d. dural membranes e. ilium f. cranial bones
spinal cord and ilium
42
Which are NOT anatomical-physiological elements of PRM? a. inherent mobility of the brain and spinal cord b. fluctuation of CSF c. intracranial membrane movement d. immobility of SBS e. mobility of cranial bones f. mobility of sacrum
immobility of SBS
43
The dura mater has firm attachments to all of the following structures except: a. foramen magnum b. C2 c. C3 d. C7 e. S2
C7
44
Which of the following is NOT a midline bone? a. sphenoid b. occiput c. frontal d. vomer e. ethmoid
frontal (thought to be a paired bone)
45
Which is associated with cranial flexion? a. internal rotation of the paired bones b. decrease in sagittal diameter of the cranium c. increase in coronal diameter of cranium d. flexion of paired bones
decrease in sagittal diameter of the cranium and increase in coronal diameter of cranium
46
All of the following are associated with craniosacral flexion except? a. caudal deviation of the SBS b. sacral counternutation c. increased width of the cranium d. external rotation of temporal bones
caudal deviation of the SBS