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Yr 10 Mock > Chemistry > Flashcards

Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What do states of matter depend on?

A

The forces between particles

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2
Q

Describe the shape and volume of a solid

A

Definite shape and volume

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3
Q

Describe the arrangement of a solid

A

Fixed regular lattice arrangement

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4
Q

Describe the amount of energy in a solid

A

Low

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5
Q

Describe the movement of a solid

A

Vibrate around a fixed point

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6
Q

Describe the shape and volume of a liquid

A

Undefinite shape but definite volume

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7
Q

Describe the arrangement of a liquid

A

Random arrangement

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8
Q

Describe the amount of energy in a liquid

A

More energy than solid, but less than liquid

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9
Q

Describe the movement of a liquid

A

Random motion, sliding past each particles

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10
Q

Why do liquids expand when heated?

A

As they get hotter, they move more

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11
Q

Describe the shape and volume of a gas

A

Undefinite shape and volume

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12
Q

Describe the arrangement of a gas

A

Random

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13
Q

Describe the amount of energy in a gas

A

High

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14
Q

Describe the movement of a gas

A

Random and fast

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15
Q

What happens to gases when they get hotter?

A

They either expand or increase in pressure

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16
Q

What is a physical change?

A

A substance changing state

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17
Q

When do chemical changes occur?

A

During chemical reactions

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18
Q

What actually happens in a chemical reaction?

A

Atoms are rearranged

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19
Q

What type of change is harder to reverse?

A

A chemical change

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20
Q

What does it mean if a substance is pure?

A

It’s completely made up of a single elements or compound

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21
Q

What does it mean if a substance is a mixture?

A

It contains more than one compound/element

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22
Q

What is the different in melting/boiling points between pure and impure substances?

A

Pure substances have a specific, sharp melting/boiling point

Impure substances don’t have a specific, sharp melting/boiling point

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23
Q

What does simple distillation separate?

A

The liquid from a solution

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24
Q

What goes through the condenser?

A

Cold water

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25
Q

Roughly, describe the diagram for distillation

A

Flask with solution and thermometer, connected to a condenser which then connects to a beaker to collect the distillate

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26
Q

If a liquid is flammable how do you heat it?

A

Water bath or electric heater

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27
Q

Why is simple distillation not as good as fractional?

A

Simple can only be used to separate solutions with very different boiling points

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28
Q

In fractional distillation, what do you attach to the flask?

A

Fractionating column and a condenser

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29
Q

What do you put in the fractionating column?

A

Glass rods

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30
Q

Why do you put glass rods in the fractionating column?

A

To provide large surface area for hot vapours to cool and condense repeatedly.

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31
Q

In fractional distillation once the first liquid has been collected, what do you do next?

A

Raise the temperature to the next liquids’ boiling point

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32
Q

Which order of boiling points do you go, when undergoing fractional distillation?

A

Lowest point to highest point

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33
Q

What is filtration used to separate?

A

An insoluble solid from a liquid

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34
Q

Describe the apparatus for filtration

A

Filter paper, in the shape of a cone, into a funnel

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35
Q

What is left behind when filtrating?

A

Solid residue

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36
Q

What is crystallization used to separate?

A

A soluble solid from a solution

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37
Q

Roughly, give steps to the method of crystallization

A

Pour solution into evaporating dish and heat, making the solution more concentrated
Remove dish and leave to cool
Salt should start to form crystals, then filter crystals and leave in warm place to dry

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38
Q

Why do crystals start to form during crystallization?

A

Because the salt becomes insoluble in the cold, highly concentrated solution

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39
Q

What is chromatography used to separate?

A

A mixture of soluble substances

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40
Q

In chromatography, what is the mobile phase?

A

The phase where the molecules can move

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41
Q

What state are the molecules in during the mobile phase?

A

Liquid or gas

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42
Q

In chromatography, what is the stationary phase?

A

The phase where the molecules can’t move

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43
Q

What state are the molecules in during the stationary phase?

A

Solid or a really thick liquid

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44
Q

Why do the substances spend different amounts of time in each phase?

A

Because they spend different amounts of time dissolved

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45
Q

How fast a chemical moves depends on what?

A

How it distributes itself

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46
Q

What is the baseline, in chromatography?

A

The line drawn near the bottom of the paper

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47
Q

Why do you draw the baseline with a pencil, in chromatography?

A

The pencil mark is insoluble therefore it won’t move up the paper

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48
Q

How far do you dip the paper in, in chromatography?

A

Just before the spot

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49
Q

What do you put on top of the beaker, in chromatography?

A

A watch glass

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50
Q

As the solvent moves up the paper, what else moves with it?

A

The chemicals

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51
Q

What do you do once all chemicals have stopped dissolving in chromatography?

A

Remove the paper and measure the distance the solvent has moved

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52
Q

The amount of time spent in each phase, in chromatography, depends on what?

A

How soluble the solvent is

How attracted they are to the stationary phase

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53
Q

What phase will, chemicals with a high solublity, spend the most time in?

A

Mobile so they’ll be carried further up the paper

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54
Q

What is the name of the piece of paper left after chromatography?

A

A chromatogram

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55
Q

What is the equation for Rf value?

A

Distance travelled by solute / Distance travelled by solvent = Rf

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56
Q

What are the units for Rf?

A

There aren’t any as Rf is a ratio, and ratios don’t have units

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57
Q

Why can you use chromatography to measure the purity of substance

A

If a substance is pure it won’t be separated and will remain as one blob
Therefore, if the solution remains together it is pure

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58
Q

What are the three types of water resources in the uk?

A

Surface, ground and waste water

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59
Q

Give examples of surface water

A

Lakes, rivers and reservoirs

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60
Q

Give an example of ground water

A

An aquifer (rocks that trap water underground)

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61
Q

What types of water resources require purification?

A

Surface and waste water

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62
Q

Name the three steps in water treatment plants?

A

Filtration, sedimentation and chlorination

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63
Q

What occurs in the filtration stage in water treatment plants?

A

A wire mesh screens out large object

Gravel or sand beds filter out any other solid bits

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64
Q

What occurs in the sedimentation stage in water treatment plants?

A

Iron or aluminium sulfate is added to the water which makes fine particles clump together and settle at the bottom

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65
Q

What occurs in the chlorination stage in water treatment plants?

A

Chlorine gas is bubbled through to kill harmful bacteria and other microbes

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66
Q

What are some examples of disadvantages of distilling sea water?

A

Loads of energy needed and very expensive

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67
Q

What type of water mused be used in chemical analysis?

A

Pure (deionised) water

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68
Q

Why is deionised water used in chemical reactions?

A

Deionised water contains no ions, if it did contain ions, even the smallest amount could give your experiment a false result

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69
Q

What is our main source of hydrocarbons?

A

Crude oil

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70
Q

How is crude oil formed?

A

High temperature and pressure over millions of years

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71
Q

What is a hydrocarbon?

A

A compound containing only hydrogen and carbon

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72
Q

State two types of hydrocarbons

A

Alkanes and alkenes

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73
Q

How can crude oil be separated?

A

By fractional distillation

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74
Q

Roughly describe how crude oil can be separated

A

The crude oil is boiled into a gas
Gas then enters fractionating column which has a temperature gradient which then seperates the hydrocarbons based off their boiling points

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75
Q

How does the length of the hydrocarbon change the boiling point?

A

As the length of the hydrocarbon increases, the boiling point also increases as there are more bonds to break

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76
Q

Where do the short hydrocarbons come out the fractionating column?

A

The top

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77
Q

Where do the long hydrocarbons come out the fractionating column?

A

The bottom

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78
Q

List the hydrocarbons that come out at each fraction

A

Gases, Petrol, Kerosene, Disel Oil, Fuel Oil and Bitumen

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79
Q

What are gases used for?

A

Heating and cooking

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80
Q

What is petrol used for?

A

Fuel for cars

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81
Q

What is kerosene used for?

A

Fuel for aircrafts

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82
Q

What is disel oil used for?

A

Fuel for some cars and large vehicles

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83
Q

What is fuel oil used for?

A

Fuel for large ships and power stations

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84
Q

What is bitumen used for?

A

To surface roads and roofs

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85
Q

What is a homologous series?

A

A family of molecules which share the same general formula and chemical properties

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86
Q

Name an example of a homologous series

A

The alkanes

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87
Q

Name some alkanes

A

Methane, Ethane and Propane

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88
Q

What determines a hydrocarbons properties?

A

It’s size

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89
Q

What does the size of a hydrocarbon decide?

A

What fraction it will separate to and it’s viscosity

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90
Q

What is viscosity a measure of?

A

How easily a substance flows

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91
Q

True or False? The longer the hydrocarbon, the higher the viscosity

A

True

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92
Q

Why do hydrocarbons make great fuels?

A

They release lots of energy when burnt with oxygen (very exothermic)

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93
Q

What is the equation of complete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

A

Hydrocarbon + Oxygen -> Carbon Dioxide + Water

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94
Q

When does incomplete combustion occur?

A

When a hydrocarbon burns in a limited supply of oxygen

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95
Q

What is the main difference between the products of complete and incomplete combustion?

A

Incomplete combustion contains less oxygen than carbon dioxide

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96
Q

What is the equation of incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon?

A

Hydrocarbon + Oxygen -> Carbon Monoxide + Carbon (Soot) + Water

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97
Q

Why is carbon monoxide bad?

A

Because it can combine with red blood cells and prevent your blood from carry oxygen
A lack of oxygen can lead to fainting, coma or even death

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98
Q

Why is soot bad?

A

It makes buildings look dirty, reduces air quality and can cause or worsen respiratory problems

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99
Q

What does sulfur dioxide cause?

A

Acid rain

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100
Q

What else is released when fossil fuels are burned?

A

Sulfur dioxide and various other nitrogen oxides

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101
Q

How does sulfur dioxide become acid rain?

A

The gas mixes with the clouds and forms dilute sulfuric acid which then falls as acid rain

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102
Q

What are some disadvantages of acid rain?

A

Makes lakes acidic - kills animals and fishes

Kills trees, damages limestone buildings/statues and can corrode metal

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103
Q

What reaction creates nitrogen oxide?

A

A reaction between nitrogen and oxygen

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104
Q

What causes the energy needed to cause nitrogen to react with oxygen?

A

Combustion reactions

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105
Q

Give an example of a combustion reaction which causes nitrogen to react with oxygen?

A

Internal combustion engines of cars

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106
Q

What can nitrogen oxides contribute to?

A

Acid rain or, at ground level, can cause photochemical smog

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107
Q

What can photochemical smog cause?

A

Breathing difficullties, headaches and tiredness

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108
Q

What are the pros of using hydrogen in cars?

A

Very clean
Only waste product is water
Renewable resource
Chain reaction as hydrogen can be obtained from waste product (water)

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109
Q

What are the cons of using hydrogen in cars?

A

Special and expensive engine needed
Hydrogen needs to be manufactured which is expensive and requires energy from another source
Hydrogen is hard to store and, at the moment, is not widely used

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110
Q

What is cracking?

A

The splitting up of long-chain hydrocarbons?

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111
Q

What does cracking use and create?

A

Long saturated alkane molecules into smaller unsaturated alkene and some alkane molecules

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112
Q

What is the most useful product of cracking?

A

The alkane molecules

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113
Q

What is cracking a form of?

A

Thermal decomposition

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114
Q

What is thermal decomposition?

A

When one substance breaks down into at least two new ones when you heat it

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115
Q

Why is alot of energy needed in cracking?

A

Strong covalent bonds needed to be broken

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116
Q

What is often added to cracking as alot of energy is needed?

A

A catalyst

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117
Q

What does cracking usually involve?

A

Heat, moderate pressure and a catalyst

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118
Q

Name an example of a catalyst used in cracking?

A

Aluminium Oxide

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119
Q

What does cracking help?

A

Match supply and demand

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120
Q

What was the first phase of the atmosphere?

A

Volcanoes gave out steam and carbon dioxide

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121
Q

What did volcanoes release?

A

Carbon dioxide, steam, methane and ammonia

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122
Q

When things settled down, what was the early atmosphere mostly?

A

Carbon dioxide and water vapour

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123
Q

What later happened to the water vapour in the atmosphere?

A

It condensed to form the oceans

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124
Q

What was the second phase of the atmosphere?

A

Green plants evolved and produced oxygen

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125
Q

What happened to the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A

It dissolved into the ocean

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126
Q

How was nitrogen then put into the atmosphere?

A

Denitrifying bacteria and by ammonia reacting with oxygen

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127
Q

Why didn’t the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere decrease?

A

Because it’s very unreactive so although it’s being made it’s not being broken down

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128
Q

How did oxygen then be produced?

A

Green plants evolved to photosynthesise

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129
Q

Due to plants evolving, what happened to the air concentration?

A

Oxygen increased whilst carbon dioxide decresed

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130
Q

What did carbon dioxide eventually get locked up in?

A

Fossil fuels and sedimentary rocks

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131
Q

What was the third phase of the atmosphere?

A

Ozone layer allowed the evolution of complex animals

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132
Q

What did the build up of oxygen in the atmosphere kill of?

A

Early organisms that couldn’t tolerate the high amounts

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133
Q

What did the excess oxygen also create?

A

The ozone layer

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134
Q

What did the ozone layer do?

A

Block out the harmful rays from the sun and enables the more complex organisms to evolve

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135
Q

What is the test for oxygen?

A

A glowing splint relighting

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136
Q

Why and what does more people mean in terms of energy?

A

More energy is needed as more lighting, cooking, transport and heating needed

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137
Q

Why does an increasing population affect carbon dioxide concentration

A

More people, more houses needed, more land needed so more trees cut down therefore less carbon dioxide absorbed

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138
Q

What effect helps to keep the Earth Warm?

A

The Greenhouse Effect

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139
Q

What does the Sun give out?

A

Electromagnetic radiation

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140
Q

What does the Earth radiate?

A

The heat radiation it asorbs

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141
Q

What happens to the heat radiation?

A

Either absorbed or re-emitted back towards Earth by the greenhouse gases, re-emitted into space

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142
Q

Define greenhouse gases

A

The gases in the atmosphere that can absorb and reflect heat radiation

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143
Q

Give examples of greenhouse gases

A

Carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane

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144
Q

What happens to the greenhouse effect if concentration of greenhouse gases are increased?

A

More enchanced greenhouse effect

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145
Q

Give an example on how methane is produced

A

Through digestive processes of certain livestock

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146
Q

Why is methane so worrying even though its in tiny amounts?

A

It’s a super effective greenhouse gas

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147
Q

Define anthropogenic

A

Caused by humans

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148
Q

Why is historical data less accurate?

A

Less records and data collected was less accurate (not as good apparatus)

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149
Q

What are methods of estimating past data?

A

Fossils, tree rings or gas bubbles

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150
Q

True or False? Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons?

A

True, they have used all their bonds

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151
Q

What is the general formula for alkanes?

A

CnH2n+2

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152
Q

What type of bond occurs in an alkene?

A

A double carbon to carbon bond

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153
Q

What is a functional group?

A

A group of atoms that determine how a molecule reacts

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154
Q

True or False? Members of a homologous series all contain different functional groups?

A

False, the function group controls the properties of the molecule and all molecules in a homologous series all have the same properties

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155
Q

What is the functional group in alkenes?

A

The double carbon to carbon bond

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156
Q

What is the general formula for alkenes?

A

CnH2n

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157
Q

Are alkenes saturated or unsaturated? Why?

A

Unsaturated, they can make more bonds as the double bond can open up allowing the two carbon atoms to bond with other atoms

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158
Q

What is the test for an alkene?

A

When shaken together, bromine water will decolourise (orange to colourless)

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159
Q

Why can you use bromine water to test for an alkene?

A

Because the bromine is added across the alkene double bond

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160
Q

What happens to the hydrocarbons in the combustion reactions?

A

Oxidised

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161
Q

What is the functional group in alcohols?

A

-OH

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162
Q

What is the general formula for alcohols?

A

CnH2n+1OH

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163
Q

Why don’t you write CH40 instead of CH3OH?

A

CH40 doesn’t show the -OH functional group

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164
Q

What is a dehydration reaction?

A

When alcohol and an acid catalyst is heat it will form an alkene and water

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165
Q

What can alcohols be oxidised to form?

A

Carboxylic acid

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166
Q

What are the properties of carboxylic acids?

A

React like other acids

Partially ionise and release H+ ions (weak acid)

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167
Q

What is the general formula for a carboxylic acid?

A

CnH2n-1COOH

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168
Q

What is the functional group is carboxylic acid?

A

-COOH

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169
Q

How do you form a carboxylic acid?

A

By oxidising an alcohol

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170
Q

What is the process by which ethanol is made?

A

Fermentation

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171
Q

What “ingredients” does fermentation involve?

A

Sugar and yeast

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172
Q

What is the formula for fermentation?

A

C6H1206 -> 2C2H50H + 2CO2

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173
Q

What do yeast cells contain that helps the process of fermentation?

A

Enzymes

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174
Q

Roughly, describe the process of fermentation

A

Mix yeast and glucose in container and leave in warm place

Keep between 30-40*C and in anaerobic conditions

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175
Q

What causes the yeast cells in fermentation to die?

A

The high concentration of acid (usually 20%)

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176
Q

How do you collect the ethanol?

A

From the top as the yeast cells would of died and sunk to the bottom

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177
Q

What temperature should fermentation take place at?

A

30-40*C

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178
Q

What type of conditions should fermentation take place at?

A

Anaerobic

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179
Q

What is used to concentrate ethanol?

A

Fractional Distillation

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180
Q

Compare the boiling points of ethanol and water

A

Ethanol has a lower boiling point

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181
Q

What is the name of the condenser used to condense the ethanol vapour?

A

Liebig condenser

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182
Q

True or False? Alcohol can’t be used as a fuel?

A

False

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183
Q

Why can alcohol be used as a fuel?

A

When burned, they release energy

184
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, what do you use for heat?

A

A spirit burner

185
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, what is the independent variable?

A

The Alcohol

186
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, what is the dependent variable?

A

The Mass of the Alcohol after burning

187
Q

How much water is usually used when investigating which alcohol is the best fuel?

A

100cm3 distilled water

188
Q

What contained is used when investigating which alcohol is the best fuel?

A

Copper calorimeter

189
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, how do you insulate the calorimeter?

A

By using a draught excluder and an insulating lid

190
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, how do you measure the temperature?

A

Using a thermometer

191
Q

Why is the calorimeter insulated when investigating which alcohol is the best fuel?

A

To get the most accurate results

192
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, why should you avoid the flame and alcohol touching?

A

Alcohol is extremely flammable therefore direct contact could lead to danger

193
Q

When investigating which alcohol is the best fuel, how much temperature do you need to let the water rise to?

A

By 20*C

194
Q

Once wick blown out, what do you do?

A

Rewigh the burner and fuel

195
Q

What makes an alcohol more efficient when investigating which alcohol is the best fuel?

A

The less fuel lost, the more efficient the fuel

196
Q

How does the length of the hydrocarbon relate to its efficiency as a fuel?

A

The longer the chain, the more efficient the fuel will be

197
Q

What are polymers?

A

Substances of high average relative molecular mass by joining up lots of small repeating units called monomers

198
Q

What type of bond can be found between monomers that make up addition polymers?

A

Double covalent bonds

199
Q

What is addition polymerisation?

A

Lots of unsaturated monomer molecules (eg aklenes) opening up their double bonds to join together to form polymer chains

200
Q

What type of molecules can undergo addition polymerisation?

A

Unsaturated monomer molecules

201
Q

True or False? When drawing polymers/monomers, you surround both with brackets?

A

False, only polymers are surrounded in brackets, this is to show the molecule is repeated

202
Q

Name examples of synthetic polymers

A

poly(tetrafluoroethene) (PTFE), poly(chloroethene) (PVC), poly(ethene) and poly(propene)

203
Q

What are poly(ethene)’s properties?

A

Flexible, insulator and cheap

204
Q

What are poly(ethene)’s uses?

A

Plastic (bags and bottles) and wire insulators

205
Q

What are poly(propene)’s properties?

A

Flexible, strong, tough and moudable

206
Q

What are poly(propene)’s uses?

A

Crates, furniture and ropes

207
Q

What are poly(chloroethene)’s properties?

A

Tough and cheap

208
Q

What are poly(chloroethene)’s uses?

A

Window frames and water pipes

209
Q

What are poly(tetrafluoroethene)’s properties?

A

Unreactive, tough and non-stick

210
Q

What are poly(tetrafluoroethene)’s uses?

A

Non-stick pans and waterproof clothing

211
Q

How can polymers be made?

A

Addition polymerisation or condensation polymerisation

212
Q

What is condensation polymerisation?

A

Two different types of monomer react and form bonds between them making polymer chains

213
Q

How many functional groups must a condenation polymer have?

A

Atleast two

214
Q

What is lost when a new bond form between twi different monomers?

A

A small molecule (eg water)

215
Q

What are examples of condensation polymers?

A

Polyesters

216
Q

What two monomers react to form a polyester?

A

Dicarboxylic acid and diol

217
Q

Dicarboxylic acid monomers contain what function group?

A

Two carboxylic acid groups (-COOH)

218
Q

Diol monomers contain what function group?

A

Two alcohol groups (-OH)

219
Q

What link is formed when a carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol?

A

An ester link

220
Q

Why is a polyester an example of a condensation polymer?

A

Each time an ester link is formed, a molecule of water is lost

221
Q

Name examples of naturally occuring polymers

A

DNA, proteins and starch/cellulose

222
Q

Name examples of naturally occuring monomers

A

Nucleotids, amino acids, carbohydrates

223
Q

What is DNA?

A

A complex molecule that contains genetic infomation

224
Q

What is DNA made up of?

A

Four different monomers called nucleotides, in two strands

225
Q

What is an example of protein usage in the human body?

A

Enzyme development

226
Q

What are proteins made up of?

A

Amino acids

227
Q

How do amino acids form proteins?

A

Condensation polymerisation

228
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

Molecules containing carbon, oxygen and hydrogen

229
Q

What are carbohydrates used by?

A

Living things (to produce energy)

230
Q

What are plastics made from?

A

Crude oil

231
Q

Why is using up crude oil bad for crude oil suppliers?

A

Cost to supply will increase

232
Q

Why is using up crude oil bad for customers?

A

Cost of crude oil products will increase

233
Q

Disadvantages of using land fill for disposal of polymers?

A

Valuable land wasted

Most polymers are non-biodegradable so will stay there for years and years

234
Q

Disadvantages of using combustion for disposal of polymers?

A

If not controlled, toxic gases can be released, for example when PVC is burnt it produces HCL
Carbon dioxide is produced, which contributes to global warming

235
Q

Recycling polymers advantages?

A

Reduces the amount of non-biodegradable waste in landfill sites
Reduces emissions of green house and toxic gases
Recycling generally saves money and creates jobs
Uses less water and energy

236
Q

Recycling polymers disadvantages?

A

If mixed together, quality of final product could be reduced
Polymers must be seperated by type before recycled
Polymers can only be recycled a finite number of times as the strength of the polymer can decrease
Melting down polymers can release dangerous gases into the atmosphere

237
Q

When/what did/how John Dalton describe atoms?

A

The start of the 19th century, atoms as solids that are made up of different elements

238
Q

When/what did/how J J Thomson describe atoms?

A

1897 and he concluded that atoms weren’t solid spheres and that there must be even smaller negatively charged particles

239
Q

What was the name of the theory J J Thomson created about atoms?

A

The Plum Pudding Model

240
Q

How was the plum pudding model disproved?

A

Alpha particles were fired at an extremely thin sheet of gold
Expected all to transmit through
Some did transmit through but some reflected

241
Q

Who came up with the nuclear atom theorem?

A

Rutherford

242
Q

What is the charge of a proton?

A

+1

243
Q

What is the relative atomic mass of a proton?

A

1

244
Q

What is the charge of a neutron?

A

0

245
Q

What is the relative atomic mass of a neutron?

A

1

246
Q

What is the charge of a electron?

A

-1

247
Q

What is the relative atomic mass of a electron?

A

0.0005

248
Q

Why does a nucleus have a positive charge?

A

Because it has more protons (n) than electrons (0)

249
Q

What does the atomic number tell you about an element?

A

The number of protons within the nucleus

250
Q

What does the mass number tell you about an element?

A

The number of proteins added to the number of neutrons (Relative atomic mass of nucleus)

251
Q

What is an isotope?

A

A different form of the same element which have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons

252
Q

What is relative atomic mass?

A

The average mass of one atom of an element, compared to mass of 1/12 of carbon-12

253
Q

How do you calculate the relative atomic mass of an element?

A

Multiply each relative isotopic mass by its abundance then add up the results
Then divide the sum by the total isoptopic abundance

254
Q

How did Mendeleev originally order his table of elements?

A

Based off properties of the elements and their compounds

255
Q

What caused Mendeleev to change the table of elements order to atomic mass?

A

He noticed a pattern if he put similar chemical properties in columns

256
Q

What caused Mendeleev to make mistakes in the table of elements?

A

He didn’t realise he was looking at the isotopes of that element

257
Q

What discovery caused the order of the periodic table to change to atomic number?

A

The discovery of protons and electrons

258
Q

What on the periodic table shows elements with similar chemical properties?

A

Groups (columns)

259
Q

What on the periodic table shows elements with the same outer shell number?

A

Periods (rows)

260
Q

What on the periodic table shows elements with the same number of electrons in the outer shell?

A

Groups (columns)

261
Q

What are ions?

A

Charged particles

262
Q

True or False? Ions can be single atoms and groups of atoms?

A

True, for example Na+ or N03-

263
Q

Why do atoms ionise?

A

To gain a full outer shell (stable electronic structure)

264
Q

What are negative ions called?

A

Anions

265
Q

What are positive ions called?

A

Cations

266
Q

Compare the number of electrons and protons in a cation

A

More protons than electrons

267
Q

Compare the number of electrons and protons in anion

A

More electrons than protons

268
Q

What is the overall charge of an ionic compound?

A

Zero

269
Q

What attracts the cation and anion in ionic bonding?

A

Electrostatic forces

270
Q

What is ionic bonding between?

A

A metal and non-metal

271
Q

Describe the structure of an ionic compound

A

Giant ionic lattice

272
Q

Describe the forces of attraction in an ionic compound

A

Very strong electrostatic forces of attraction

273
Q

What are the properties of an ionic compound?

A

High melting/boiling point
Dissolve easily
Unconductive, unless in solution (aqueous) or melted (liquid)

274
Q

What do ionic compounds have a high melting/boiling point?

A

A large amount of energy needed to break the very strong electrostatic forces of attraction

275
Q

What do ionic compounds dissolve easily?

A

Ion’s will seperate easily and begin free to move in a solution

276
Q

What don’t ionic compounds conduct?

A

Fixed in place and can’t move therefore must be aqueous or liquid because ions are free to move

277
Q

What are the advantages of 2D representations?

A
  • Great at showing what is actually in the molecule
  • Great at showing how much is actually in the molecule
  • Great at showing what type of bonds are present
278
Q

What are the disadvantages of 2D representations?

A
  • Can’t see the size of the atom/molecule

- Can’t see the shape of the molecule

279
Q

What are the advantages of dot and cross diagrams?

A
  • Great at showing where the electrons came from

- Great at showing what bonds are present

280
Q

What are the disadvantages of dot and cross diagrams?

A
  • Can’t see the size of the molecule

- Can’t see how the molecules arranged

281
Q

What are the advantages of 3D representations?

A
  • Great at showing the arrangement of molecules
  • Great at showing the size of the molecules
  • Great at showing the shape of the molecules
282
Q

What are the disadvantages of 3D representations?

A
  • Can’t see the inner layers (can only see the outer layers)
283
Q

What are the advantages of ball-stick models?

A
  • Great at helping to visualise structures

- Good as being more realistic than 2D drawings

284
Q

What are the disadvantages of ball-stick models?

A
  • Doesn’t truly show the gaps between the atoms

- Doesn’t truly show the correct scales of the molecules

285
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

A strong bond that forms when a pair of electrons is shared between two atoms

286
Q

What are the properties of a simple molecular substances?

A

Low melting/boiling point
Unconductive
Some are soluble, some aren’t

287
Q

Why do simple molecular substances have low melting/boiling points?

A

Although they have strong covalent bonds between the atoms, the actual intermolecular bond between the molecules is week
To melt/boil, only those weak intermolecular bonds must be broken

288
Q

What happens to the melting/boiling point as you increase the size of a covalent molecule?

A

As you increase the size of a covalent molecule, the melting/boiling point increases this is because the intermolecular forces increase strength so more energy is needed to break them

289
Q

Why don’t covalent substances conduct?

A

No free ions or electrons

290
Q

What bonds are found between monomers to form a polymer?

A

Covalently bonded carbon atoms

291
Q

What are the bonds in giant covalent structures?

A

Strong covalent bonds between each atom

292
Q

What are the properties of a giant covalent substances?

A

Very high melting/boiling points
Unconductive
Not soluble

293
Q

Why do giant covalent substances have very high melting/boiling points?

A

A lot of energy is needed to break the strong covalent bonds

294
Q

Why are giant covalent substances unconductive?

A

They, usually, don’t have free electrons

295
Q

Give 3 examples of giant covalent substances?

A

Diamond, graphite and graphene

296
Q

What are diamonds made up of?

A

A network of carbons that each form four covalent bonds

297
Q

What are the properties of diamond?

A

High melting/boiling point
Really hard
Unconductive

298
Q

Why does diamond have a high melting/boiling point?

A

The strong covalent bonds require a lot of energy to break

299
Q

Why is diamond really hard?

A

The strong covalent bonds hold the atoms in a rigid lattice structure

300
Q

Why doesn’t diamond conduct?

A

No free electrons or ions

301
Q

What is graphite made up of?

A

Hexagonal sheets of carbon atoms that form three covalent bonds

302
Q

What are the properties of graphite?

A

Slippery
High melting point
Conductive

303
Q

Why is graphite slippery?

A

No covalent bonds between the layers, only held together weakly so the layers are free to move over each other

304
Q

Why does graphite have a high melting/boiling point?

A

The covalent bonds in the layers need lots of energy to break

305
Q

Why is graphite conductive?

A

Three out of four electrons are used in bonds, the last is delocalised and can move

306
Q

What is graphene made up of?

A

A sheet of carbon atoms joined together in hexagons (one layer of graphite)

307
Q

True or False? Graphene is a 3d compound?

A

False, it is two-dimensional as it is one atom thick

308
Q

What is diamond used for?

A

Cutting tools (saw teeth and drill bits)

309
Q

What is graphite used for?

A

Electrodes or a lubricating material

310
Q

What do fullerenes form?

A

Spheres or tubes

311
Q

What are fullerenes?

A

Molecules of carbon shaped like closed tubes or hollow balls

312
Q

What can fullerenes be used to do with other molecules?

A

Cage the other molecules

313
Q

What can fullerenes be used for?

A

To deliver a drug directly to cells in the body

314
Q

What makes fullerenes a great industrial catalyst?

A

Fullerenes have a huge surface area

315
Q

True or False? Nanotubes are also fullerenes?

A

True

316
Q

What are the properties of nanotubes?

A

Conductive

High tensile strength

317
Q

What does nanotubes having a high tensile strength mean?

A

They can be used to strengthen materials without adding much weight

318
Q

What are the properties of buckminsterfullerene?

A

Stable molecule

Forms soft brownish-black crystals

319
Q

What shape does buckminsterfullerene form?

A

A hollow sphere

320
Q

What does metallic bonding involve?

A

A delocalised electron

321
Q

True or False? Metals aren’t a giant structure?

A

False

322
Q

What compounds are held together by metallic bonding?

A

Elements and alloys

323
Q

What produces all the properties in a metallic bond?

A

The delocalised electron

324
Q

What are the properties of a substance that is metallically bonded?

A

Very high melting/boiling points
Heavy (very dense)
Very good conductive
Some malleable and ductile

325
Q

Why do metallically bonded substances have a high melting/boiling point?

A

They have strong electrostatic forces between the metal ions and the delocalised sea of electrons are very strong which means a lot of energy is needed to break these bonds

326
Q

Why can metals be ductile/malleable?

A

The layer of atoms in a pure metal can slide over each other

327
Q

What does malleable mean?

A

Can be hammered into a shape

328
Q

What does ductile mean?

A

Can be rolled into flat sheets

329
Q

Why are metals good conducters?

A

The delocalised electrons can carry electrical current and thermal energy through the material

330
Q

What are usually properties of non-metals?

A 
Dull looking
Brittle
Lower melting/boiling point
Don't usually conduct
Lower density
331
Q

What is the pH scale a measurement of?

A

How acidic or alkaline a solution is

332
Q

What pH is neutral?

A

7

333
Q

What pH is acidic?

A

<7

334
Q

What pH is alkaline?

A

> 7

335
Q

What ions do acids form?

A

H+

336
Q

What happens to the pH as the concenration of hydrogen ions increases?

A

It decreases (more acidic)

337
Q

What is a base?

A

A substance that reacts with an acid to produce a sold or water

338
Q

What is an alkali?

A

Any base that is soluble in water

339
Q

What ions do alkalis form?

A

OH-

340
Q

What happens to the pH as the concenration of hydroxide ions increases?

A

It increases (more alkaline)

341
Q

What is an indicator?

A

A dye that changes colour depending on whether it’s above or below a certain pH

342
Q

How do you use an indicator?

A

Add a few drops

Compare result to a pH chart for that indicator

343
Q

State three examples of indicators for acids and alkalis

A

Phenolpthalein, methyl orange and litmus

344
Q

What colour does phenolpthalein turn in acidic conditions?

A

Colourless

345
Q

What colour does phenolpthalein turn in neutral conditions?

A

Colourless

346
Q

What colour does phenolpthalein turn in alkaline conditions?

A

Pink

347
Q

What colour does methyl orange turn in acidic conditions?

A

Red

348
Q

What colour does methyl orange turn in neutral conditions?

A

Yellow

349
Q

What colour does methyl orange turn in alkaline conditions?

A

Yellow

350
Q

What colour does litmus turn in acidic conditions?

A

Red

351
Q

What colour does litmus turn in neutral conditions?

A

Purple

352
Q

What colour does litmus turn in alkaline conditions?

A

Blue

353
Q

What is the reaction between an acid and a base called?

A

Neutralisation

354
Q

What does a neutralisation produce?

A

Salt and water

355
Q

Is calcium oxide a base or alkali?

A

A base as it is insoluble

356
Q

When investigating the neutralisation reaction between calcium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid, what apparatus do you use to apply the HCL to a conical flask?

A

Measuring cylinder or a pipette

357
Q

When investigating the neutralisation reaction between calcium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid, what is the independent variable?

A

Mass of calcium oxide

358
Q

When investigating the neutralisation reaction between calcium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid, what is the dependent variable?

A

pH

359
Q

When investigating the neutralisation reaction between calcium oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid, what do you do once added the base?

A

Wait for the base to completely react and then measure the pH

360
Q

How do you know all the base has reacted with the acid?

A

As base’s are insoluble you’ll know when all the acid has been used up when the base sits at the bottom of the flask

361
Q

True or False? Not all acids can ionise (dissociate)?

A

False, all acids can ionise in solution

362
Q

What does dissociate mean?

A

Splitting up to produce a hydrogen ion

363
Q

Define a strong acid

A

Strong acids ionise almost completely in water

364
Q

Define a weak acid

A

Weak acids only partially ionise in water

365
Q

What does acid strength tell you?

A

What proportion of the acid molecules ionise in water

366
Q

What does acid concentration tell you?

A

How watered down your acid is (how many acid particles there is in a specific volume of water)

367
Q

What happens to the pH of a substance if it’s concentration of H+ ions increased by 10?

A

It will be decreased by 1

368
Q

Give examples of strong acids

A

Sulfuric, hydrochloric and nitric acid

369
Q

Give examples of weak acids

A

Ethanoic, citric and carbonic acid

370
Q

What is the equation for acid + metal oxide?

A

Acid + Metal Oxide -> Salt + Water

371
Q

What is the equation for acid + metal hydroxide?

A

Acid + Metal Hydroxide -> Salt + Water

372
Q

What is the equation for acid + metal?

A

Acid + Metal -> Salt + Hydrogen

373
Q

What is the equation for acid + metal carbonate?

A

Acid + Metal Carbonate -> Salt + Carbon Dioxide + Water

374
Q

How do you test for carbon dioxide?

A

Bubbling the gas through

If it turns cloudy, carbon dioxide is present

375
Q

State the insoluble salts of chlorides

A

Silver and Lead

376
Q

State the insoluble salts of sulfates

A

Lead, Barium and Calcium

377
Q

State the soluble salts of carbonates/hydroxides

A

Sodium, Potassium and Ammonium

378
Q

How do you prepare a pure, dry sample of an insoluble salt?

A

Via a precipitation reaction

379
Q

When making insoluble salts, what do you add to the lead nitrate?

A

Water (deionised)

380
Q

Why do you add water to lead nitrate when making insoluble salts?

A

To ensure there are no other ions about

381
Q

What do you do once sodium chloride and lead nitrate are added together when making insoluble salts?

A

Filter the filtrate

382
Q

Where do you leave the lead chloride once filtered?

A

In an oven to dry

383
Q

Why do you speed up the acid in a water bath when making soluble salts?

A

To speed up the reaction between the acid and the insoluble base

384
Q

How will you know when the base is in excess?

A

Once all the acid has been neutralised the excess solid will just sink to the bottom

385
Q

What do you do once solid is in excess?

A

You filter off the excess solid leaving only the salt and water

386
Q

Once filtered the excess solid, what do you do when making soluble salts?

A

Heat the solution gently and leave in a dry place to crystallise

387
Q

What apparatus do you need when making soluble salts using acid and alkali?

A

Pipette and a burette

388
Q

What’s one disadvantage to using alkalis to making a soluble salt over base?

A

There’s no signal that all the acid has been neutralised

389
Q

Roughly describe how to make soluble salts using acid and alkali?

A

Using a pipette, measure out a set amount of acid
Slowly add alkali using a burette until you reach the end point
Repeat but without indicator
The solution that remains will only contain salt and water
Slowly evaporate off the water and then leave to crystallise
Filter off the solid and dry it

390
Q

What is the end point?

A

When the acid’s been exactly neutralised and the indicator changes colour

391
Q

What determines how reactive a metal is?

A

How readily the metal loses it’s outer electrons

392
Q

What are the physical properties of group 1 metals?

A

Low melting/boiling points (relative to other metals)

Very soft

393
Q

What happens when alkali metals are put in water?

A

They react vigorously

394
Q

What is the equation when a metal reacts with water?

A

Metal + Water -> Hydroxide Salt + Hydrogen

395
Q

How do you test for hydrogen?

A

Lit splint will make a squeaky pop

396
Q

True or False? Halogens don’t exist as diatomic molecules as they can’t bond with each other?

A

False, all halogens exist as diatomic molecules

397
Q

Describe chlorine at room temperature

A

Reactive and poisonous, green gas

398
Q

Describe bromine at room temperature

A

Poisonous, red-brown liquid which gives off an orange vapour

399
Q

Describe iodine at room temperature

A

Dark grey crystalline solid which gives off a purple vapour

400
Q

What are the patterns as you go down the halogens?

A

Less reactive
Darker colour
Melting point increases

401
Q

How do you test for chlorine?

A

By holding a damp blue litmus paper over and if it turns red chlorine is present as chlorine in a solution is acidic

402
Q

Why does reactivity decrease in the halogens?

A

As you go down, the outer shell is further away from the nucleus meaning there is less electrostatic forces of attraction to that shell
To gain an electron the nucleus must, using electrostatic forces of attraction, pull the electron into orbit
Therefore, the less the force of attraction, the harder it is to attract that electron

403
Q

When metals react with halogens what is formed?

A

Metal halide (eg sodium chloride)

404
Q

What is a displacement reaction?

A

A reaction where a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from a compound

405
Q

What type of reactions are displacement reactions?

A

Redox

406
Q

Why are displacement reactions redox?

A

Because the more reactive element gains an electron/s (reduction) whilst the less reactive element, the one in the compound, loses electron/s (oxidation)

407
Q

What are the properties of group 0 elements?

A

Inert
Colourless
Gases

408
Q

True or False? Noble gases are monatomic?

A

True, they are unreactive and have a full outer shell therefore they do not need to diatomically bond

409
Q

What are uses of argon?

A

Filament lamps

410
Q

What are the uses of helium?

A

Airships, balloons and metal protection

411
Q

Define rate of reaction

A

How quickly a reaction happens

412
Q

What are the two ways of measuring reaction rate?

A

How quickly the reactants are used or how quickly the products are formed

413
Q

What is the rate of reaction equation?

A

Amount of reactant used or amount of product formed / Time = Reaction Rate

414
Q

What are the three ways of measuring reaction rate?

A

Precipitation, change in mass and volume of gas given off

415
Q

Roughly describe how to measure rate of reaction via precipitation

A

Mix solutions which produce precipitate

As the precipitate forms, observe the mark and time how long it take’s for the mark to be obscured

416
Q

What is a downside to using precipitation to measure rate of reaction?

A

Result is subjective - different people might not agree on exactly when the mark disappears

417
Q

Roughly describe how to measure rate of reaction via change in mass

A

Measure mass before reaction

Let reaction finish and then calculate mass change

418
Q

When measuring rate of reaction via change in mass how can you tell the reaction has stopped?

A

When the balance stops changing

419
Q

What is a downside to using mass change to measure rate of reaction?

A

If harmful gas is produced, you must take safety precautions

420
Q

Roughly describe how to measure rate of reaction via volume of gas

A

Let reaction finish and then calculate gas volume change using gas syringe

421
Q

What is a downside to using volume of gas change to measure rate of reaction?

A

If not right size gas syringe chosen, plunger may be pushed out the end

422
Q

When measuring rate of reaction using gas volume, what are the control variables?

A

Same volume of acid

Same mass of marble chips

423
Q

How does surface area affect reaction rate?

A

The finer the particle, the faster the rate of reaction

424
Q

How does concentration affect reaction rate?

A

The more concentrated the solution is, the faster the rate of reaction

425
Q

How does temperature affect reaction rate?

A

The higher the temperature, the faster the rate of reaction

426
Q

What solutions are used when using precipitation to measure reaction rate?

A

Sodium thiosulfate and hydrochloric acid

427
Q

What colour precipitate will sodium thiosulfate and hydrochloric acid make?

A

Yellow

428
Q

What are two control variables when measuring rate of reaction through precipitation?

A

Depth of liquid

Volume of liquid

429
Q

What does the rate of reaction depend on?

A

The collision frequency and the energy transferred during a collision

430
Q

Define a sucessful collision

A

A collision that ends in the reactants forming the products

431
Q

How does temperature increase rate of reaction?

A

Increases energy in particles - increases frequency of successful collisions
Increases particle movement - increases frequency of collisions

432
Q

How does concentration of reactants increase rate of reaction?

A

Increases number of particles - increases frequency of collisions

433
Q

How does surface area increase rate of reaction?

A

Increased surface for reaction to occur - increases frequency of collisions

434
Q

What does a catalyst do?

A

Increases the rate of a reaction without being used up or chemically changed

435
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A substance that will increase the rate of reaction without being chemically changed or used up in the reaction

436
Q

How does the enzyme affect the reaction equation

A

Has no affect so equation will remain the same

437
Q

How do catalysts work?

A

By decreasing the activation energy by providing an alternate reaction pathway

438
Q

Why do catalysts speed up the rate of reaction?

A

Decreases acvtiation energy
More particles have at least the activation energy
Therefore there will be a increased frequency of successful collisions

439
Q

What are biological catalysts?

A

Enzymes

440
Q

Give an example of when enzymes are used?

A

Respiration, photosynthesis and protein synthesis

441
Q

What is an exothermic reaction?

A

A reaction which gives out energy to the surroundings, usually in the form of heat

442
Q

What is an endothermic reaction?

A

A reaction which takes in energy from the surroundings, usually in the form of heat

443
Q

What is activation energy?

A

The minimum amount of energy needed for bonds to break and a reaction to start

444
Q

What will happen if energy input is less than activation energy?

A

Reaction won’t start, so nothing will happen

445
Q

How do you measure temperature change?

A 
Polystyerene cup in a large beaker of cotton wool
Add a known volume of your first reagent
Measure inital temperature 
Add second reagant and stir
Record final temperature
Calculate temperature change
446
Q

What type of reaction is dissolving salts in water?

A

Both endo and exothermic

447
Q

What type of reaction are neutralision reactions?

A

Mainly exothermic

448
Q

What type of reaction are displacement reactions?

A

Exothermic

449
Q

What type of reaction are precipitation reactions?

A

Exothermic

450
Q

Describe what happens to bonds during chemical reactions

A

Old bonds are broken, new bonds are formed

451
Q

What type of process is bond breaking?

A

Endothermic

452
Q

What type of process is bond forming?

A

Exothermic

453
Q

Describe the bond energies in endothermic reactions

A

Energy releleased by forming bonds is lower than energy used to break them

454
Q

Describe the bond energies in exothermic reactions

A

Energy releleased by forming bonds is greater than energy used to break them

455
Q

What is the overall energy change equation?

A

Overall Energy Change = Energy required - Energy released

456
Q

What does the sign of the value for overall energy change tell you?

A 
-ve = exothermic
\+ve = endothermic

Yr 10 Mock (8 decks)

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