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CLINICAL CHEMISTRY > CIULLA_INSTRUMENTATION & ANALYTICAL PRINCIPLES > Flashcards

CIULLA_INSTRUMENTATION & ANALYTICAL PRINCIPLES Flashcards

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1
Q

referred to as the distance traveled by one complete wave cycle (distance between two successive crests)

A

Wavelength

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2
Q

Wavelength is measured in _____

A

nanometers (nm)

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3
Q

characterized as a spectrum from short wavelength to long wavelength

A

Radiant energy

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4
Q

order of wavelengths from shortest to longest

A 
Gamma ray
X-ray
UV
Visible
Infrared
Microwave
Radio
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5
Q

Two properties of electromagnetic radiation

A

wave-like

particle-like

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6
Q

T/F:

The shorter the wavelength, the greater the energy

A

TRUE

The shorter the wavelength, the greater the energy (also the greater number of photons

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7
Q

Visible light wavelength

A

400-700 nm

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8
Q

What is detected when all visible wavelengths of light are combined?

A

White light

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9
Q

Visible color

A

wavelength of light transmitted (not absorbed) by an object

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10
Q

the particles of light

A

photons

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11
Q

three ways by which an atom becomes excited upon absorbing a photon

A
  1. electron is moved to a higher energy level
  2. the mode of the covalent bond vibration is changed
  3. rotation around covalent bonds is changed
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12
Q

When energy is absorbed as a photon, an electron is moved to a higher energy level where it is _________.

A

unstable

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13
Q

T/F:

An excited electron is unstable and will return to ground state

A

TRUE

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14
Q

An excited electron emits energy in the form of _____.

A

Light

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15
Q

Absorption or emission of energy forms a ________ that is characteristic of a molecule and can help identify a molecule.

A

line spectrum

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16
Q

an instrument used to determine the concentration of a light-absorbing analyte in solution.

A

spectrophotometer

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17
Q

T/F:
An analyte may absorb, transmit and reflect light to varying degrees but always of a characteristic nature for the analyte

A

TRUE

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18
Q

Components of a Spectrophotometer

A
  • power supply
  • light source
  • entrance slit
  • monochromator
  • exit slit
  • cuvet/sample cell
  • photodetector
  • readout device
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19
Q

component of a spectrophotometer which produces an intense, reproducible, constant beam of light

A

light source (exciter lamp)

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20
Q

Types of incandescent lamps

A

tungsten

deuterium

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21
Q

type of incandescent lamp regarded as most common and is used in visible and infrared regions

A

tungsten

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22
Q

type of incandescent lamp used in UV region

A

deuterium

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23
Q

T/F:

Changing the light source in a spectrophotometer changes the angle of the light striking the monochromator

A

TRUE

Recalibration is a must upon changing light source.

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24
Q

a component of the spectrophotometer which converts the electromagnetic radiation transmitted by a solution into an electric signal

A

Photodetector

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25
Q

the electromagnetic radiation detected in a spectrophotometer is converted into a ______.

A

electric signal

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26
Q

T/F:

The more light transmitted, the more energy, and greater electric signal is measured.

A

TRUE

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27
Q

a component of the spectrophotometer where the electrical energy from a detector is displayed on some type of digital display

A

Readout device

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28
Q

Readout system may be a ________.

A

chart recorder

computer printout

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29
Q

the range of wavelengths in nanometers that is transmitted by the monochromator and exit slit between two points of a spectral scan where the light transmitted is one-half of the peak (maximum) resistance

A

band pass or spectral bandwidth

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30
Q

refers to the wavelengths at which an atom absorbs light; each metal exhibits a specific line spectrum

A

line spectrum

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31
Q

an instrumentation technique wherein the ground-state atoms absorb light at defined wavelengths

A

Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry

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32
Q

an instrumentation technique where the sample is atomized in a flame and the atoms are maintained at a ground state. Light from HCL is passed through the chopper to the flame and the ground-state atoms absorb the wavelengths of light from HCL

A

Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry

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33
Q

The difference in the amount of light leaving the HCL and the amount of light measured by the detector is (inversely/directly) proportional to the concentration of the metal analyte in the sample

A

inversely proportional.

The less light measured by the detector, the greater the concentration of metal analyte in the sample

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34
Q

Components of AAS

A 
Hollow-cathode lamp
Chopper
Burner head for flame
Monochromator
Detector
Readout device
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35
Q

inert gas present in an HCL

A

helium or argon

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36
Q

a component of AAS that contains an anode, a cylindrical cathode made of metal being analyzed and an inert gas

A

HCL

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37
Q

the measurement of light scattered by a particulate solution

A

Nephelometry

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38
Q

In nephelometry, the amount of scatter is (directly/inversely) proportional to the number and size of particles present in the solution

A

directly proportional

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39
Q

In nephelometry, when small particles are involved, the light is measured through

a. at an angle to the incident light
b. via forward light scatter

A

a

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40
Q

In nephelometry, when large particles are involved, the light is measured through

a. at an angle to the incident light
b. via forward light scatter

A

b

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41
Q

The ____________ of nephelometry depends on the absence of background scatter from scratched cuvets and particulate matter in reagents

A

sensitivity

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42
Q

measures light blocked as a decrease in the light transmitted through the solution

A

Turbidimetry

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43
Q

Turbidimetry mainly depends on

A

particle size and concentration

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44
Q

What instrument does turbidimetry use for measurement?

A

Spectrophotometer

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45
Q

A process where atoms absorb energy at a particular wavelength, electrons are raised to higher-energy orbitals, and the electrons release energy as they return to ground state by emitting light energy of a longer wavelength and lower energy than the exciting wavelength.

A

Fluorescence

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46
Q

The emitted light in fluorescence has a very (short/long) lifetime.

A

short

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47
Q

Referred to as the emission of light produced by certain substances after they absorb energy.

A

Phosphorescence

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48
Q

The time delay between absorption of radiant energy and release of energy as photons of light in phosphorescence

A

> 10^-4 sec

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49
Q

The process where the chemical energy of a reaction produced excited atoms, and upon electron return to ground state, photons of light are emitted

A

Chemiluminescence

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50
Q

The process where an enzyme-catalyzed chemical reaction produces light emission.

A

Bioluminescence

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51
Q

generic term for the type of instrument that is used to measure chemiluminescence and bioluminescence

A

Luminometer

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52
Q

a technique where solutes in a sample are separated for identification based on physical differences that allow their differential distribution between a mobile phase and a stationary phase

A

Chromatography

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53
Q

the phase in chromatography which may be an inert gas or liquid

A

Mobile phase

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54
Q

the phase in chromatography which may be silica gel bound to the surface of a glass plate or plastic sheet; may be silica or polymer that is coated or bonded within a column

A

Stationary phase

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55
Q

Thin-Layer Chromatography is a type of __________ chromatography.

A

planar

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56
Q

technique used clinically for urine drug screening

A

TLC

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57
Q

In chromatography, the mobile phase moves through the stationary phase by means of what principles

A

Absorption and capillary action

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58
Q

T/F:
In chromatography, the solute components move at different rates because of solubility in the mobile phase and electrostatic forces of the stationary phase that retard solute movement

A

TRUE.

Mobile phase and stationary phase work together to provide solute resolution and separation

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59
Q

In chromatography, solute will stay at (solvent front/origin) if solvent is too polar for the solute

A

solvent front

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60
Q

In chromatography, solute will stay at (solvent front/origin) if solvent is insufficiently polar

A

origin

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61
Q

types of luminescence where excitation requires absorption of radiant energy

A

fluorescence

phosphorescence

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62
Q

types of luminescence where excitation does not require absorption of radiant energy

A

chemiluminescence

bioluminescence

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63
Q

Factors that affect rf values in chromatography

A

chamber saturation
temperature
humidity
composition of the solvent

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64
Q

a technique used to separate volatile solutes

A

Gas-liquid chromatography

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65
Q

This component in gas-liquid chromatography carries the vaporized sample into the
column

A

inert carrier gas (mobile phase)

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66
Q

This component in gas-liquid chromatography produces a signal for identification and quantification of the
solutes

A

detector

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67
Q

commonly used detectors in gas-liquid chromatography

A

flame ionization
thermal conductivity
electron capture
mass spectrometer

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68
Q

components of gas-liquid chromatography

A 
carrier gas (w/ flow control device)
heated injector
chromatographic column 
heated column oven
detector
computer
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69
Q

in gas-liquid chromatography, the injector is maintained approx. at ___________ higher than the column temperature

A

50degC

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70
Q

The carrier gas in GLC must have a __________ to regulate gas flow

A

flow-control device

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71
Q

This component in GLC is used to separate solutes

A

chromatographic column

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72
Q

This component in GLC is used to process data and control the operation of the system

A

computer

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73
Q

In GLC, the sample is injected into the injector where the sample is _______.

A

vaporized

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74
Q

carrier gases commonly used in GLC

A

hydrogen
helium
nitrogen
argon

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75
Q

T/F:

The carrier gas flow rate is critical to maintaining column efficiency and reproducibility of elution times

A

TRUE

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76
Q

in GLC, the types of columns (stationary phase) used are designated as what form?

A

packed

capillary

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77
Q

When the volatile solutes carried by the gas over the stationary phase
of the column are eluted, the column effluent is introduced to what component of the GLC?

A

detector

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78
Q

in chromatography, this is the portion of the mobile phase which carries the sample components with it

A

Eluent

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79
Q

in chromatography, this is the combination of the mobile phase and the analytes

A

Eluate

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80
Q

in chromatography, the mobile phase that exits the column

A

Effluent

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81
Q

in chromatography, the solute-mobile phase mixture which exits the column

A

Eluate

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82
Q

the process of passing of mobile phase through the chromatographic bed to transport solutes

A

Elution

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83
Q

In GLC, the identification of a solute is based on its ________.

A

retention time

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84
Q

In GLC, the quantification of a solute is based on ________.

A

peak size

85
Q

In peak size (GLC), the amount of solute present is ___________ to the size of the peak.

A

proportional

86
Q

T/F:

In GLC, the more volatile a solute, the faster it will elute from the column

A

TRUE

87
Q

T/F:

In GLC, the less interaction of the solute with the column, the faster it will elute

A

TRUE

88
Q

HPLC stands for

A

High-Performance Liquid Chromatography

89
Q

Components of HPLC

A 
solvent reservoir(s)
one or more pumps
injector
chromatographic column
detector
computer
90
Q

In HPLC, this component is used to propel the solvents

A

pump

91
Q

In HPLC, this component is used to process data and control the operation of the system

A

computer

92
Q

a type of liquid chromatography where the mobile phase is a liquid
that is passed over the stationary phase of the column. The separation of
solutes in a sample is governed by the selective distribution of the solutes
between the mobile and stationary phases.

A

HPLC

93
Q

solvents commonly used in HPLC

A 
acetonitrile
methanol
ethanol
isopropanol
water
94
Q

a technique where the strength of solvent remains constant during separation

A

Isocratic elution

95
Q

a technique where the strength of solvent continually increases (%/min)
during separation

A

Gradient elution

96
Q

In HPLC, this is an organic material covalently bonded to silica that
may be polar or nonpolar in composition.

A

Stationary phase

97
Q

composed of polar stationary phase and

nonpolar mobile phase

A

normal-phase liquid chromatography

98
Q

composed of nonpolar stationary phase

and polar mobile phase

A

reversed-phase liquid chromatography

99
Q

in HPLC, the column which functions as the stationary phase, generally operates at what temperature

A

room temperature

100
Q

In HPLC, this produces a signal for identification and quantification of the
solutes

A

detector

101
Q

commonly used detectors in HPLC

A 
spectrophotometer
photodiode array
fluorometer
electrochemical
mass spectrometer
102
Q

is an instrument that uses the principle of charged
particles moving through a magnetic or electric field, with ions being
separated from other charged particles according to their mass-to-charge
ratios.

A

mass spectrometer

103
Q

In mass spectrometry, the ions are separated from other charged particles according to _________.

A

mass-to-charge ratio

104
Q

In mass spectrometry, the mass spectrum produced is for (identification/quantification).

A

identification

105
Q

In mass spectrometry, the number of ions produced relates proportionally to concentration and is for (identification/quantification).

A

quantification

106
Q

a high-quality technique for identifying drugs or drug

metabolites, amino acid composition of proteins, and steroids.

A

mass spectrometry

107
Q

an instrumentation technique used in the field of proteomics

A

mass spectrometry

108
Q

The eluate gas from a gas chromatograph may be introduced into a mass spectrometer that functions as _________.

A

detector system

109
Q

Components of mass spectrometer

A 
ion source
vacuum system
analyzer
detector
computer
110
Q

component of mass spectrometer which prevents the collision of ions with other molecules when electronic or magnetic separation is occurring

A

vacuum system

111
Q

Types of analyzer that may be used in mass spectrometer

A

beam-type

trapping-type

112
Q

Analyzer in mass spectrometer which involves a destructive process, where ions pass through the
analyzer one time and then strike the detector.

A

Beam-type

113
Q

a beam-type analyzer (in mass spectrometer), where mass-to-charge ratios are scanned during a prescribed time period to form a mass spectrum.

A

Quadrupole

114
Q

In mass spectrometry, the detector detects ions using _________.

A

electron multipliers

115
Q

Electron multiplier types (detector in mass spectrometer)

A

discrete dynode

continuous dynode

116
Q

In mass spectrometry, this converts the detector’s signal to a digital form.

A

computer and software

117
Q

In mass spectrometry, sample identification is achieved because each compound produces a __________, which is analyzed by a database for matching to a computerized reference library

A

unique spectrum

118
Q

a system where a gas chromatograph or a high-performance liquid chromatograph is connected to two mass spectrometers
(GC/MS/MS) or (HPLC/MS/MS).

A

tandem mass spectrometer

119
Q

an instrumentation technique which employs an electrochemical cell

A

Polarography

120
Q

a technique used to determine the concentration of a substance in solution employing an electrochemical cell that consists of two half-cells

A

Potentiometry

121
Q

In potentiometry, what is being measured?

A

potential difference (between indicator electrode and reference electrode)

122
Q

common type of reference electrode (potentiometry)

A

silver-silver chloride (Ag/AgCl)

123
Q

common type of reference electrode, consisting of mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated solution of potassium chloride
(potentiometry)

A

calomel

124
Q

In potentiometry, this employs a pH-sensitive glass electrode for measuring blood pH, and it employs PCO2 and PO2 electrodes for measuring gases in blood

A

ph/blood gas analyzer

125
Q

In potentiometry, the pH electrode is what type of electrode?

A

glass electrode

126
Q

Electrochemical technique that measures the amount of current produced through the oxidation or reduction of the substance to be measured at an electrode held at a fixed potential

A

Amperometry

127
Q

Coulometry is based on what law?

A

Faraday’s law

128
Q

states that in an electrochemical system, the number of equivalent weights of a reactant oxidized or reduced is directly proportional to the
quantity of electricity used in the reaction

A

Faraday’s Law

129
Q 
Used clinically to separate and identify proteins, including serum, urine and
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) proteins, lipoproteins, isoenzymes, and so on.
A

electrophoresis

130
Q

defined as the movement of charged molecules in a liquid medium when an electric field is applied

A

electrophoresis

131
Q

defined as the movement of charged molecules in a

porous supporting medium where the molecules separate as distinct zones

A

zone elctrophoresis

132
Q

In electrophoresis, this provides a matrix that allows molecules to separate (e.g.,
agarose gel, starch gel, polyacrylamide gel, and cellulose acetate membranes).

A

support medium

133
Q

In electrophoresis, the pH at which negative and positive charges are equal on a protein is the _____.

A

isoelectric point

134
Q

In serum electrophoresis, buffer solutions are of what pH?

A

8.6

135
Q

In electrophoresis, detection and quantification of the separated protein is accomplished using a _____.

A

densitometer

136
Q

In electrophoresis, this indicates that the analyte present in too high a concentration

A

Holes in staining pattern

137
Q

In electrophoresis, this indicates that the voltage is too low

A

very slow migration

138
Q

In electrophoresis, this indicates that the pH is too high or low or there may be excessive heat production

A

sample precipitates in support

139
Q

commonly encountered problems in electrophoresis

A

holes in staining pattern
very slow migration
sample precipitates in support

140
Q

a type of zone electrophoresis in which protein separation is based on the isoelectric point (pI) of the proteins.

A

Isoelectric focusing

141
Q

Capillary electrophoresis is based on what principle

A

Electroosmotic flow (EOF)

142
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

Centrifugal force moves samples and reagents into cuvet areas for simultaneous analysis.

A

Centrifugal analysis

143
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:
Each sample reaction is compartmentalized. This may
relate to an analyzer designed to assay only one analyte (e.g., glucose) or an
analyzer capable of performing multiple tests where the sample and reagents are in a separate cuvet/reaction vessel for each test.

A

Discrete analysis

144
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

Able to perform individual tests or panels, and allows for stat samples to be added to the run ahead of other specimens

A

Random access

145
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

Samples processed as a group

A

Batch analysis

146
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

Instrument from a single discipline with automated capability

A

Stand-alone

147
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY: Instrument from a single discipline with additional
internal automated capability (e.g., auto-repeat and auto-dilute)

A

Automated stand-alone

148
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

At least two instruments from a single discipline with one controller

A

Modular workcell

149
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:

Instrument able to perform tests from at least two disciplines

A

Multiple platform

150
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:
At least two analytical modules supported by
one sample and reagent processing and delivery system

A

Integrated modular system

151
Q

AUTOMATION PARAMETERS/TERMINOLOGY:
Transports specimens quickly from one location
to another

A

Pneumatic tube system

152
Q

Maximum number of tests generated per hour

A

throughput

153
Q

Amount of time to generate one result

A

turnaround

154
Q

Mechanism for patient/sample identification; used for reagent
identification by an instrument

A

Bar coding

155
Q

Amount of serum that cannot be aspirated

A

Dead volume

156
Q

The contamination of a sample by a previously aspirated sample

A

Carry-over

157
Q

Use of preliminary test results to determine if additional tests
should be ordered or cancelled on a particular specimen; performed manually
or automated

A

Reflex testing

158
Q

Automated systems exist for laboratories
where samples are received, centrifuged, distributed to particular instruments
using a conveyor system, and loaded into the analyzer without operator
assistance. This kind of automation is seen in large medical center laboratories
and commercial laboratories where the volume of testing is high.

A

Total laboratory automation

159
Q

Dry reagents are packaged as ________.

A

lyophilized powder

tablet form

160
Q

In automation, some instruments have _____ that detect the amount of serum or plasma in the tube.

A

level-sensing probes

161
Q

a vessel where the mixing of sample and reagents occur

A

cuvet

162
Q

the permanent, non-disposable cuvets in some automated instruments are made of ____.

A

quartz glass

163
Q

disposable cuvets are made of _____.

A

plastic

164
Q

most common reaction temperatures

A

37degC and 30degC

165
Q

Determination of sample concentration is based on change in absorbance over time

A

kinetic assays

166
Q

composition of hemoglobin

A

tetramer
4 globin chains
4 heme groups
4 iron atoms

167
Q

hemoglobin type composed of two alpha chains and two beta chains

A

H A1

168
Q

hemoglobin type composed of two alpha chains and two delta chains

A

H A1

169
Q

hemoglobin type composed of two alpha chains and two gamma chains

A

H F

170
Q

hemoglobinopathy involving substitution of valine for glutamic acid in position 6 of
the beta chain

A

Hemoglobin S

171
Q

hemoglobinopathy involving substitution of lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 of
the beta chain

A

Hemoglobin C

172
Q

Hemoglobinopathies occur when one amino acid is substituted on what chain types?

A

alpha

beta

173
Q

hemoglobin differentiation is best achieved by use of

A

electrophoresis

174
Q

How is hemoglobin F differentiated from the majority of human hemoglobins?

A

alkali resistance

175
Q

at what pH do hemoglobins have a net negative charge and migrate from the point of application toward the anode?

A

8.6

176
Q

at what pH do hemoglobins exhibit different electrophoretic mobilities on agar gel

A

6.2

177
Q

order of migration of hemoglobins on agar gel (anodal to cathodal)

A

C&S
A1, A2, D, E, G
F

178
Q

T/F:

Reaction temperatures and times vary for each analyte.

A

TRUE

179
Q

Order of migration of hemoglobins using cellulose acetate

A

A1
F
S, G, D
A2, C, O, E

180
Q

Performing diagnostic tests outside the main laboratory and at or
near patient care areas

A

Point-of-care testing

181
Q

Point-of-care instruments must be evaluated in accordance with ______?

A

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA ‘88)

182
Q

simple tests that carry a low risk for an incorrect result.

A

Waived testing

183
Q

the only type of tests that can be performed using POCT instruments

A

Waived laboratory tests

184
Q

immunochemical techniques used to
detect an extremely small amount of analyte (functions as antigen) by reacting
it with an antibody (functions as reagent) to form an antigen-antibody complex

A

Immunoassay

185
Q

In immunoassays, the small amount of analyte functions as _______?

A

antigen

186
Q

In immunoassays, the antibody functions as _____?

A

reagent

187
Q

T/F:

In immunoassays, the label may be attached to either a reagent antigen or a reagent antibody

A

TRUE

188
Q

What can increase the specificity of immunochemical procedures?

A

use of monoclonal antibodies

189
Q

Antibodies produced in an animal from many cell clones in response to an immunogen

A

Polyclonal antiserum

190
Q

heterogenous mixture of antibodies

A

polyclonal antiserum

191
Q

Antibodies produced from a single clone or

plasma cell line

A

monoclonal antiserum

192
Q

homogenous antibodies

A

monoclonal antiserum

193
Q

type of immunoassay based on the competition
between an unlabeled antigen (sample analyte) and a labeled antigen
for an antibody

A

Competitive-binding immunoassay

194
Q

In competitive-binding immunoassay, which acts as the sample analyte?

A

unlabeled antigen

195
Q

original labels used for immunoassays

A

radioactive isotopes (I125)

196
Q

Nonradioactive labels used today in immunoassays

A

enzyme
fluorophore
chemiluminiscent labels

197
Q

assays that require that free labeled antigen be physically removed from the labeled antigen bound to antibody

A

Heterogenous

198
Q

assays that do not require physical removal of free

labeled antigen from bound-labeled antigen

A

Homogenous

199
Q

Examples of heterogenous assays

A

RIA
ELISA
IRMA

200
Q

a homogeneous
immunoassay where the sample analyte (functions as unlabeled antigen)
competes with the enzyme-labeled antigen for the binding sites on the antibody

A

Enzyme multiplied immunoassay technique

201
Q

T/F:
In EMIT, the more analyte (unlabeled antigen) present in the mixture,
the less binding of enzyme-labeled antigen to the antibody.

A

TRUE

202
Q

immunochemical technique based on the amount of

polarized fluorescent light detected when the fluorophore label is excited with polarized light

A

Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)

203
Q

immunochemical technique based on measuring

the degree to which fluorescence intensity is greater in one plane than in another (polarized versus depolarized).

A

FPIA

204
Q

a homogeneous technique where the sample analyte

(functions as unlabeled antigen) competes with the fluorophore-labeled antigen for the binding sites on the antibody.

A

FPIA

205
Q

T/F:
The more analyte
(unlabeled antigen) present in the mixture, the more binding of
fluorophore-labeled antigen to the antibody

A

FALSE

206
Q

a technique between antigen and antibody that employs a chemiluminescent indicator molecule such as isoluminol and acridinium ester as labels for antibodies and haptens.

A

Chemiluminescent immunoassay

207
Q

chemiluminescent indicator molecules used in chemiluminescent immunoassay

A

isoluminol

acridinium ester

208
Q

a homogeneous technique that is an adaptation of the chemiluminescent
immunoassay.

A

Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay (LOCI)

209
Q

indicator label used in electrochemiluminescence immunoassay

A

ruthenium

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY (8 decks)

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