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Biochemistry > Cinical Integrations > Flashcards

Cinical Integrations Flashcards

0
Q

Architectural type of neoplastic polyps that has the highest risk for colorectal adenocarcinoma.

A. Tubular adenomas
B. Villous adenomas
C. Tubulovillous adenomas

A

B. Villous

Larger and sessile polyps covered by slender villi

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1
Q

Most common and clinically important neoplastic polyps

A

Colonic adenomas; characterized by presence of epithelial dysplasia

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2
Q

Mutation of this tumor suppressor gene that results to autosomal dominant disorder

A

APC gene- important in activation of oncogene c-myc and cyclin D1 that drives the progression to malignant phenotype

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3
Q

Disease assoc. with polyps: intestinal polyps and osteomas of mandible, skull and long bones

A. Gardner syndrome
B. Turcot sundrome

A

A.

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4
Q

Intestinal adenomas and tumors of the central nervous system

A. Gardner syndrome
B. Turcot sundrome

A

B.

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5
Q

Due to mismatch repair deficiency and microsatellite instability

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer aka Lynch syndrome

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6
Q

Colorectal cancer is due to

A. Low intake of unabsorbable vegetable fiber
B. High intake of refined carbohydrates and fats
C. Both

A

C.

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7
Q

Percentage of colorectal cancers that initially develop because of defective function of the DNA mismatch repair system

A

15%

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8
Q

Responsible for their characteristic firm consistency

A

Desmoplastic response

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9
Q

Most common site of metastasis

A

Liver

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10
Q

Often presents with fatigue and weakness due to IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA

A. Right sided CRC
B. Left sided CRC

A

A.

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11
Q

Often presents with occult bleeding, CHANGES IN BOWEL HABITS, or cramping left lower quadrant discomfort

A. Right sided CRC
B. Left sided CRC

A

B.

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12
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to defective________ protein leading to abnormal chloride transport

A. CFTR
B. BRFT

A

A. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane regulator

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13
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to a deletion of three specific base pairs at the ______ position of the said gene

A. F567
B. F508

A

B.

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14
Q

Enzymes that recognize the specific double-stranded DNA sequences and cleave the DNA at or near the recognition site

A

Restriction enzymes; usually recognizes PALINDROMES

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15
Q

Library screening is performed by

A. Nucleic acid hybridization
B. Nucleic acid proliferation

A

A.

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16
Q

An enzyme amplification of a fragment of DNA located between oligonucleotide primers

A

PCR

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17
Q

Specificity to bind protein molecule

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

C.

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18
Q

Specificity that have sequences to the target RNA

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

A.

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19
Q

Specificity that have sequences complimentary to DNA

A. Northern blot
B. Southern blot
C. Western blot

A

B.

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20
Q

True or false: CD4 count of <200 is indicative if AIDS

A

True. Normal CD4 count is >500

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21
Q

What familial classification does HIV belongs to

A

Retroviridae

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22
Q

HIV 2 is seen in _____ more related to SIV 2

A

Sootey mangabeys

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23
Q

Converts single stranded RNA viral genome into double-stranded RNA viral DNA

A

Reverse transcriptase

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24
Q

Problem in HIV

A. Translation
B. Transcription

A

B.

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25
Q

Reverse transcription occurs in

A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm

A

B.

26
Q

Enzyme responsible for the incorporation of DNA into the host cell

A

Integrase enzyme ; retroviral DNA is referred to as provirus

27
Q

Generic material in HIV

A. RNA
B. DNA

A

A.

28
Q

Codes for capsid protein, matrix protein, nucleocapsid protein

A. Gag
B. Pol
C. Env

A

A. Gag

Major protein

29
Q

Codes for reverse transcriptase, protease, integrase, and ribonuclease

A. Gag
B. Pol
C. Env

A

B. Pol

2nd major

30
Q

Codes for envelope glycoproteins

A. Gag
B. Pol
C. Env

A

C. Env
Surface protein-gp120
Transmembrane proteins-gp41

31
Q

At the 5’end of viral RNA is a unique sequence U5, which is for

A. Initiation and integration of viral DNA
B. Control of transcription

A

A.

Also control RNA’ binding temperature; 5’end of viral RNA synthesized from proviral DNA has a methylated cap

32
Q

At the 3’end of the viral RNA, is the nucleotide sequence U3, which is for

A. Initiation and integration of viral DNA
B. Control of transcription

A

B.

3’end has polyA tail

33
Q

True or false: LTR contains enhancer and promoter regions of HIV.

A

True

34
Q

Regulatory proteins that are responsible for switching early to late HIV gene located in the 3’end of env gene

A

Nef(negative factor)
tat(transactivator of transcription)
rev(regulator of viral gene expresion)

35
Q

Test for detection of HIV-1 p24 antigen, antibodies to HIV-1 and HIV-2

A

Rapid HIV test

36
Q

Often described as “worst flu ever” or primary HIV infection

A. Early stage
B. Clinical latency stage
C. AIDS

A

A.

37
Q

Asymptomatic HIV infection of chronic HIV infection

A. Early stage
B. Clinical latency stage
C. AIDS

A

B.

38
Q

Management in HIV that terminates elongation process

A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors

A

A.

Ends in - vudine (zidovudine, stavudine etc.)

39
Q

Binds to active site induces conformational change and inhibiting enzyme function

A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors

A

B.

Delaviridine, nevirapine, efavirenz

40
Q

Inhibits HIV protease which activates precursors of gag-pol

A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors
C. Protease inhibitors

A

C.

Ends in -navir

41
Q

2 reverse transcriptase inhibitor, 1 protease inhibitor

A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. Nonnucleoside inhibitors
C. HAART

A

C. Highly active antiretroviral therapy

42
Q

Also known as the BERLIN PATIENT

A

Timothy brown

43
Q

What causes lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi; vector-tick ixodes

44
Q

Classification of bacteria under spirochete

A

LTB; leptospira, treponema, borrelia

45
Q

Culture medium for B.burgdorferi

A

Barbour-stoener-kelly medium; 33 degrees darkfield

46
Q

Animal reservoirs in B.burgdorferi

A

White footed mouse
White tailed deer

Bite from deer tick ixodes scapularis

47
Q

Pathognomonic lession in Lyme disease

A

Erythema migrans- characteristic expanding rash at the site of the tick bite 7-14 days after the rick is removed; example of erythema multiforme

48
Q

Atrophy and skin as thin as cigarette paper

A

Acrodermatitis chronicum atrophicans

49
Q

Tetracyclin drug that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to and interfering with ribosomes; blocks translation

A

Doxycyclin

50
Q

Cell wall inhibitors

A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillins, cephalosporins
C. Folate inhibitors
D. Quinolones

A

B.

51
Q

Protein synthesis inhibitors

A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillins, cephalosporins
C. Folate inhibitors
D. Quinolones

A

A.

Act on the ribosomes to inhibit translation

52
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors

A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillins, cephalosporins
C. Folate inhibitors
D. Quinolones

A

D.

DNA topoisomerase II-gyrase

53
Q

Metabolic inhibitors

A. Doxycycline
B. Penicillins, cephalosporins
C. Folate inhibitors
D. Quinolones

A

C.

54
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes

A. 60s and 40s
B. 50s and 30s

A

B.

100 femtoseconds 1s 10 ^-13

55
Q

Anti 30S drug, inhibits initiation and prematurely stops translation

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides and lincosamides
D. Linezolid
E. Chloramphenicol
A

A.

56
Q

Prevents binding of aminoacyltRNA

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides and lincosamides
D. Linezolid
E. Chloramphenicol
A

B.

57
Q

Anti-50S drug than inhibits translocation

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides and lincosamides
D. Linezolid
E. Chloramphenicol
A

C.
Macrolides- erythromycin
Lincosamides- clindamycin

58
Q

Inhibits peptidyl transferase

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides and lincosamides
D. Linezolid
E. Chloramphenicol
A

E. @mitochondria

59
Q

Inhibits 1st step/initiation

A

Linezolid

60
Q

What is the problem in genetic model of CRC?

A

Allelic loss via APC tumor suppressor gene

61
Q

KRAS is an example of?

A

Oncogene

62
Q

What is the main target in the treatment for cancer?

A

Telomeres, by the enzyme telomerase

Biochemistry (6 decks)

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