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KCUMB Physiology - Erin > Clicker Qs & Last Minute Material > Flashcards

Clicker Qs & Last Minute Material Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers?

  • Cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern
  • Cells utilize T-tubules
  • Cells are mononucleated
  • Cells utilize ryanodine channels
A

Cells are mononucleated

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2
Q

The resting potential of -85mV is characteristic of which of the following phases of the cardiac fast AP?

  • Stage 1
  • Stage 2
  • Stage 3
  • Stage 4
A

Stage 4

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3
Q

An increase in the production of TSH releasing factor results in an increase in the release of TSH, which results in the release of more thyroxine, which results in a decrease in the production of TSH releasing factor. Is this a (-) or (+) feedback loop?

A

Negative; the increase in thyroxine results in a decrease in the production of TSH releasing factor. Overall decreasing effect.

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4
Q

Which of the following would have to be a transmembrane protein?

  • A receptor protein
  • A protein binding to a cytoskeleton
  • A channel protein
  • A phosphorylase
A

A channel protein

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5
Q

Provide two examples of negative feedback

A
  • TSH releasing hormone
  • Arterial blood pressure via baroreceptors
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6
Q

Intracellular components of the cell consists of all the following except:

  • Ca2+
  • K+
  • Phosphate (PO4)
  • Organic anions
A

Ca2+

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7
Q

Is the negative feedback loop stabilizing or destabilizing?

A

Stabilizing

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8
Q

Negative feedback loops ____ the original change while positive feedback loops ____ the original change

A

Decrease; Enhance

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9
Q

What is the role of GPI?

A

Loosely attaches peripheral proteins to the phospholipid bilayer membrane; Glycophosphatidylinositol anchored proteins

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10
Q

Can lipid soluble molecules pass the cellular membrane?

A

Yes; think of the fatty acid tails

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11
Q

Which organelle(s) is/are associated with intracellular trafficking?

A

Golgi, ER, lysosomes

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12
Q

Which organelle(s) is/are associated with most ATP production?

A

Mitochondria

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13
Q

The Na+-Ca2+ pump is an example of which of the following:

  • Diffusion
  • Primary active
  • Secondary active
  • Facilitated diffusion
A

Secondary active

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14
Q

Of the following ions, which is the most concentrated in the ECM?

  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • Chloride
  • Calcium
A

Sodium

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15
Q

The Na+-K+ pump is an example of which of the following kinds of transport?

  • Diffusion
  • Primary active transport
  • Secondary active transport
  • Facilitated diffusion
A

Primary active transport

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16
Q

Gucose transporters (GLUT transporters) employ which of the following:

  • Diffusion
  • Primary active
  • Secondary active
  • Facilitated diffusion
A

Facilitated diffusion

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17
Q

Which of the following transport mechanisms requires energy other than KE?

  • Osmosis
  • Diffusion
  • Active transport
  • Facilitated diffusion
A

Active transport

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18
Q

The sodium glucose pump is an example of which of the following?

  • Diffusion
  • Primary active transport
  • Secondary active
  • Facilitated diffusion
A

Secondary active

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19
Q

Define “kinetic energy” and “thermal energy” and explain how these relate to molecular movement

A
  • KE = energy via motion
  • TE = movement via heat
  • These are the way in which molecules move
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20
Q

Is osmosis selective?

A

Yes; semipermeable membrane

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21
Q

What causes osmotic pressure?

A

When water moves from one side of a membrane to another and accumulates there due to [] differences

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22
Q

Define Van’t Hoff’s law

A

Osmotic pressure depends on the [osmotically active particles]

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23
Q

What type of channels are aquaporins?

A

Integral membrane Non-gated channels

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24
Q

What are multiporters?

A

Secondary active transporters (ATP indirectly)

  • Symporters (cotransporters)
  • Antiporters (countertransporters/exchangers)
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25
Q

Does diffusion depend upon kinetic energy or external energy?

A

Kinetic energy (energy of motion)

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26
Q

What are the factors that affect the rate of diffusion? (3)

A
  1. Membrane electric potential (Nernst)
  2. Pressure difference
  3. Proportional to [difference] across the membrane
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27
Q

Can O2, CO2, Nitrogen and OHs readily cross a membrane?

A

Yes

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28
Q

What is the only form of transport that is not carrier mediated?

A

Simple diffusion and osmosis

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29
Q

What type of transport does facilitated diffusion utilize?

A

Uniporter (contains binding sites; glucose, amino acids)

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30
Q

List the 3 types of non-gated channels

A
  1. Aquaporins
  2. Sodium channels
  3. Potassium channels
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31
Q

What type of energy does active transport require?

A

metabolic energy (not kinetic) and carrier proteins

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32
Q

Where is the energy derived from for secondary active transporters?

A

Cocentration differences from a primary active transporter; utilizes multiporters

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33
Q

If Na+ moves down its electrochemical gradient, why is this referred to as secondary active transport?

A

ATP is necessary for the Na+ gradient to occur and move down its gradient

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34
Q

Na+/Ca2+ antiporters move three Na+ ions per Ca2+ ion. Why does it take three Na+ ions to move one Ca2+ ion?

A

Ca2+ has a greater electrochemical gradient and is a larger anion, therefore Na+ must overcome this charge and size

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35
Q

In a Na+/K+ pump, are both ions moving with and against their [gradient]?

A

Against

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36
Q

What type of transporters are the Na+-H+ and Na+-Ca2+ pumps?

A

Secondary active antiporters/countertransporter; uses the [Na+ gradient] that was established in the Na+-K+ pump

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37
Q

Explain how body compartment volumes can be altered

A
  • Diet
  • Dehydration
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38
Q

Carrier proteins are required for which type of active tranporters?

A

Primary and secondary

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39
Q

Which ions are typically associated with primary active transport?

A

Na+, K+, Ca2+, Cl-, H

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40
Q

An ATPase pump is a _____?

A

Carrier protein

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41
Q

What types of channels do dendrites contain and what do they contribute to?

A

Ligand gated channels (bind NTs); local potential

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42
Q

What type of channels do the axolemma contain and what does it cause

A

Voltage-gated ion channels; an Action potential

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43
Q

What is a plasmalemma

A

Cell membrane; can change its permeability, dictating the ECM and ICM environments

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44
Q

What does the Nernst Equation measure?

A

Determines the diffusion potential across a membrane that opposes the net diffusion of a particular ion through the membrane. Measures the potential for one type of ion at a time

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45
Q

What are the assumptions of the Nernst Equation? (3)

A
  1. Ion must be at equilibrium
  2. Equation can be used for only one ion at a time
  3. Memebrane must be completely permeable to that ion
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46
Q

What forms the selectivity filter of K+ channels?

A

Carbonyl oxygens; which dehydrate the K+ ions when passing through

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47
Q

How many gates does a K+ channel contain and at what potential does this gate open?

A

1; opens slowly from +35 to -90mV; otherwise it’s closed

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48
Q

Which membrane channels contain a selectivity filter?

A

Both K+ and Na+

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49
Q

What are the two ways in which an AP can be increased?

A
  1. Increasing the diameter of the axon (more internal flow and less resistance)
  2. Myelination (capacitor effect)
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50
Q

Why do action potentials typically travel in the orthodromic direction?

A

To store charge, its the absolute refractory period

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51
Q

Where is sphingomyelin found?

A

The lipid portion of the myelin sheaths made by Schwann cells

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52
Q

Why do small diameter fibers conduct AP slower than large diameter fibers?

A

Because of the less resistance, the flow cannot occur more evenly and rapidly

53
Q

The resting potential for a typical neuron such as a motor neuron is best represented by which of the following potentials?

  • 74
  • -74
  • 90
  • -90
A

-90

54
Q

Saltatory conduction is characterstics of which part of a typical neuron

  • Dendrite
  • Nerve cell body
  • Axon
  • Axon hillock
A

Axon

55
Q

A selectivity filter with carbonyl oxygens is associated with which of the following kinds of ion channels?

  • Gated sodium
  • Non-gated sodium
  • Potassium
  • Chloride
A

Potassium

56
Q

What 4 mechanisms help in establishing a membrane potential?

A
  • Diffusion potential
  • Equilibrium potential (equilibrium est. by concentration and electrical forces)
  • Donnan equilibrium (2 permeant ions)
  • Principle of electrical neutrality (sum of cations must equal the sum of anions in same compartment)
57
Q

Which components of sarcomere change during contraction?

A
  • H band (all myosin)
  • I band (all actin)

HI!!

58
Q

What does Ca2+ bind to during the sliding filament model?

A

Troponin

59
Q

Where are the myosin binding sites located and what shifts to release these binding sites?

A

On actin; a shift occurs on tropomyosin

60
Q

When does ATP become involved in muscle contraction?

A

When myosin is bound to actin; it releases it from actin; otherwise will get rigor mortis

  • Also at SERCA
  • and to reestablish resting potential with the Na+ and K+ ions thru the sarcolemma
61
Q

Rephosphorylation occurs via 3 ways

A
  1. Phosphocreatine (enough energy 5-8 secs)
  2. Glycolysis
  3. Oxidative metabolsim (main source of ATP)
62
Q

Define eccentric contraction

A

Muscle lengthens

63
Q

Define concentric contraction

A

Muscle shorterns

64
Q

Are red fibers fast or slow fiber types?

A

Slow; contract slowly but have more endurance i.e. Soleus muscle (standing, walking)

65
Q

What type of muscle fibers are white fibers?

A

Fast; less endurance, contract rapidly, less mito., more ATPase i.e gastrocnemius muscle (fast movements = running, jumping)

66
Q
  • Which of the following terms refers to a chain of sarcomeres?
  • muscle
  • myofiber
  • myofibril
  • myofilament
A

myofibril

67
Q

Which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle?

  • A band
  • H band
  • I band
  • J band
A

A band

68
Q

Which of the following sarcomeric bands is composed entirely of actin filaments?

  • A band
  • H band
  • I band
  • J band
A

I band

69
Q
  • DHP channels are part of which of the following structures?
  • Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • Plasmalemma
  • T tubules
  • Z discs
A

T tubules

70
Q

RyR are part of which of the following channels?

  • SR
  • Plasmalemma
  • T tubules
  • Z discs
A

SR

71
Q

Which of the following events occurs first during the transmission of a signal from an alpha motor neuron to a skeletal muscle fiber end-plate-potential?

  • EPP
  • Ca2+ ion influx into axon terminal
  • Exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
  • Sarcolemma AP
A

Ca2+ ion influx into axon terminal

72
Q

Which of the following represents the factor by which the concentration of Ca2+ increaess in the cytosol after release from the SR?

  • 10
  • 50
  • 100
  • 1000
A

100

73
Q

Which of the following maintains an optimum Ca2+ [gradient] to facilitate return of Ca2+ to SR?

  • Calsequestrin
  • SERCA
  • DHP
  • Ryanodine
A

Calsequestrin

74
Q

Fast twitch fibers have which of the following characteristics?

  • They are reddish in color compared to slow twitch fibers
  • They have more mito than slow twitch fibers
  • They have more myoglobin than slow twitch fibers
  • They are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers
A

They are more fatigable than slow twitch fibers

75
Q

Which of the following represents an example of an eccentric contraction?

  • The triceps muscle during the throwing of a ball
  • The triceps muscle while raising the body from the floor during a push-up
  • The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up
  • The biceps muscle while raising the body during a pull-up
A

The triceps muscle while lowering the body to the floor during a push-up

76
Q

First class lever system with example

A
  • Fulcrum is in the middle
  • Ex: raising chin (atlas/axis = fulcrum), seesaw
  • in and out force move in opposite directions
77
Q

2nd class lever system and example

A
  • Resistance/out-force in middle
  • In and out force are on same side of fulcrum
  • Ex: raising body on ball of foot; fulcrum = ball of foot
78
Q

3rd class lever system and example

A
  • Effort/In-force in middle
  • Both forces move in same directions
  • In and out forces on same side of fulcrum
  • Ex: lifting a weight in palm of hand
79
Q

Which of the following are anchored to the presynaptic membrane and associated with synaptic vesicles to which they are tethered by short filamens?

  • Synaptic vesicles
  • Calcium channels
  • Dense bars
  • DHP channels
A

Dense bars

80
Q

4 characteristics of a single axon terminal

A
  1. Synaptic gutter (trough) - where axon terminal makes contact w/ the sarcolemma
  2. Synaptic cleft - narrow gap b/w axonlemma of axon terminal and sarcolemma of innervated muscle fibers
  3. Has an EPP
  4. AcH gated ion channels - 2 bind
81
Q

The vesicles for AcH are transported to the axon terminal from where?

RER

Smooth ER

Axon terminal

Golgi

A

Golgi

82
Q

The EPP initiates what?

A

The AP on the sarcolemma (muscle fiber membrane)

83
Q

What do clathrin coated pits contain and where to do arise from?

A

AcH; arise from the plasmalemma, turn into new synaptic vesicles

84
Q

How is Ach removed from the synaptic cleft?

A

Acteylcholinesterase degrades it into choline and acetate and reuptake

85
Q

What is meant by excitation-contraction (electro-mechanical coupling)?

A

Electrical activity from the AP along the neuron and sarcolemma; which cause the Ca2+ to be released and that causes the transformation of a mechanical event when it binds to troponin

86
Q

Function of neostigmine

A

Inactivates acetylcholinesterase and causes muscle spasms

87
Q

What occurs during myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Abs attack acetylcholine receptors
  • EPP are too weak to initiate opening of v.g. Na+ channels
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Neostigmine can be used to inactive acetrylcholinesterase so that the Ach can bind to whatever receptors are still there
88
Q

What is neostigmine’s role in myasthenia gravis?

A

Degrades acetylcholinesterase so that there is an abundance of ACH to bind to the few Ach receptors there are due to the disease degrading them

89
Q

What is the mean electrical axis of normal ventricles?

A

59 degrees

90
Q

Which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers?

Cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern

Cells utilize T-tubules

Cells are mononucleated

Cells utilize RyR channels

A

Cells are mononucleated

91
Q

Define syncytium

A

A grouping of cardiac muscle cells connected together

92
Q

What is the AP of a ventricular fiber?

A

about 105mV

93
Q

The resting potential of -85mV is characteristics of which of the following phases of the cardiac fast AP?

  • Stage 1
  • Stage 2
  • Stage 3
  • Stage 4
A

Stage 4

94
Q

What is a purkinje fiber?

A
  • A modified cardiac muscle cell that generates an AP in the heart mainly in the ventricular parts
  • Fast type non-contractile myocyte
95
Q

Where are T-tubules found in skeletal muscle? Cardiac muscle?

A

End of thick filaments; along the Z line

96
Q

How many T-tubules are there per cisterna in skeletal muscle? Cardiac muscle? And what do they form within the sarcoplasic reticulum?

A

2 per cisterna and 3 = triad; 1 per cisterna and 2 = diad

97
Q

How are muscle fibers arranged in skeletal muscle? Cardiac muscle?

A

Motor units; syncytium

98
Q

Where are fast action potentials found, contractile or non-contractile?

A
  • Atria, ventricles, and conducting system
  • Rapid but non-contractile in Purkinje fibers
  • High amplitude
  • Rapid and contractile in atrial and ventricular fibers
99
Q

Where are slow APs found in cardiac muscle?

A
  • SA and AV nodal tissues
  • Conducts slowly
  • Low amplitude
  • Automatically depolarizes during resting phase
100
Q

Which ion contributes to the slow AP in cardiac muscle (SA and AV nodes)

A

Calcium; higher resting phase (-60, rather than -90); spontaneously depolarize during phase 4

101
Q

Characteristics of fast type contractile myocytes (3)

A
  • Large diameter
  • High amplitude
  • Rapid onset of AP
102
Q

Characteristics of fast type non-contractile myocytes

A
  • Very large diameter
  • Very rapid upstroke
103
Q

Characteristics of slow type non-contractile myocytes

A
  • Small diameter
  • Low amplitude
  • Slowr rate of depolarization
104
Q

What types of channels cause an AP in ventricular fibers? (2)

A
  • Fast Na+ channels
  • Slow Ca2+/Na+ channels
105
Q

Where are the two sources that Ca2+ comes from during cardiac muscle AP?

A
  • T-tubules via diffusion via DHP
  • Cisternae of the Sarcoplasmic tubules via RyR receptors (external environment)
106
Q

Why is there no plateau in skeletal muscle AP?

A

Because Na+ channels close rapidly;

107
Q

What causes the plateau during cardiac AP?

A
  • Ca2+ channels staying open for a longer period of time
  • K+ channels have a delay in the opening
  • Therefore, there’s a large [] of Ca2+ and K+ ions
108
Q

What two transporters allow for relaxation of cardiac tissue?

A
  • SERCA - assisted by phospholambian
  • Na+/Ca2+ exchanger in the sarcolemma (not in skeletal muscle)
109
Q

What is diastasis?

A

Midportion of diastole when blood enters ventricle slowly or ceases to enter prior to atrial systole

110
Q

What occurs during the first third of diastole?

A

Rapid filling; 80%

111
Q

What occurs during the middle third of diastole (diastasis)?

A

Small amount of blood flows into ventricles

112
Q

What occurs during the last third of diastole?

A

Atria contract and push remaining 20% of blood into ventricles

113
Q

How much blood is ejected during the period of rapid ejection?

A
  • 70%
  • When left ventricular pressure is above 80mmHg
  • First 3rd of ejection
114
Q

How much blood is ejected during the period of slow ejection and when does this occur?

A
  • Remaining 30%
  • During the last 2/3 of ejection
115
Q

What occurs at the myofilament level in the Frank-Starling Law?

A

The stretching of the cardiac muscle brings the actin and myosin filaments to a more nearly optimal degree of overalp for force generation

116
Q

Ejection fraction formula

A

EJ = SV / EDV

117
Q

What are the phases in the SA nodal AP?

A
  • 4
  • 0
  • 3
118
Q

What accounts for the slow conduction of the heart?

A

The diminished number of gap junctions resulting in an increase in resistance to conduction

119
Q

What causes a slight rise in the SA nodal AP?

A

Leaky Na+ channels

120
Q

What nerve is contributed to the parasympathetic innervation of the heart and what hormones are used?

A
  • Vagus nerve
  • Ach
  • Muscarinic receptors
  • Negative chronotropic effect
  • Increases permeability to K+ ions
121
Q

Where does sympathetic innervation take place in heart and what hormone?

A
  • Mainly ventricles, but all over
  • NEpi
  • Increases depolarization rate
  • Positive chronotropic effect
122
Q

In a typical ECG, which of the following waves occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria?

  • T
  • R
  • S
  • P
  • Q
A

P

123
Q

What is the PR Interval?

A

The heart’s delay - 0.16sec

124
Q

Which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead II?

  • 0
  • 60
  • 90
  • 120
A

120

125
Q

Of the 3 bipolar leads, which one is connected to both left and right arms?

  • Lead I
  • Lead II
  • Lead III
  • All leads are connected to only one arm each
A

Lead I

126
Q

Where is limb lead I placed and what does it record

A
  • (-) on right arm
  • (+) on left arm
  • Heart from left to right
127
Q

Where is limb lead II placed and how does it look at the heart?

A
  • (-) to right arm
  • (+) to left leg
  • Heart from upper right to lower left
  • EKG records (+)
128
Q

Where is limb lead III placed and where at the heart does it look at?

A
  • (-) on left arm
  • (+) on left leg
  • Heart from upper left to lower left
  • Records on EKG as positive

KCUMB Physiology - Erin (11 decks)

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