Clinical Flashcards

0
Q

Agency for developing precaution protocols for employees, in compliance with blood-borne pathogen standard

A

OSHA

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1
Q

Agency recommends infection control protocol and researches how diseases are transmitted

A

CDC

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2
Q

Sharps, blood, saliva

A

Biohazard

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3
Q

Agent: Corrosive to metal, strong odor

A

Chlorine based compound

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4
Q

Kills MOST pathogenic microbes, not spores. Broad spectrum.

A

Disinfection

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5
Q

Agent: can discolor surfaces yellow

A

Iodophors

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6
Q

Agent: may leave a film or residue on surfaces

A

Phenols

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7
Q

Agent: not corrosive, lower kill spectrum

A

Quaternary Compounds

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8
Q

Agent: should not be used as surface disinfectant. Toxic effects from fumes. Corrosive.

A

Glutaraldehydes

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10
Q

Kills ALL pathogenic microbes including spores

A

Sterilization

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11
Q

Geobacillus stearothermophilus
20mins
270F / 132C
20-40lbs psi

A

Chemical sterilization / unsaturated chemical vapor

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12
Q

Bacillus atrophaes
60mins
320F / 160C

A

Dry/heat sterilization

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13
Q

Geobacillus stearothermophilus
20-30mins
250F / 121C
15-30lbs psi

A

Steam sterilization/autoclave

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14
Q

how often should spore testing be done

A

weekly and every time an implant is sterilized

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15
Q

Angles occlusal - Class 1

A

Mesognathic - normal

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16
Q

Angles occlusal - Class 2 Div 1

A

Retrognathic - retruded mandible/anteriors protruded facially

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17
Q

Angles occlusal - Class 2 Div 2

A

Retrognathic - retruded mandible/anteriors inclined lingually

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18
Q

Angles occlusal - Class 3

A

Prognathic - protruded mandible

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19
Q

vertical overlap of max incisors to the mand incisors

A

overbite

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20
Q

horizontal distance between the linguals of the max anterior incisors and the facials of the mand anterior incisors

A

overjet

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21
Q

teeth not in occlusion between the max and mand arch

A

openbite

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22
Q

max teeth positioned lingual to mand teeth

A

crossbite

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23
Q

incisal edge to incisal edge of max and mand anterior teeth

A

edge to edge

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24
Q

cusp to cusp of posterior teeth

A

end to end

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25
Q

Stages of plaque/biofilm formation (3)

A

acquired pellicle (glycoproteins), bacterial adhesion, bacterial colonization (matrix forms)

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26
Q

Plaque/biofilm location: nutrient source (2)

A

Supragingival - saliva

Subgingival - crevicular fluid

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27
Q

Calculus location: nutrient source , color

A

Supragingival - saliva / white, yellow, gray

Subgingival - crevicular fluid and inflammatory exudate / brown, green, black

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28
Q

Instrument - calculus detecting (3)

A

11/12, pigtail(posteriors), orban(anteriors)

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29
Q

Stain color - iron, ferric sulfide, gram+

A

black

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30
Q

Stain color - inhaling metallic dust (occupational)

A

blue-green

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31
Q

Stain color - poor OHI, dark beverages

A

brown

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32
Q

Stain color - tobacco

A

dark brown / black

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33
Q

Stain color - chromogenic bacteria, poor OHI, anterior cervical 3rds

A

orange

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34
Q

Stain color - CHX or stannous fluoride, (tin ion)

A

yellow-brown / brown

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35
Q

Stain color -chromogenic bacteria, fungi, gingival hemorrhage, poor OHI

A

green

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36
Q

Stain type - pupal necrosis, internal resorption, systemic fluoride, tetracycline use during tooth development

A

intrinsic / endogenous

NOT removable

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37
Q

Stain type - food, beverages, tobacco

A

extrinsic / exogenous

removable through instrumentation and polishing

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38
Q

Furcation Class 1

A

early bone loss; depression

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39
Q

Furcation Class 2

A

moderate bone loss; furcation, cannot pass between roots

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40
Q

Furcation Class 3

A

sever bone loss; can pass between roots

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41
Q

Furcation Class 4

A

sever bone loss; can pass between roots AND RECESSION

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42
Q

Instrument - furcation detection

A

Nabers

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43
Q

Mobility Class N

A

normal/none

44
Q

Mobility Class 1

A

slight horizontal

45
Q

Mobility Class 2

A

moderate horizontal >1mm, no vertical

46
Q

Mobility Class 3

A

severe horizontal and vertical combined

47
Q

pH - levels drop below __ for demineralization in 1) enamel and 2) cementum

A

enamel 4.5-5.5

cementum 6.0-6.7

48
Q

Acids produced in demineralization (3)

A

lactic, butyric, propionic

49
Q

Acids characteristics in demineralization (2)

A

acidogenic - producing

aciduric - tolerant

50
Q

Remineralized areas areas are __ and ___ acid resistant than original enamel.

A

Remineralized areas areas are STRONGER and MORE acid resistant than original enamel.

51
Q

Formed during remineralization

A

Fluorapatite

52
Q

___ concentration of professionally applied fluoride is bacteri_____

A

High concentration fluoride is bactericidal (kills)

53
Q

___ concentration of applied at home fluoride is bacteri_____

A

Low concentration fluoride is bacteriostatic (inhibits)

54
Q

Fluoride therapy type - water, toothpaste, rinse, fluoride

A

Topical - post eruptive

55
Q

Fluoride therapy type - water, supplements, food

A

Systemic - pre eruptive

56
Q

Fluoride - community size versus cost

A

Larger community lower costs

Smaller community higher costs

57
Q

Fluoride levels - warm climate, cold climate

A
  1. 7 ppm - warm climate

1. 2 ppm - cold climate

58
Q

Organizations - who monitors community tap water; who monitors bottled water

A

tap - EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

bottle - FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

59
Q

Compounds used in fluoridated water (3)

A

sodium fluoride, sodium silicofluoride, hydrofluorosilicic acid

60
Q

Fluoride - type used for rampant caries

A

NaFl - Sodium fluoride

61
Q

Fluoride - type contraindicated for bulimic pts (2)

A

Stannous or APF

62
Q

Fluoride - dosage & ppm for 6mo - under 3 yr olds

A

0.25mg/day and <0.3 ppm

63
Q

Fluoride - dosage & ppm for 3-6 yr olds (2)

A
  1. 5mg/day and <0.3 ppm

0. 25mg/day and 0.3-0.6 ppm

64
Q

Fluoride - dosage & ppm for 6-16 yr olds (2)

A
  1. 0mg/day and <0.3 ppm

0. 5mg/day and 0.3-0.6 ppm

65
Q

Fluoride - type recommended for bulimic pts (2)

A

NaFl - Sodium fluoride, neutral sodium

66
Q

Fluoride - Sodium fluoride Varnish % & ppm

A

5% & 22,600 ppm

67
Q

Fluoride - type that causes discoloration at margins of tooth-colored restorations and with demineralization; has fluoride tin ion; unpleasant taste

A

Stannous fluoride

68
Q

Fluoride - type contraindicated for tooth-colored restorations and porcelain

A

APF - Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride

69
Q

Fluoride - Sodium fluoride Rinse % & ppm

A

0.05% & 225 ppm

70
Q

Fluoride - Stannous fluoride Gel % & ppm; used for ___

A

0.4% & 1,000 ppm ; dentin hypersensitivity, caries control, plaque reduction

71
Q

Fluoride - Neutral sodium Gel % & ppm; used for ___

A

1.1% & 5,000 ppm ; decalcification, restorations, pts who whiten, bulimics

72
Q

Define - amount of drug likely to cause death if not intercepted by antidotal therapy

A

CLD - certainly lethal dose

73
Q

Define - ¼ of CLD

A

STD - safely tolerated dose

74
Q

Acute fluoride toxicity symptoms begin within ___ (time) of ingestion

A

30 minutes

75
Q

Emergency tx of <5 mg/kg of fluoride ingested

A

Administer fluoride binding agent

76
Q

Emergency tx of toxic dose >5 mg/kg of fluoride ingested

A

Induce vomiting, administer fluoride binding agent, seek medical tx

77
Q

Emergency tx of lethal dose >15 mg/kg of fluoride ingested

A

Seek medical tx, induce vomiting, cardiac monitoring

78
Q

GI symptoms of acute fluoride toxicity (6)

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, increased salivation and thirst

79
Q

Systemic symptoms of acute fluoride toxicity (6)

A

hypocalcemia, hyperreflexia, convulsions, paresthesia, cardiac failure, respiratory paralysis

80
Q

Define - results after long-term exposure of water with 10-25 ppm fluoride or from industrial exposure

A

Skeletal Fluorosis

81
Q

Type of brush to use on irregular gingival margins of rotated anterior teeth

A

Tufted brush

82
Q

For debridement an extended shank should be used where

A

pocket depths greater than 5mm

83
Q

Type of pressure and strokes used for root planing

A

light pressure; long multidirectional strokes

84
Q

Type of pressure and strokes used for scaling

A

lateral pressure; firm short multidirectional pull strokes

85
Q

Type of pressure used for exploring

A

light pressure

86
Q

Gracey - used on all anterior

A

1-2

87
Q

Gracey - used on premolars

A

5-6

88
Q

Gracey - used on facials and linguals of posteriors

A

7-8

89
Q

Gracey - used on mesial, facial, and linguals of posteriors

A

11-12

90
Q

Gracey - used on mesials of posteriors

A

15-16

91
Q

Gracey - used on distals of posteriors (2)

A

13/14 & 17/18

92
Q

Instruments safe for implants (5)

A

plastic, nylon, graphite, gold-tipped, USS with plastic tip

93
Q

Ultrasonic - elliptical/orbital @ 25,000-40,000cps, all sides active

A

Magnetostrictive

94
Q

Ultrasonic - linear @ 25,000-50,000cps, lateral sides active

A

Piezoelectric

95
Q

Contraindications to power driven scaling (5)

A

demineralized areas, hypersensitivity, communicable disease, respiratory condition

96
Q

Contraindications to polishing (5)

A

xerostomia, demineralized areas of decay, newly erupted teeth, exposed roots, respiratory condition

97
Q

Contraindications to air polishing (5)

A

sodium-restricted diet (unless formula is sodium free), active perio condition, soft spongy condition, respiratory condition, or has composite, glass ionomer, or luting agent.

98
Q

% of CHX approved for use in United States

A

0.12%

99
Q

Clinical uses of CHX (4)

A

pre-procedural rinse, short-term use, inflammation control of NUG, for implants

100
Q

MOA of CHX

A

Bactericidal, active against gram +/- microorganisms, alters bacterial cell wall, lysis of cell

101
Q

Patient who uses tobacco should avoid what type of rinse

A

essential oils, such as listerine

102
Q

Rinse recommended for cancer pts (3)

A

baking soda/saline followed by plain water, CHX can be used, avoid high alcohol content if there is severe mucositis

103
Q

Pt with what condition should use CHX twice daily

A

Acute periodontal conditions

104
Q

1st sign of gingivitis

A

BOP indicating micro-ulcerations of the sulcus

105
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy (5)

A

1) physical/physiological needs 2) safety/security 3) love/belonging 4) ego/self-esteem 5) self-actualization