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Cinical Integrations Flashcards

0
Q

Architectural type of neoplastic polyps that has the highest risk for colorectal adenocarcinoma.

A. Tubular adenomas
B. Villous adenomas
C. Tubulovillous adenomas

A

B. Villous

Larger and sessile polyps covered by slender villi

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1
Q

Most common and clinically important neoplastic polyps

A

Colonic adenomas; characterized by presence of epithelial dysplasia

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2
Q

Mutation of this tumor suppressor gene that results to autosomal dominant disorder

A

APC gene- important in activation of oncogene c-myc and cyclin D1 that drives the progression to malignant phenotype

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3
Q

Disease assoc. with polyps: intestinal polyps and osteomas of mandible, skull and long bones

A. Gardner syndrome
B. Turcot sundrome

A

A.

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4
Q

Intestinal adenomas and tumors of the central nervous system

A. Gardner syndrome
B. Turcot sundrome

A

B.

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5
Q

Due to mismatch repair deficiency and microsatellite instability

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer aka Lynch syndrome

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6
Q

Colorectal cancer is due to

A. Low intake of unabsorbable vegetable fiber
B. High intake of refined carbohydrates and fats
C. Both

A

C.

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7
Q

Percentage of colorectal cancers that initially develop because of defective function of the DNA mismatch repair system

A

15%

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8
Q

Responsible for their characteristic firm consistency

A

Desmoplastic response

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9
Q

Most common site of metastasis

A

Liver

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10
Q

Often presents with fatigue and weakness due to IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA

A. Right sided CRC
B. Left sided CRC

A

A.

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11
Q

Often presents with occult bleeding, CHANGES IN BOWEL HABITS, or cramping left lower quadrant discomfort

A. Right sided CRC
B. Left sided CRC

A

B.

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12
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to defective________ protein leading to abnormal chloride transport

A. CFTR
B. BRFT

A

A. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator

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13
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to a deletion of three specific base pairs at the ______ position of the said gene

A. F567
B. F508

A

B.

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14
Q

Enzymes that recognize the specific double-stranded DNA sequences and cleave the DNA at or near the recognition site

A

Restriction enzymes; usually recognizes PALINDROMES

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15
Q

Library screening is performed by

A. Nucleic acid hybridization
B. Nucleic acid proliferation

A

A.

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16
Q

An enzyme amplification of a fragment of DNA located between oligonucleotide primers

A

PCR

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17
Q

Specificity to bind protein molecule

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

C.

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18
Q

Specificity that have sequences to the target RNA

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

A.

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19
Q

Specificity that have sequences complimentary to DNA

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

B.

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20
Q

True or false: CD4 count of <200 is indicative if AIDS

A

True. Normal CD4 count is >500

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21
Q

What familial classification does HIV belongs to

A

Retroviridae

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22
Q

HIV 2 is seen in _____ more related to SIV 2

A

Sootey mangabeys

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23
Q

Converts single stranded RNA viral genome into double-stranded RNA viral DNA

A

Reverse transcriptase

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24
Problem in HIV A. Translation B. Transcription
B.
25
Reverse transcription occurs in A. Mitochondria B. Cytoplasm
B.
26
Enzyme responsible for the incorporation of DNA into the host cell
Integrase enzyme ; retroviral DNA is referred to as provirus
27
Generic material in HIV A. RNA B. DNA
A.
28
Codes for capsid protein, matrix protein, nucleocapsid protein A. Gag B. Pol C. Env
A. Gag Major protein
29
Codes for reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase, and ribonuclease A. Gag B. Pol C. Env
B. Pol | 2nd major
30
Codes for envelope glycoproteins A. Gag B. Pol C. Env
C. Env Surface protein-gp120 Transmembrane proteins-gp41
31
At the 5'end of viral RNA is a unique sequence U5, which is for A. Initiation and integration of viral DNA B. Control of transcription
A. | Also control RNA' binding temperature; 5'end of viral RNA synthesized from proviral DNA has a methylated cap
32
At the 3'end of the viral RNA, is the nucleotide sequence U3, which is for A. Initiation and integration of viral DNA B. Control of transcription
B. | 3'end has polyA tail
33
True or false: LTR contains enhancer and promoter regions of HIV.
True
34
Regulatory proteins that are responsible for switching early to late HIV gene located in the 3'end of env gene
Nef(negative factor) tat(transactivator of transcription) rev(regulator of viral gene expresion)
35
Test for detection of HIV-1 p24 antigen, antibodies to HIV-1 and HIV-2
Rapid HIV test
36
Often described as "worst flu ever" or primary HIV infection A. Early stage B. Clinical latency stage C. AIDS
A.
37
Asymptomatic HIV infection of chronic HIV infection A. Early stage B. Clinical latency stage C. AIDS
B.
38
Management in HIV that terminates elongation process A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors
A. | Ends in - vudine (zidovudine, stavudine etc.)
39
Binds to active site induces conformational change and inhibiting enzyme function A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors
B. | Delaviridine, nevirapine, efavirenz
40
Inhibits HIV protease which activates precursors of gag-pol A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors C. Protease inhibitors
C. | Ends in -navir
41
2 reverse transcriptase inhibitor, 1 protease inhibitor A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors C. HAART
C. Highly active antiretroviral therapy
42
Also known as the BERLIN PATIENT
Timothy brown
43
What causes lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi; vector-tick ixodes
44
Classification of bacteria under spirochete
LTB; leptospira, treponema, borrelia
45
Culture medium for B.burgdorferi
Barbour-stoener-kelly medium; 33 degrees darkfield
46
Animal reservoirs in B.burgdorferi
White footed mouse White tailed deer Bite from deer tick ixodes scapularis
47
Pathognomonic lession in Lyme disease
Erythema migrans- characteristic expanding rash at the site of the tick bite 7-14 days after the rick is removed; example of erythema multiforme
48
Atrophy and skin as thin as cigarette paper
Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans
49
Tetracyclin drug that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to and interfering with ribosomes; blocks translation
Doxycyclin
50
Cell wall inhibitors A. Doxycycline B. Penicillins, cephalosporins C. Folate inhibitors D. Quinolones
B.
51
Protein synthesis inhibitors A. Doxycycline B. Penicillins, cephalosporins C. Folate inhibitors D. Quinolones
A. | Act on the ribosomes to inhibit translation
52
DNA synthesis inhibitors A. Doxycycline B. Penicillins, cephalosporins C. Folate inhibitors D. Quinolones
D. | DNA topoisomerase II-gyrase
53
Metabolic inhibitors A. Doxycycline B. Penicillins, cephalosporins C. Folate inhibitors D. Quinolones
C.
54
Prokaryotic ribosomes A. 60s and 40s B. 50s and 30s
B. | 100 femtoseconds 1s 10 ^-13
55
Anti 30S drug, inhibits initiation and prematurely stops translation ``` A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolides and lincosamides D. Linezolid E. Chloramphenicol ```
A.
56
Prevents binding of aminoacyltRNA ``` A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolides and lincosamides D. Linezolid E. Chloramphenicol ```
B.
57
Anti-50S drug than inhibits translocation ``` A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolides and lincosamides D. Linezolid E. Chloramphenicol ```
C. Macrolides- erythromycin Lincosamides- clindamycin
58
Inhibits peptidyl transferase ``` A. Aminoglycosides B. Tetracyclines C. Macrolides and lincosamides D. Linezolid E. Chloramphenicol ```
E. @mitochondria
59
Inhibits 1st step/initiation
Linezolid
60
What is the problem in genetic model of CRC?
Allelic loss via APC tumor suppressor gene
61
KRAS is an example of?
Oncogene
62
What is the main target in the treatment for cancer?
Telomeres, by the enzyme telomerase

Biochemistry (6 decks)

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