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124 > CHPT 1-6 > Flashcards

CHPT 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

microbiology def

A

study of microrganisms aka microbes

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2
Q

what does ‘micro’ really mean

A
  • m : microscopic
  • I: independent
  • c: complex
  • r: rapid growth rates
  • o: omnipresent (almost everywhere)
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3
Q

prokaryotes meaning

A

before nucleus

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4
Q

free floating DNA in a form of nucleiod is which type of microbe

A

prokaryotes

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5
Q

which type of microbe has one circular DNA molecule

A

prokaryotes

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6
Q

do prokaryotes have organelles

A

only have ribosomes!

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7
Q

which microbe has a complex cell wall

A

prokaryotes

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8
Q

how is the cell wall in prokaryotes damaged

A

antibiotics (penicillin)

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9
Q

peptidoglycan (carbohydrate x protein) makes up ___ in prokaryotes

A

cell wall

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10
Q

what type of cell division occurs in prokaryotes

A

simple

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11
Q

which type of microbe is known as the true nucleus

A

eukaryote

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12
Q

where is the DNA in eukaryote

A

nucleus (in chromosomes)

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13
Q

which eukaryote have several organelles

A

eukaryote

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14
Q

what is the cell wall made of in eukaryote microbes

A
  • made of sugar
  • little to no peptidoglycan
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15
Q

mitosis and meiosis occurs in which type of microbe

A

eukaryote

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16
Q

antibiotic- resistant infections are due to

A
  • random mutation
  • overuse + misuse
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17
Q

what name is capitalized when naming and classifying microbes

A

genus

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18
Q

specific epithet (2nd name) is

A

lower case

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19
Q

emerging infectious diseases are

A

new diseases that changing and have a potential to increase

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20
Q

zika virus disease (2015) is spread by

A

mosquitos

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21
Q

what disease causes fetal defects

A

zika virus disease

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22
Q

example of prokaryote

A

bacteria

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23
Q

archaea and eubacteria are examples of

A

bacteria

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24
Q

which type of bacteria is archaea

A
  • ancient
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25
Q

archaea live in __

A

extreme environmental conditions

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26
Q

which type of bacteria’s cell walls don’t have peptioglycan

A

archaea

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27
Q

which bacteria never cause disease

A

archaea

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28
Q

eubacteria is

A

true bacteria that causes disease

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29
Q

examples of eurkaryote

A
  • fungus
  • algae
  • protozoa
  • viruses
  • parasites
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30
Q

fungus structure is

A

unicellular or multicellular

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31
Q

does photosynthesis occur in fungus

A

no

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32
Q

malaria is an example of which eurokarytoe

A

protozoa

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33
Q

how do protozoa live?

A

free or as parasites (invade cells)

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34
Q

what eurkaryote are intracellular parasites

A

viruses

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35
Q

examples of viruses

A
  • HIV
  • Hepatitis
  • Herpes
  • Skin viruses (measles)
  • SARs, MERs, coronavirus
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36
Q

who disapproved theory of spontaneous generation

A

Louis Pasteur

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37
Q

fermentation

A

yeast involvement

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38
Q

what is an example of fermentation

A

yogurt and bread

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39
Q

what process involves heating things to avoid spoilage

A

pasteurization

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40
Q

germ theory of life

A

specific microbes might cause specific disease

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41
Q

a sequences of experimental steps for directly relating a specific microbe to a specific disease (diagnosis)

A

kochs postulates

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42
Q

who proved that bacterium causes anthrax

A

Robert koch

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43
Q

bacillus anthracis causes and was caused during 9/11

A

anthrax

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44
Q

Edward jenner formulated

A

vaccines using cow pox

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45
Q

immunity is known as

A

protection from disease by vaccination or recovery

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46
Q

proteins are

A

organic molecules that contain C, H, O, N, and S

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47
Q

what is essential in cell structure and function

A

proteins

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48
Q

denaturation is

A

the disruption of protein structures

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49
Q

fundamental building blocks of proteins is

A

amino acids

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50
Q

how many universal a.a are there?

A

20

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51
Q

what makes a.a universal

A

R side group

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52
Q

how many groups do a.a have

A

4 groups

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53
Q

how to form proteins

A

combining -ooh group of one and -h group of another and removing water

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54
Q

dehydration synthesis is

A

removing water

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55
Q

what is a bond b/w a.a called?

A

peptide bond

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56
Q

pleating or spiral of single chain is

A

the primary structure

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57
Q

which structure is 3D

A

a tertiary structure

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58
Q

examples of quaternary structure are

A

Hb and collagen

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59
Q

DNA is

A

genetic blueprint, that is made of nucleotides

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60
Q

DNA structure

A

double helix

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61
Q

a base, sugar, and phosphate make up

A

nucleotides

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62
Q

base = is made of

A

purine and pyrimidine

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63
Q

Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) make up

A

purine

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64
Q

Pyrimidine is consists of

A

Thymine (T) and Cytosine (C) and Uracil (U)

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65
Q

where is Uracil found

A

in RNA only (replaces T)

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66
Q

purine structure

A

double hexagons

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67
Q

what is deoxyribose

A
  • O2 is removed from sugar’s second C molecule
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68
Q

which C on the sugar molecule in DNA loses O to form deoxyribose

A

2nd C

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69
Q

how do you count the C on deoxyribose

A

clockwise

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70
Q

phosphate in DNAs charge

A

negative charge

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71
Q

what does the phosphate DNA not have

A

C and is inorganic

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72
Q

what has complete ribose sugar

A

RNA

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73
Q

does RNA have T?

A

no its replaced with U

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74
Q

what are the three types of RNA

A

mRNA, and tRNA, and rRNA

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75
Q

function of the three types of RNAs is

A

protein synthesis

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76
Q

colouring microbes w/ dyes that emphasize certain structures is known as

A

staining

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77
Q

chormophore of stain is

A

salts composed of + and - ions, one is coloured

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78
Q

preparing colourless bacteria against a coloured background

A

negative staining

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79
Q

what allows observing cell shape, sizes and capsules

A

negative staining

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80
Q

when are acidic dyes used

A

in anion (-)

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81
Q

which type of dye is more commonly used

A

basic dye

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82
Q

cation (+) use

A

basic dye

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83
Q

compound light microscope

A

has lenses and uses visible light as its source of illumination

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84
Q

light source is known as

A

illuminator

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85
Q

lenses the light rays pass through is known as

A

condenser

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86
Q

resolution is

A

ability of the lenses to distinguish fine details and structures

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87
Q

measure of the light- bending ability of a medium

A

refractive index

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88
Q

differential stains =

A
  • gram stain
  • acid-fast stain
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89
Q

which stain uses a single basic dye

A

simple stain

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90
Q

function of mordant

A
  • intensifies a basic dye
  • holds the stains and coats the specimen to enlarge it
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91
Q

can mordant be used with heat

A

no

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92
Q

what are simple stains good for

A

shape, arrangement, size of specimen

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93
Q

differentital stains function

A

distinguishes b/w bacteria

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94
Q

what are the differential types of staining ?

A
  • gram stain
  • acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen)
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95
Q

which type of differential staining has 4 steps

A

gram stains

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96
Q

how many steps are in acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen) staining `

A

3

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97
Q

what is the function of gram stains

A

classifies bacteria into G + or G -

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98
Q

how long does gram staining take?

A

less than 5 mins

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99
Q

1rst step in in gram stains is

A

using primary basic stain

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100
Q

when is crystal violet used

A

first step of gram staining.

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101
Q

when and why is mordant added in gram staining

A

2nd step to intensify purple

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102
Q

function of decoloring agent in gram staining

A

removes purple from G - species

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103
Q

3rd step in gram staining is

A
  • adding a decoloring agent (95% ethanol or alcohol-acetone)
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104
Q

at which step is a counterstain added in gram staining

A

4th

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105
Q

which counterstain is used in gram staining

A

safranin (red)

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106
Q

what type of cell losing its purple colour during step 3 of gram staining

A

G -

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107
Q

Gram + cell colour after gram stain

A

purple

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108
Q

Gram - cell colour after gram stain

A

red/ pink

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109
Q

which differential stain takes 10-15 and why

A

acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen), and because of heating

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110
Q

which differential stain detects TB and leprosy (mycobacteria)

A

acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen)

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111
Q

when is carbolfuchsin (red) used

A

first step of acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen) and flagella staining

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112
Q

2nd step of acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen) consists of

A

decolorizing alcohol agent

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113
Q

what counterstain (step 3) is used in acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen)

A

methylene blue

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114
Q

what are G + cells that experience acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen) staining

A

TB cells or leprosy cells

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115
Q

when are G - cells blue

A

acid-fast (zeihl-neelsen)

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116
Q

what leaves G - cells colourless

A

decolonizing agent

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117
Q

colour of tb cells and leprosy

A

red

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118
Q

what type of stains colours parts of microbes (endospore, flagella or capsule)

A

special stains

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119
Q

what is a capulse

A

gelatinous covering of bacteria

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120
Q

what type of special stain colours the background and to the cells

A

capsule stain

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121
Q

first step of capsule stain

A

-acidic stain (India ink or nigrosin)

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122
Q

function of acidic stain

A

colour background

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123
Q

india ink and nigrosin are examples of

A

acidic stains

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124
Q

water wash functions as the

A

second step in capsules staining
- takes away extra stain

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125
Q

step 3 of capsule stain

A

use basic simple stain

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126
Q

what is the end result of a capsule stain

A

dark background, colourless cells, red bacterum

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127
Q

does the capsule pick up the stain

A

no, it forms a halo

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128
Q

when is malachite green/ primary basic stain used

A

first step of endospore (Schaefer-fulton)

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129
Q

how does malachite green stain

A

with 5 mins of heating

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130
Q

step 2 of endospore (Schaefer-fulton) stain is and function

A

water wash
- takes away from the rest of the cell

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131
Q

third step of endospore (Schaefer-fulton) stain is

A

counterstain with saphrine

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132
Q

green endospores and red cells are the result of

A

endospore (Schaefer-fulton) staining

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133
Q

how do G + not lose the OG staining colour for gram staining ?

A

iodine (mordant) can’t leave the cell, it is too big

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134
Q

what are the different shapes of prokaryotes?

A
  • spiral
  • bacillus
  • coccus
  • coccobacillius
  • pleomorphic
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135
Q

different spiral shapes are

A
  • vibrio
  • spirllium
  • spirochete
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136
Q

curved rod is

A

vibrio

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137
Q

vibrio choleras shape is

A

vibrio- spiral

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138
Q

what causes watery, explosive diarrhea

A

vibrio choleras

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139
Q

spirillum structure is

A

rigid lil worm

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140
Q

thin flexible structure that moves with a flagella that curves around the body is

A

spirochete

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141
Q

which prokaryote shape can be used a scientific name or to describe a shape

A

bacillus

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142
Q

bacillus antharics structure is

A

single bacillus

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143
Q

diplobacilli are

A

bacillus dividing and sticking

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144
Q

a chain of bacillus aka

A

streptobacilli

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145
Q

structure of coccus

A

berry shapes; usually round, but can be oval, elongates or flat on one side

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146
Q

what is a single chain of cocci known as

A

streptococci

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147
Q

example of streptococci

A

streptococcus pyogensis aka strep throat

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148
Q

staphylococcus structure

A

a cluster of cocci

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149
Q

staphylococcus aureus causes

A
  • skin infections (stye)
  • Toxic shock syndrome
  • food poisoning
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150
Q

structures of prokaryotes

A
  • glycocalyx (capsule)
    -flagellla
  • fimbriae and pili
  • axial filaments
  • cell wall
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151
Q

what is the sugar coating on prokaryote

A

glycocalyx (capsule)

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152
Q

what is glycocalyx (capsule) made of

A

proteins + carbohydrates or just proteins

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153
Q

location of glycocalyx (capsule)

A

outside cell wall

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154
Q

when is glycocalyx (capsule) describes as smile layer

A

if the substance is unorganized and loosely attached

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155
Q

what helps cells in a biofilm attach to their target environment

A

extracellular polymeric substance

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156
Q

functions of glycocalyx (capsule)

A
  • invade immune sys
  • attach to human cells (cuz of stickiness)
  • increase virulence (diseases causing capacity)
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157
Q

does glycocalyx (capsule) allow phagocytosis

A

no

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158
Q

what causes streptococcus mutants (cavity)

A

the stickiness the glycocalyx (capsule) have
- attracts sugar

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159
Q

what is virulence

A

diseases causing capacity

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160
Q

when does streptococcus pneumoniae cause pneumonia

A

only when it is covered by a capsule

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161
Q

what prokaryote structure allow bacterium movement

A

flagella

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162
Q

flagella structure

A

made of proteins
- filament
- hook
- basal body

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163
Q

filament structure

A
  • hollow, tube like
  • contain flagellin
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164
Q

what part of the flagella is stained

A
  • filament
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165
Q

which flagella structure is wider

A

hook

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166
Q

hook function

A
  • area where filament sits/ anchors filament to cell wall and plasma membrane
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167
Q

which filament structure is deep in the bacteria

A

basal body

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168
Q

2 screws or 2 pairs of the basal body can be found in

A

G - cells

169
Q

which pair of the basal body is present in gram + cells

A

inner pair

170
Q

inner pair of a basal body (G -) attaches to

A

plasma membrane

171
Q

which pair of the basal body for G - cells attaches to the cell wall

A

outer pair

172
Q

when a bacteria does not have a flagella it is called

A

atrichous

173
Q

single wip is aka

A

monotrichous and polar

174
Q

flagella is aka

A

a wip

175
Q

amphitrichous and polar is

A

a wip on both sides of a Bacteria

176
Q

a bundle of flagella on one side is known as

A

lophotrikhous and polar

177
Q

peritrichous =

A

non polar
and flagella all around

178
Q

what allows bacteria to move in a cork screw movement

A

axial filament aka endoflagela

179
Q

what prevents spyhilis from touching the environment

A
  • outershealth on axial filament aka endoflagela
180
Q

which bacteria shape is axial filament aka endoflagela found on

A
  • spirochete
  • anchored at one end of a cell
181
Q

function of frimbriae

A

allows attachment

182
Q

what prokaryote structure transfers DNA between cells

A

pili (sex pili)

183
Q

what is formed between 2 bacterial cells

A

a bridge / pili

184
Q

structure of fimbriae

A

short and numerous

185
Q

what bacertium has frimbriae that allow attachment to genital

A

neisseria gonorrhoea

186
Q

what type of cells have Many frimbaie

A

G - cells

187
Q

what causes antibiotic resistance in escheria coli

A

pili

188
Q

problems in the GI tract are caused by

A

escheria coli (colon) (G - )

189
Q

how do bacteria move?

A

running; if they hit smt, they will change direction (tumble)

190
Q

what is taxis

A

movement of bacterium toward or away from stimuli

191
Q

example of stimuli for bacteria

A

chemical (chemotaxis), light (phototaxis), O2, ribose and glucose

192
Q

bacterium moving toward stimuli is known as

A

+ chemotactic signal called attractant

193
Q
  • chemotactic signal called repellant is
A

bacterium moving away from stimulus

194
Q

what is the cell wall of a prokaryote made of

A

peptidogylcan aka murrain

195
Q

function of the protein part of peptidogylcan

A
  • hold cell wall tat
  • tetrapeptide
196
Q

how does one kill a bacteria cell using antibiotics

A

breaking apart the protein

197
Q

what are two types glucose in peptidogylcan

A

N-acetylglucosamine acid (NAG)
N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM)

198
Q

cell wall functions

A
  • anchorage for flagella
  • contributes to the ability of some species to cause disease
  • site of action for some antibiotics
199
Q

what does the gram + cell consist of

A
  • many layers of PG
  • teichoicacid
200
Q

what provides much of the walls of G + cells antigenic specificity

A

teichoicacid

201
Q

structure of teichoicacid

A
  • large organic acid
  • alcohol
  • phosphate (PO4-)
202
Q

what is the alcohol component of G + cell wall

A
  • ribitol (long)
  • glycerol (simple)
203
Q

what are the two types of teichoic acid in the G + cell wall

A
  • wall teichoic acid (short)
  • lipo teichoic acid (long)
204
Q

what type of teichoicacid is linked to PG and doesn’t leave the cell wall (G + cells)

A

wall teichoic acid (short)

205
Q

location of lipo teichoic acid (long) in G + cells

A

linked to plasma membrane

206
Q

function teichoic acids

A
  • allow recogniziton of bacteria in a lab
  • draw in + ions, like Ca2+
  • cel growth?
207
Q

which G cell has 1-2 layers of PG and an outermsmbrane and an phospholipid bi-layer

A

Gram -

208
Q

function of outer membrane in G - cells

A
  • act as barrier to detergents, heavy metals, bile salts, certain dyes, antibiotics
209
Q

what kind of charge does the G - cell wall have + function

A
  • strong negative charge that evades phagocytosis
210
Q
  • lipoproteins
  • porin channels
  • lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
    make up the phospholipid bi-layer cell wall in what type of bacterial cell
A

G -

211
Q

function of lipoprotein

A

anchor

212
Q

which phospholipid bi-layer in G - cell act as channels and allow nucleotides, peptides, amino acids, B12 and Fe through

A

porin

213
Q

what is gel like fluid b/w outer membrane and plasma membrane

A

periplasm

214
Q

break down of lipopolysaccharides (LPS) in g -

A

lipo = lipid A
o-poly
Core polysaccharide

215
Q

lipid A aka endotoxin function in G - cell wall

A
  • release poison to harm when bacteria die
  • cause fever, endotoxin shock, clotting
  • diarrhea and vomiting
216
Q

what is attached to lipid A in G - cell wall

A

Core polysaccharide (unusal sugar)

217
Q

which component of LPS functions as an antigen

A

o-poly

218
Q

function of periplasm

A
  • contains degradative enzymes
  • transport proteins
219
Q

example of atypical cell walls

A
  • acid-fast cell walls
  • mycoplasma
  • archaea
220
Q

acid fast cells walls are found in which species

A

myobacterium

221
Q

examples of mycobacterium

A
  • mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • myobacterium leprae
222
Q

what is bound to PG in acid-fast cell walls

A
  • waxy, lipid extra layer of mycolic acid
223
Q

can antibiotics penetrate mycolic acid ?

A

no

224
Q

how long is the treatment for tb

A

9 months

225
Q

which myobacterium treatment is 2 years

A

myobacterium leprae

226
Q

which atypical cell wall has no cell wall and only plasma membrane with sterols

A

mycoplasma

227
Q

function of sterols in plasma membrane

A

prevents lysis (rupture)

228
Q

pleomorphic meaning

A

bacterium with many shapes

229
Q

example of pleomorphic bacteria

A

mycoplasma

230
Q

smallest bacteria that can grow and reproduce outside living host cells

A

mycoplasma

231
Q

example of mycoplasma

A

mycoplasma hypopnemonia

232
Q

archaea structure

A

no cell wall or PG
- pseudomurien

233
Q

what atypical cell well cell can’t be stained but appears as G -

A

archaea

234
Q

what causes damage to prokaryote bacteria cell wall

A

lysozymes

235
Q

where are lysozymes found?

A
  • tears
  • saliva
  • mucus
  • lots in breastmilk
236
Q

where are lysozymes more active and why

A
  • cell wall of G + cells
  • vulnerable to lysis
237
Q

what destroys the glycan portions of PG and removes the cell wall

A

lysozymes

238
Q

what is a G + called after lysozymes destroy the cell wall

A

protoplast

239
Q

spheroplasts =

A

G - with somewhat of an destroyed cell wall

240
Q

what forms after loss of cell wall and irregular swelling

A

L forms

241
Q

what may form spontaneously or develop in responser to penicillin

A

L forms

242
Q

FUNCTION of penicillin

A
  • inhibit peptide bridges in PG or lysozymes
  • inhibit cell wall formation
243
Q

what time of cells respond better to penicillin

A

G +

244
Q

what structures of a bacteria function the same as human cell structures

A
  • plasma membrane
  • ribosomes
  • movement of materials
  • cytoplasms
245
Q

what does the G - outermsmbrane look like

A

plasma membrane of eurkaryotes and prokaryotes

246
Q

what plasma membrane structure of prokaryotes is responsible for
- breakdown of nurteins
- productions of E

A

chromatophores

247
Q

structure of plasma membrane - prokaryotes

A
  • phospholipid bilayer
  • peripheral proteins
  • intergral proteins
  • NO STEROLS (LESS RIGID)
  • glycoproteins
  • glycolipids
248
Q

function of - glycoproteins
- glycolipids in plasma mem

A
  • lubricate and protect the cell
249
Q

what types of proteins in the plasma membrane function as enzymes

A

peripheral proteins

250
Q

function of integral proteins aka transmembrane proteins

A

may act as channels

251
Q

which proteins may get removed after disruption in lipid layer

A

intergral proteins

252
Q

mesomes

A
  • large irregular folds of bacterial plasma
253
Q

alcohols, ammonium (disinfectants), antibiotics cause damage to

A

plasma membrane - prokaryotes

254
Q

extracellular enzymes function

A

breakdown of needed molecules to allow them to pass through

255
Q

hypotonic solution has

A

water into the cell
- lysis may occur

256
Q

which type of solution has water moving out of the cell and may experience shrinking

A

HYPERTONIC

257
Q

example of active transport in prokaryotes is

A

group translocation

258
Q

what is group translocation

A
  • substance is chemically altered during transport across membrane
  • substance remains inside
259
Q

what occupies 20% of cell in prokaryotes

A

nucleotide/ bacterial chromosomes with no histones

260
Q

what type of microbes have small ribosomes (70s)

A

PROKARYoyte

261
Q

function of cytoskeleton in prokaryote

A
  • cell division/ growth/ alignment of organelles
  • protein targeting
  • maintaining cell shape
262
Q

what is sporulation

A

how endospores are made

263
Q

resting cells formed when there is a depletion of essential nutrients for bacteria is known as

A

ENDOSPORES

264
Q

what causes endospores to survive for a long time?

A

stickyness/ them sticking to everything
- resistance to heat, chemicals and radiation

265
Q

what is G + genus that is an example of endospores

A

clostridium and bacillus

266
Q

coxiella burnetti is a G __ example of endospore

A

G -

267
Q

what causes pneumonia after germinating in lungs and Q fever

A

coxiella burnett

268
Q

bacillus anthracis a G + ___

A

endospore

269
Q

species name of clostridium endospores

A
  • tetani
  • perfrigens
  • botulinum
  • difficile (C-diff)
270
Q

what G + endospore affects diabetic pts

A

clostridium perfrigens

271
Q

sever food poisoning is

A

clostridium botulinum

272
Q

how does clostridium botulinum occurs

A

it can survive boiling temp

273
Q

newly replicated bacteria and little cytoplasm isolated in spore septum is __

A

the first observable stage of sporulation

274
Q

spore septum is

A

the ingrowth of plasma membrane

275
Q

entirely enclosed within OG cell is known as

A

forespore

276
Q

spore coat is

A

protein formed around the outside membrane

277
Q

resistance of endospores to chemicals is known as

A

spore coat

278
Q

what is gone near the end of sporulation

A

water

279
Q

what wants to keep the spore alive by provides heat and chemical resistance and allows differentiation and is only in endospores

A

dipicolic acid (DPA)

280
Q

germination is

A

endospores awakening triggered by increased heat

281
Q

metabolism is

A

the sum total of all chemical runs happening in cell

282
Q

anabolism is

A

using energy to make molecules

283
Q

when is a dehydration reaction used

A

anabolism

284
Q

endergonic rxn is

A

using E in anabolism to make molecules

285
Q

anabolism is aka

A

biosynthesis

286
Q

degradative process of breaking materials and releasing energy is known as

A

catabolism

287
Q

exergonic is

A

releasing energy (catabolism)

288
Q

what is the building block for anabolic rxns

A

catabolism

289
Q

ADP + P1 + energy =

A

ATP/ catobolic / ATP release

290
Q

amount of E needed to disrupt the stable molecule is known as

A

activation E

291
Q

reaction rate is

A

the frequency of collision containing sufficient tE to bring about a rxn

292
Q

what are biological catalysts called in living cells

A

enzymes

293
Q

function of enzymes

A
  • lower activation to speed up the rxns
294
Q

region of enzyme that comes in contact with substrate

A

active site

295
Q

turnover number is

A

max number of substrate molecules an enzyme converts/ turns into products

296
Q

what are the two types of enzymes called

A
  • simple
  • conjugate
297
Q

holoenzyme are composed of

A
  • apoenzymes
  • cofactors
298
Q

conjugate enzymes can be made of

A
  • apoenzymes
    or
  • cofactors
299
Q

what types of enzymes are proteins

A

apoenzymes

300
Q

what makes apoenzymes activate

A

joining of cofactor

301
Q

cofactors structure

A
  • non protein
  • organic and inorganic molecules
302
Q

function of cofactor

A

may help enzyme and substrate join

303
Q

organic molecules of cofactors are aka

A

coenzymes

304
Q

VIT B is an example of

A

a coenzyme

305
Q

examples of VIT B

A
  • NAD
  • FAD
  • FMN
  • CoA
  • CoQ
306
Q
  • glucose catabolism
  • carry e- and p+
  • get from diet
    describes…
A

VIt B

307
Q

what vit b is derived from niacin (niothic acid)

A

NAD

308
Q

FMN and FAD are derived from

A

vit b riboflavin

309
Q

what is pathoetheic acid made of

A

CoA

310
Q

what factors influence enzymatic activity

A
  • temperature
  • pH
  • substrate concentration
  • inhibitors
311
Q

when does denaturation of enzymes occur

A

when to goes beyond the optimal temp

312
Q

what changes the active site of enzymes

A

denaturation

313
Q

concentrated acids, bases, heavy-metal ions, alcohol, and UV radiation are cause

A

`denaturation

314
Q

high substate concentration is known as

A

saturation

315
Q

when is max rate obtained

A

when the concentration of substrate is high
(more than that, it won’t do anything)

316
Q

what are the two types of inhibitors

A

competitive or non-competive

317
Q

what type of inhibitor fills the active sire of an enzyme and competes with normal substrate for active site

A

competitive

318
Q

how to overcome function of competitive inhibitor

A

increase substrate

319
Q

what nutrient is used in synthesis of folic acid (coenzyme)

A
  • PABA
320
Q

where does a noncompetitive inhibitor interact

A

alloesteric site

321
Q

function of noncompetitive inhibitor

A

cause active site to change shape so it becomes nonfunctional

322
Q

what is enzyme poison and causes terminate inactivation of enzymes

A
  • cyanide
  • fluoride
    noncompetitive inhibitors
323
Q

function of sulphanilamide

A
  • makes sure bacteria doesn’t make DNA or RNA
324
Q

what process shuts down enzyme activity

A

feed back inhibition

325
Q

what inhibits e coli

A

isoleucine inhibits first enzymes

326
Q

function of ribozyme

A
  • catalysts
  • type of RNA
327
Q

breakdown of carbohydrate molecules to produce E is known as

A

carbohydrate catabolism

328
Q

how many steps are in glycolysis

A

10 steps `

329
Q

at which step of glycolysis is 2 ATP used at steps 1 and 3 for glucose breakdown

A

preparatory stage

330
Q

how many ATP and NADH are produced at steps during energy conversing stage

A

4 ATP steps produced at steps 7 and 10
2 NADH produced at step 6

331
Q

intermediate step of carbohydrate catabolism is

A

pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA

332
Q

series of carrier molecules that are oxidized and reduced as e- pass is

A

the electron transport chain

333
Q

removal of e- is known as

A

oxidation and dehydrogenation

334
Q

reduction rxn and hydrogenation is

A

gaining e-

335
Q

adding phosphate to ADP is known as

A

phosphorylation

336
Q

three types of phosphorylation

A
  • substrate level addition to P
  • oxidative phosphorylation
  • photophosphorylation
337
Q

what type of reaction does oxidative phosphorylation use

A
  • redox rxn
338
Q

what is the final molecule the e-s are transferred to in oxidative phosphorylation

A

oxygen

339
Q

atp synthesis using ETC that involves oxidative phosphorylation is

A

chemioosmosis

340
Q

which carbohydrate catabolism occurs in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes

A
  • glycolysis
  • intermediate step
  • Krebs cycle
341
Q

where does etc occur in prokaryotes

A

plasma membrane

342
Q

final acceptor for aerobic respiration is

A

oxygen

343
Q

organic molecules act as a final e- acceptor in

A

fermentation

344
Q

when is pyretic acid reduced by 2 NADH to produce lactic acid

A

lactic acid fermentation

345
Q

alcohol fermentation steps

A

2 pyruivc acids into 2 acetaldehyde into 2 ethanol

346
Q

pyschrophites =

A

cold moving microbes

347
Q

pyschrophiles break down to

A
  • true
  • facultative/ psychotropes
348
Q

which type of pyschrophites love the cold and the optimal is 15C

A

true

349
Q

what temp can facultative/ psychotropes grow at

A

0C

350
Q

opitmal temp for facultative/ psychotropes

A

20-30C

351
Q

what microbe can’t grow around 40C

A

facultative/ psychotropes

352
Q

which microbes have an optimal range of 37C but can’t grow around 50C

A

mesophiles

353
Q

which catergory do most pathogens belong in

A

mesophiles

354
Q

thermophiles optimal temp is

A

50-60C

355
Q

hypertermophiles can grow till

A

110C

356
Q

what factors can influence growth

A
  • temp
  • pH
  • osmotic pressure
  • chemical factor
357
Q

what prokaryote prefers a pH of 6.5-7.5

A

bacteria

358
Q

molds preferred pH is

A

5-6`

359
Q

plasmolysis is

A

osmotic loss of water or shrinkage of cell cytoplasm

360
Q

extreme halophiles aka obligate halophiles

A

adapted to high salt concentrations that they require them for growth

361
Q

needed O2 to produce around 38 ATP from 1 glucose with good growth rates is known as

A

obligate aerobes

362
Q

can obligate anaerobe use O2?

A

no

363
Q

which species use obligate anaerobe

A

clostridium

364
Q

which type of bacteria tolerate O2 and can’t use it

A

aerotolerant fermatitive

365
Q

facultative anaerobes + O2 use

A
  • can use O2 when its available
  • use anaerobic when O2 is lacking
366
Q

example of facultative anaerobe

A
  • e coli
  • yeast
367
Q

which type of bacteria use organic molecules as their final e- accept and have a 2 net ATP

A

obligate fermenters

368
Q

lactobacillus (yogurt) and yeast are an example of

A

obligate fermenters

369
Q

how much atmospheric oxygen do microaerophile use

A

2-10%/ very small amounts

370
Q

what part of the test tubes do microaerophiles grow at

A

middle

371
Q

examples of microaerophiles bacteria

A

helicopter pylori (ulcer)
- camplyobacter jejuni (gastreonterius)

372
Q

examples of toxic oxygen

A
  • singlet O2
  • superoxide free radicals
  • peroxide
  • hydroxyl radical
373
Q

O2 boosted to a higher energy state is called

A

singlet O2`

374
Q

superoxide free radicals are

A

O2 with a - charge that steals e- and p+

375
Q

what is the final e- acceptor in superoxide free radicals

A

O2

376
Q

function superoxide dismatase (SOD)

A

neutralizes superoxide free radicals; turn them into hydrogen peroxide + O2

377
Q

does the peroxide anion steal e- and p+

A

yes

378
Q

enzyme catalase and enzyme peroxidase function

A

break down hydrogen peroxide

379
Q

which neutralization process is used in the human body for breaking down hydrogen peroxide

A

enzyme catalase

380
Q

which toxic oxygen has no cure and cell death is evident

A

hydroxyl radical

381
Q

microbe community on top of something is knwon as

A

biofilm aka hydrogel

382
Q

example of biofilm

A

plaque

383
Q

quorum sensing is

A

cell to cell communication for biofilm

384
Q

nutrients prepared for microbial growth is known as

A

culture medium

385
Q

sterile is

A

no living microbes

386
Q

introduction of microbes to medium is known as

A

inoculum

387
Q

culture is

A

microbes growing in nutrient broth on medium

388
Q

polysaccharide that solidifies and use in solid culture medium is

A

agar

389
Q

what is the one thing that bacteria don’t consume/ use as nutrients

A

agar

390
Q

how to sterilize agar

A
  • increase temp to 100
  • then put it bath water init 45
391
Q

at what temp of agar can diagnosis be done at

A

37

392
Q

what contains one species of strain

A

pure culture

393
Q

pop of cells arising from single cell or spare from a group of attached cells is known as

A

colony

394
Q

function of streak methods

A

has three sections are used to isolate pure structures

395
Q

what should be heated before applying it the streak method

A

lube

396
Q

which streak plate sample can colonies be viewed from

A

3

397
Q

what suppresses unwanted microbes and encourages desired microbes

A

selective media

398
Q

what and where is bismuth sulphite agar used

A
  • used to grow salmonella typhi
399
Q

salmonella typhi is an example of what type of gram cell

A

G -

400
Q

typhoid fever is caused by

A

salmonella typhi

401
Q

what does bismuth sulphite agar inhibit

A

G +

402
Q

which media will grow everything, but distinguished b/w colonies

A

differential media

403
Q

what is used to grow streptococcus progenies (strep throat) in differntial media

A

blood agar

404
Q

function of blood agar

A
  • hemolysis of RBC around strep colony
405
Q

selective x differential media function

A
  • suppress and distinguish colonies
406
Q

example of selective x differential media

A

mannitol salt agar

407
Q

break down of mannitol salt agar

A

mannitol = differential
salt = selective

408
Q

mannitol salt agar function

A
  • used to grow staphlycocuss aureus
409
Q

which growth phase is for intense metabolic activity

A

lag phase

410
Q

log phase is

A

exponential growth due to related binary fission

411
Q

is Time constant during log phase

A

yes

412
Q

time required for one binary fission is knwon as

A

generation of TIME

413
Q

formula for generation time

A

time/ # of division

414
Q

which phase of growth is the bacteria most vulnerable

A

log phase

415
Q

of deaths = # of new cells formed is which part of cell growth

A

stationary

416
Q

death phase is

A
  • pop decrease
417
Q

what doubles every 20 mins

A

e coli

418
Q

exact chemical composition known is

A

cultural defined medium

124 (6 decks)

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