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Yr 10 Mock > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What are all living things made of?

A

Cells

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2
Q

What is a eukaryotic cell?

A

A complex cell

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3
Q

What type of cells can an eukaryotic cell be?

A

Animal and plant cells

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4
Q

What are prokaryotic cells?

A

Smaller and simpler cells

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5
Q

Give an example of a prokaryotic cell

A

Bacteria

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6
Q

What is the name of an organism that is made up of eukaryotic cells?

A

Eukaryotes

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7
Q

What is the name of an organism that is a prokaryotic cell?

A

Prokaryote (single-celled organism)

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8
Q

List the subcellular structures within a animal cell

A

Nucleus, Cytoplasm, Cell Membrane, Mitochondria and Ribosomes

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9
Q

List the subcellular structures of a plant cell

A

Rigid cell wall, Vacuole and Chloroplasts

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10
Q

What do bacterial cells not contain?

A

A Nucleus

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11
Q

List the subcellular structures of a bacterial cell

A

Ribosomes, Chromosomal DNA, Cell Membrane, Plasmid DNA and Flagella

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12
Q

State the role of the human egg cell

A

To carry the female DNA and to nourish the developing embryo in the early stages

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13
Q

How is the human egg cell adapted to its function (specialised)?

A

Haploid Nucleus
Contains nutrients in the cytoplasm to feed the embryo
Straight after fertilisation its membrane changes structure to stop any sperm getting in so the offspring contains the right amount of dna

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14
Q

What is the function of the sperm cell?

A

Transport the male’s DNA to the females egg

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15
Q

How is the sperm adapted to its function (specialised)?

A

Long tail so it can swim to the egg (flagellum)
Lots of mitochondria in the middle section to provide the energy needed to swim
Acrosome head which stores enzymes needed to digest through the membrane the membrane into the egg
Haploid nucleus

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16
Q

Cilliated Epithelial Cells function?

A

To move substances

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17
Q

Where are Cilliated Epithelial Cells located?

A

The surfaces of organs

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18
Q

How are Cilliated Epithelial Cells adapted to their function (specialised)?

A

Beat to move substances in one direction

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19
Q

What do microscopes use to magnify images?

A

Lenses

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20
Q

What are the two things a microscope does?

A

Magnifies the image

Increases the resolution of the image

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21
Q

What are the two current types of microscopes?

A

Electron and light microscopes

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22
Q

When was the light microscope invented?

A

1590s

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23
Q

How does the light microscope work?

A

Passing light through the specimen

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24
Q

What can you see with a light microscope?

A

Nuclei and chloroplasts

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25
Q

When was the electronic microscope invented?

A

1930s

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26
Q

How does the electronic microscope work?

A

Uses electrons rather than light

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27
Q

What can you see with a electron microscope?

A

The internal structure of mitochondria and chloroplasts

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28
Q

What is the advantage of using light microscopes over electron microscopes?

A

Light microscopes can be used to study living cells, electron microscopes cannot

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29
Q

Why do you need to take a small slice of the specimen with a light microscope?

A

The specimen needs to let light through it

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30
Q

What must you apply to the slide before putting the specimen on?

A

Water using a pipette

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31
Q

What must you do if the specimen is transparent or colourless?

A

Add a drop of stain

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32
Q

What does methylene blue stain?

A

DNA

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33
Q

What do you place on the end of the specimen?

A

A cover slip

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34
Q

Which level objective lens do you select first?

A

The lowest magnitude lens

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35
Q

What must you do with the coarse adjustment knob?

A

Move it whilst looking down at the specimen until it is nearly in focus

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36
Q

What must you do with the fine adjustment knob?

A

Adjust the focus until you get a clear image

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37
Q

What must you do if the image is not magnified enough?

A

Select a higher magnitude lens and then refocus accordingly

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38
Q

What is the total magnification formula?

A

Eyepiece lens magnification x Objective lens magnification = Total Magnification

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39
Q

What is the magnification formula?

A

image size / real size = magnification

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40
Q

List the four small scientific prefixes and their standard form

A

Pico - x10^12
Nano - x10^9
Micro - x10^6
Milli - x10^3

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41
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A biological catalyst

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42
Q

Why isn’t body temperature simply used to speed up reaction

A

Although useful reactions will be sped up, harmful/useless/unwanted reactions will be sped up aswell

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43
Q

What do enzymes reduce the need of?

A

Enzymes reduce the need of high temperatures

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44
Q

What is the biological name for the molecule changed in the reaction?

A

Substrate

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45
Q

Define the active site - in terms of enzymes

A

The part where the enzyme joins on to its substrate the catalyse the reaction

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46
Q

How many types of substrates do enzymes usually work with?

A

One

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47
Q

True or False? Enzymes are not said to have a high specificity for their substrate

A

False, they do have a high specificity for their substrate

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48
Q

What will happen if the substrate doesn’t fit into the enzyme?

A

The reaction will not be catalysed

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49
Q

How does changing the temperature change the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A

The higher the temperature, the faster the reaction, however, if it gets too hot the protein bonds holding the enzyme together break which changes the shape of the active site, preventing the substrate from fitting in

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50
Q

How does changing the pH change the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A

There is an optimum pH for the respective enzyme, which is where that respective reaction is at its fastest, however, if the pH gets too high or too low the protein bonds holding the enzyme together break which changes the shape of the active site, preventing the substrate from fitting in

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51
Q

What is usually the optimum pH of an enzyme?

A

7 (neutral)

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52
Q

What is the optimum pH of pepsin and what does it do?

A

It is an enzyme that is used to break down proteins

The optimum pH for pepsin is 2, which leads to it being well-suited to the acidic conditions found within the stomach

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53
Q

Define denature - in terms of enzymes

A

If an enzyme is denatured its active site is no longer functional therefore the ability to catalyse a reaction may be lost

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54
Q

What will cause an enzyme to denature?

A

A drastic change in temperature, pH or chemical environment

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55
Q

How does changing the substrate concentration change the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

A

The higher the substrate concentration, the faster the rate of reaction

This is because its more likely the enzymes will meet up and react with its respective substrate

This is true to a point, as there are a limited amount of enzymes therefore if all active sites are full, adding more makes no difference

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56
Q

What does the enzyme amylase catalyse?

A

The breakdown of starch into maltose

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57
Q

How do you detect starch?

A

If starch is present, iodine will change from browny-orange to blue-black

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58
Q

In order to investigate the effect of pH on enzyme activity what must you do?

A

Put a drop of iodine into every well of a spotting tile
Place a tripod and gauze over a bunsen burner and heat the water until it reaches 35 degrees celsius
Then, using a syringe, add 3cm^3 of amylase solution and 1cm^3 of a buffer solution with a pH of 5 to the boiling tube
Next, use a different syringe to add 3cm^3 of a starch solution to the boiling tube
Immediately mix the contents, every 10 seconds take a fresh sample of the solution and when the solution remains browny-orange starch is no longer present

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59
Q

Why must you use a different syringe when investigating the effect of pH on enzyme activity and applying the amylase and then the starch solution?

A

The reaction will occur before the stopwatch is started if same syringe is used.

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60
Q

What do enzymes break down?

A

Big molecules

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61
Q

Give three examples of big molecules found within the body?

A

Proteins, lipids and some carbohydrates

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62
Q

Why is it important that organisms are able to break down proteins, lipids and carbohydrates?

A

So they can be used for growth and other life processes
But also, many of the molecules may be to big to fit through the walls of our digestive system, therefore the enzymes must break them down so they can be digested

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63
Q

What do plants store energy in the form of?

A

Starch

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64
Q

What enzymes convert carbohydrates into simple sugars?

A

Carbohydrase

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65
Q

Name an example of a carbohydrase

A

Amylase

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66
Q

What enzymes convert proteins into amino acids?

A

Proteases

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67
Q

What enzymes convert lipids into glycerol and fatty acids?

A

Lipease

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68
Q

What is the smaller version of a protein?

A

An amino acid

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69
Q

What is the smaller version of a lipid?

A

A glycerol and fatty acid

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70
Q

What is the smaller version of a carbohydrate?

A

A simple sugar

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71
Q

What is the chemical used to test for sugars?

A

Benedicts Reagent

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72
Q

What is the chemical used to test for starch?

A

Iodine

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73
Q

What is the test for sugars?

A

Add benedicts reagent, which is blue, to a sample and heat it in a water bath thats set to 75 degrees celsius
If the test is positive there will be a noticeable colour change

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74
Q

How does the colour of benedicts reagant change depending on the sugar concentration?

A

Blue -> Green -> Yellow -> Orange -> Brick Red

The higher the concentration the further the colour from blue

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75
Q

What is the test for starch?

A

Add iodine to solution, if starch present colour will change from browny-orange to a dark, blue-black colour

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76
Q

What is the emulsion test for lipids?

A

Shake the sample with ethanol until it dissolves, add solution to water
If lipid present, precipitate will form, which shows up as milky emulsion
The more lipid there is, the more noticeable the milky colour

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77
Q

What is the biuret test for proteins?

A

First, add a few drops of potassium hydroxide to make the solution alkaline
Then add some copper(ii) sulfate (CuS04) which is bright blue
If protein present, solution will turn purple

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78
Q

What are the three things you need for the calorimetry experiment?

A

Dry Food, Water, Flame

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79
Q

True or false? The food in the calorimetry experiment must not burn easily

A

False, the food must be dry and easily flammable

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80
Q

Describe the calorimetry experiment

A

Weigh a small amount of the food and then skewer it on a mounted needle
Add a known amount of water to a boiling tube
Set fire of the food, immediately hold the burning food under the boiling tube
Repeat until food no longer sets alight
Measure temperature change and use energy in food equation

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81
Q

What is the energy in food equation?

A

Energy in Food = Mass of Water x Temperature change of Water x 4.2

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82
Q

Define diffusion

A

Diffusion is the net movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

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83
Q

What states of matter does diffusion occur?

A

Liquid and Gas

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84
Q

Define osmosis

A

Osmosis is the net movement of particles across a partially permeable membrane from a region of higher water concentration to a region of lower water concentration

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85
Q

What is a partially permeable membrane?

A

A membrane with very small holes in it. So small that only small molecules can pass through them

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86
Q

Give an example of a tiny molecule

A

Water

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87
Q

Give an example of a large molecule

A

Sucrose

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88
Q

Which ways do water molecules pass during osmosis?

A

Both ways

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89
Q

Define active transport

A

Active transport is the movement of particles across a membrane against a concentration gradient using energy transferred during respiration

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90
Q

How is active transport different from diffusion/osmosis?

A

Active transport moves up a concentration gradient rather than down therefore active transport requires energy so its an active process

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91
Q

Give an example of active transport

A

Nutrients in the human gut
When theres a higher concentration of nutrients in the gut than in the blood, the nutrients diffuse naturally
When theres a lower concentration of nutrients in the gut than in the blood, active transport allows nutrients to be taken into the blood

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92
Q

In the investigating osmosis practical, how do you cut the potato?

A

Cut into the same sized pieces using a cork borer

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93
Q

Once potatoes are weighed and put into the solution, how long should you wait?

A

At least 40 minutes

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94
Q

What must you ensure you do once you remove the potatoes during the investigating osmosis practical?

A

Dry them to remove excess water

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95
Q

What is the only thing you change in the investigating osmosis practical?

A

The sucrose solution concentration

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96
Q

What is the percentage change equation?

A

Change / Orignal x 100 = Percentage Change

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97
Q

If a solution is isotonic, what does it mean?

A

Both solutions contain the same amount of water molecules

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98
Q

What do most human cells have?

A

A nucleus

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99
Q

What does the cell nucleus contain?

A

Genetic material in the form of chromosomes

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100
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

Coiled up lengths of DNA molecules

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101
Q

How many copies of each chromosomes do human cells usually have?

A

Two, one from the organisms “mother”, the other from the “father”

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102
Q

List the phases within the cell cycle, in order

A

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase and Cytokenisis

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103
Q

What occurs during the interphase?

A

Subcellular structures duplicate
DNA is then duplicated to form X-shaped chromosomes with each arm of the chromosome being an exact duplicate of the other

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104
Q

What occurs during the prophase?

A

Chromosomes condense getting shorter and fatter

The membrane around the nucleus break down leading to the chromosomes lying free in the cytoplasm

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105
Q

What occurs during the metaphase?

A

The chromosomes line up at the centre of the cell

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106
Q

What occurs during the anaphase?

A

Spindle fibres pull the chromosomes apart

Then the chromatids are pulled to opposite ends of the cell

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107
Q

What occurs during the telophase?

A

Membranes form around each of the sets of chromosomes

These become the nuclei of the two new cells

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108
Q

What occurs during the cytokinesis phase?

A

The cytoplasm and cell membrane divid to form two separate cells

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109
Q

What is left after mitosis?

A

Two identical new daughter cells

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110
Q

How do you calculate the number of cells after multiple divisions?

A

Number of cells = 2^n

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111
Q

What is the function of spindle fibres in the cell cycle?

A

They pull apart the chromsomes to form chromatids

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112
Q

Define growth

A

The increase in size or mass

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113
Q

How do plants and animals grow and develop?

A

Cell Division and Cell Differentiation

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114
Q

Define Cell Differentiation

A

The process by which a cell changes to become specialised for its jobs

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115
Q

What does specialised cells enable an organism to do?

A

Work more efficiently

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116
Q

How else can plants grow?

A

Cell Elongation

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117
Q

Define cell elongation

A

The process by which a plant cell expands, making the cell bigger and so making the plant grow

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118
Q

When do animals grow the most?

A

At an early age

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119
Q

Why do animals still divide once fully grown?

A

Replace old or damaged cells

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120
Q

Where does cell division usually happen in plants?

A

The tips of the roots and shoots (meritstems)

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121
Q

What is a tumour?

A

A mass of abnormal cells

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122
Q

What are growth charts used to assess?

A

A childs growth

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123
Q

What are the three measurements taken for growth charts?

A

Length, mass and head circumference

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124
Q

What are undifferentiated cells called?

A

Stem cells

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125
Q

Where are human stem cells found?

A

The human embryo and bone marrow

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126
Q

What are the stem cells found within the embryo called?

A

An embryonic stem cell

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127
Q

Why are embryonic stem cells more useful than adult stem cells?

A

Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into any type of human cell whilst adult stem cells are much more limited

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128
Q

What are the only plant cells that can divide by mitosis?

A

The plant cells found in plant tissues called meristems

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129
Q

Where is meristem tissue found?

A

Areas of a plant that are growing

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130
Q

What do meritstems produce?

A

Unspecialised cells that are able to divide and form any cell type

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131
Q

In medicine what may be possible to do with stem cells?

A

Replace damaged tissue

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132
Q

What are the potential risks of using stem cells in medicine?

A

Tumour Development, Disease transmission and Rejection

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133
Q

What may cause rejection with stem cells?

A

If the stem cells aren’t grown using the patient’s own stem cells

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134
Q

What could cause disease transmission when using stem cells for medicine?

A

Viruses live inside cells therefore if donor cells are infected, the virus could be passed on to the patient

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135
Q

How could using stem cells in medicine lead to tumour development?

A

Stem cells divide very quickly therefore if the scientists are unable to control the rate the stem cells divide, a tumour may develop

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136
Q

What is one ethical issue surrounding embryonic stem cell use in medicine?

A

Embryos may be classed as life, therefore they shouldnt be used for experiment because each one is a potential human life

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137
Q

What makes up the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

A

The brain and the spinal cord

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138
Q

What is the spinal cord?

A

A long column of neurones that run from the base of the brain

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139
Q

What are three parts of the human brain?

A

Cerebrum, Cerebellum and Medulla oblongata

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140
Q

What does the cerebrum control?

A

Movement, Intelligence, Memory, Language and Vision

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141
Q

What does the cerebellum control?

A

Muscle coordination and Balance

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142
Q

What does the medulla oblongata control?

A

Unconscious activites, such as breathing and your heart rate

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143
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

A

Cerebrum

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144
Q

What does a CT scanner use to produce an image of the brain?

A

X-rays

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145
Q

What does a CT scan show?

A

The main structures of the brain

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146
Q

What doesn’t a CT scan show?

A

The functions of the structures of the brain

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147
Q

What does a PET scanner use to produce images of the brain?

A

Radioactive chemicals

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148
Q

What does a PET scan show?

A

The main structures of the brain and their function

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149
Q

State an advantage of using a PET scan over a CT scan

A

A PET scan can see the brain in real time, therefore the function of the structures can be understood

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150
Q

Why can be treating problems in the CNS be tricky?

A

Hard to repair
Hard to access
Treatment may lead to permanent damage

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151
Q

Why is CNS damage hard to repair?

A

Scientists are yet to discover a way to repair nervous tissue

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152
Q

What does the CNS coordinate?

A

A response

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153
Q

What is the CNS made up of?

A

Neurones (nerve cells)

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154
Q

What is a sensory receptor?

A

A group of cells that can detect a change in your environment

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155
Q

What is a stimulus?

A

A detectable change in the environment of an organism that results in some functional activity

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156
Q

Name examples of different stimuli within the human body

A

Receptors in eyes detect light receptors in skin detect touch and temperature changes

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157
Q

What happens when a stimulus is detected by receptors?

A

The information is converted to a nervous (electrical) impulse and then sent along sensory neurons to the CNS

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158
Q

What happens when the CNS coordinates the response?

A

The impulse response travels through the CNS along relay neurones

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159
Q

Define an effector in terms of the CNS

A

Effectors are parts of the body (muscles or glands) that produce a response to a detected stimulus.

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160
Q

How does the CNS send the required info to an effector?

A

Along a motor neurone

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161
Q

State two examples of a effector responding accordingly

A

A muscle contracting or a gland secreting it’s respective hormone

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162
Q

Define reaction time in terms of the CNS

A

How long it takes for you to respond to a stimulus

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163
Q

True or false? Neurones have a cell body with a nucleus?

A

True, they also have cytoplasm and other subcellular structures

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164
Q

What are the names of the extensions of a neurone that connect to other neurones?

A

Dendrites and Dendrons

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165
Q

What is the role of dendrites and dendrons?

A

To carry the nerve impulses towards the cell body

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166
Q

What are the names of the extensions of a neurone that carry nerve impulses away?

A

Axons

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167
Q

What is the role of an Axon?

A

To carry the nerve impulses away from the cell body

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168
Q

What are some axons surrounded by?

A

A myelin sheath

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169
Q

What is the role of a myelin sheath?

A

An electrical insulator, which speeds up the impulse

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170
Q

Is a smaller neurone faster than a longer one?

A

No, the longer the neurone, the faster the impulse is

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171
Q

Why is a longer neurone faster than a longer one?

A

No time wasted on the impulse travelling between to another neurone

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172
Q

Name the 3 types of neurones

A

Sensory, Motor and Relay Neurone

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173
Q

Describe the shape of a sensory neurone

A

One long dendron from receptor cells to the cell body which is located in the middle
One short axon carriers nerve impulses from the cell body to the CNS

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174
Q

Describe the shape of a motor neurone

A

Many short dendrites carry nerve impulses from the CNS to the cell body
One long axon carriers nerve impulses from the cell body to effector cells

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175
Q

Describe the shape of a relay neurone

A

Many short dendrites carry nerve impulses from sensory neurones to the cell body
An axon carries nerve impulses from the cell body to motor neurones

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176
Q

Which neurone has its axon surrounded in myelin sheath?

A

The Motor Neurone

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177
Q

Describe the order of the neurones

A

Sensory Neurone -> CNS -> Relay Neurone -> Motor Neurone

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178
Q

What do synapses connect?

A

Neurones

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179
Q

What do we call the connection between two neurones?

A

A synapse

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180
Q

What is the name of the chemicals which carriers the nerve signal across a synapse?

A

Neurotransmitters

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181
Q

What is a Neurotransmitter

A

A chemical which transfers a nerve signal across a synapse

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182
Q

Explain why the nervous impulse is slowed down a bit by a synapse?

A

It takes time for the neurotransmitters to diffuse across the gap

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183
Q

Define a reflex

A

Automatic and rapid response to a stimuli

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184
Q

What is the goal of a reflex?

A

To reduce the chances of being injured

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185
Q

Define reflex arc

A

The passage of information in a reflex (receptor to effector)

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186
Q

Why is a reflex quicker than a conscious activity?

A

With a reflex, no time is spent on thinking about the response

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187
Q

Give an example of a reflex within the human body

A

The human eye contracting and dilating depending on the light intensity

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188
Q

What is the human eye contracting and dilating depending on the light intensity an example of?

A

A reflex

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189
Q

How does the eye reflex work?

A

Light receptors in eye detect very bright light and send a message along a sensory neurone to the brain
Message travels along a relay neurone to a motor neurone which tells the circular muscles in the iris to contract making the pupil smaller

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190
Q

State all the parts of a human eye

A

Cornea, Iris, Lens, Retina, Rods / Cones and the optical nerve

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191
Q

What is the role of a cornea within a human eye?

A

The cornea refracts / bends the light into the eye

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192
Q

What is the role of an iris within a human eye?

A

The iris controls how much light enters the pupil

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193
Q

What is the pupil in a human eye?

A

The hole in the middle

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194
Q

What is the role of a lens within a human eye?

A

The lens refracts light, focusing it on the retina

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195
Q

What is the role of a retina within a human eye?

A

The retina is the light sensitive part and its covered in receptor cells

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196
Q

What is the role of the rods within a human eye?

A

The rods are more sensitive to dim light but can’t sense colour

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197
Q

What is the role of the cone within a human eye?

A

The cones are sensitive to different colours but are not so good in dim lights

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198
Q

What is the role of a optical nerve within a human eye?

A

The optical nerve is the nerve that carries the information from light (which was converted into electrical impulses) to the brain

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199
Q

What is the light sensitive part of a human eye?

A

The retina

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200
Q

What part of the eye can detect light but not colour?

A

Rods

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201
Q

What part of the eye can detect colour but not light?

A

Cones

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202
Q

True or false? The lens is elastic?

A

True

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203
Q

Why is the lens elastic?

A

So the eye can focus light onto the retina by changing the shape of the lens

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204
Q

What happens to the cillary muscles when looking at distant objects?

A

It relaxes

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205
Q

What happens to the cillary muscles when looking at close objects?

A

It contracts

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206
Q

Why does the cillary muscle relax when looking at distant objects?

A

To pull the suspensory ligaments to pull tight which pulls the lens into a less rounded shape so light is refracted less

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207
Q

Why does the cillary muscle contract when looking at close objects?

A

To slacken the suspensory ligaments which turns the lens into a more rounded shape so light is refracted more

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208
Q

What happens when a human is long-sighted?

A

The lens is the wrong shape and doesn’t bend the light enough so the light is brought into focus behind the retina

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209
Q

What two things cause being long-sighted?

A

The lens being the wrong shape or the eyeball being too short

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210
Q

What type of lenses corrects long-sighted humans?

A

Convex / Converging

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211
Q

What happens when a human is short-sighted?

A

The lens is the wrong shape and bends the light too much so the light is brought into focus in front of the retina

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212
Q

What two things cause being long-sighted?

A

The lens being the wrong shape or the eyeball being too long

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213
Q

What type of lenses corrects short-sighted humans?

A

Concave / Diverging

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214
Q

What causes a human to be colour blind?

A

The cones not working properly

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215
Q

What is a cataract in the eye

A

A cloudy patch on the lens

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216
Q

What does a cataract stop?

A

Light from being to enter the eye

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217
Q

Why can’t we cure colour blindness at the moment?

A

Cone cells can’t be replaced

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218
Q

Can we cure a cataract?

A

Yes

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219
Q

How do we cure a cataract?

A

By replacing the faulty lens with an artifical one

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220
Q

What is the W.H.O definition of good health?

A

The state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disea or infirmity

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221
Q

If someone is very physically fit, but has mental health issues are they healthy according to the W.H.O definition?

A

No

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222
Q

Define disease

A

A condition where part of an organism doesn’t function properly

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223
Q

What are the two types of disease?

A

Communicable and non-communicable

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224
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

A disease that can be spread between individuals

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225
Q

What is a non-communicable disease?

A

A disease that can’t be spread between individuals

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226
Q

Give an example of a communicable disease

A

Cholera, Malaria or Tuberculosis

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227
Q

Give an example of a non-communicable disease

A

Cancer, Diabetes or CVD

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228
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

A disease causing organism

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229
Q

What are examples of types of pathogens?

A

Bacteria, fungi, viruses and protists

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230
Q

What is a protist?

A

A eukaryotic single-celled organism

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231
Q

What type of pathogen causes cholera?

A

A bacterium (Vibrio Cholerae)

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232
Q

What are the symptoms of cholera?

A

Diarrhoea

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233
Q

How does cholera spread?

A

Contaminated water sources

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234
Q

What are methods to reduce cholera transmission?

A

Ensuring people have access to clean water supplies

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235
Q

What type of pathogen causes tuberculosis?

A

A bacterium (Mycobacterium Tuberculosis)

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236
Q

What are the symptoms of tuberculosis?

A

Coughing and lung damage

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237
Q

How does tuberculosis spread?

A

Through the air when infected individuals cough

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238
Q

What are methods to reduce tuberculosis transmission?

A

Good hygiene

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239
Q

What type of pathogen causes malaria?

A

A protist

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240
Q

What are the symptoms of malaria?

A

Damage to red blood cells and even liver damage

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241
Q

How does malaria spread?

A

Mosquitoes (the vector) pass on the protist to humans

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242
Q

What are methods to reduce malaria transmission?

A

Mosquito nets and insect repellent

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243
Q

What type of pathogen causes stomach ulcers?

A

A bacterium (Helicobacter pylori)

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244
Q

What are the symptoms of stomach ulcers?

A

Stomach pain, nausea and vomiting

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245
Q

How does stomach ulcer spread?

A

Oral transmission (swallowing contaminated water/food)

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246
Q

What are methods to reduce stomach ulcer transmission?

A

Having clean water supplies and hygienic living conditions

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247
Q

What type of pathogen causes ebola?

A

A virus (Ebola virus)

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248
Q

What are the symptoms of ebola?

A

Haemorrhagic fever (Fever + Bleeding)

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249
Q

How does ebola spread?

A

Bodily fluids

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250
Q

What are methods to reduce ebola transmission?

A

Isolating infected individuals and sterilising any areas where the virus may be present

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251
Q

What type of pathogen causes chalara ash dieback?

A

A fungus

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252
Q

What are the symptoms of chalara ash dieback?

A

Leaf loss and bark lesions

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253
Q

How does chalara ash dieback spread?

A

Through the air/wind

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254
Q

What are methods to reduce chalara ash dieback transmission?

A

Removing young, infected ash trees and replanting with different species or restricting imports/movement of ash trees

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255
Q

What is a vector, in terms of disease transmission?

A

A vector is an organism which passes on a pathogen without getting the respective disease (showing symptoms)

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256
Q

What are viruses?

A

Usually a protein coat around a strand of genetic material

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257
Q

What must viruses do in order to reproduce?

A

Infect other living cells

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258
Q

Name the two types of virus pathways?

A

Lytic and lysogenic

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259
Q

What is the lytic pathway?

A

Virus attaches to host cell and injects genetic material
Genetical material uses proteins and enzymes in cell to replicate its material
Viral components assemble
Host cell splits open, releasing new viruses, which infect more cells

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260
Q

What is the lysogenic pathway?

A

Genetic material becomes incorporated into the genome of the cell (DNA)
As the cell divides, the viral genetic material divides aswell. However, the virus is dormant and no new viruses are made
Eventually a trigger causes the material to leave the genome and enter the lytic pathway

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261
Q

Give an example of a trigger within the lysogenic pathway

A

The presence of a chemical

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262
Q

In which virus pathway is the virus dormant for most of the cycle?

A

The lysogenic pathway

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263
Q

What does the virus use in the lytic pathway to replicate?

A

The host cells proteins and enzymes

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264
Q

State two STI’s

A

Chlamydia and HIV

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265
Q

What type of pathogen causes Chlamydia?

A

A bacterium

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266
Q

How is the chlamydia bacterium different to a normal bacterium?

A

The bacterium acts in a similar way to a virus as it can only replicate in host cells

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267
Q

What are the symptoms of Chlamydia?

A

Sometime’s causes infertility

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268
Q

What are methods of preventing Chlamydia transmission?

A

Wearing a condom during sex and screending individuals so they can be treated for the infection

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269
Q

What type of pathogen causes HIV?

A

A virus

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270
Q

What does the HIV virus kill?

A

White blood cells

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271
Q

What does HIV infection eventually lead to?

A

AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)

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272
Q

What is AIDS?

A

When the infected person’s immune system deterioates and eventually fails

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273
Q

Why is AIDS so bad?

A

Because the immune system is extremely weak or non-existent the person becomes very vulnerable to opportunistic infections by other pathogens

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274
Q

How is HIV spread?

A

Bodily fluids

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275
Q

What are methods of preventing HIV transmission?

A

Wearing a condom, avoid sharing needles and medication can be used to reduce the risk of an infected indivudals passing the virus on to others during sex/pregnancy

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276
Q

What are examples of physical defenses within plants?

A

Waxy cuticle on leaves and stems and the cells are surrounded with cell walls

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277
Q

Why is a waxy cuticle a defense within plants?

A

Acts as a barrier to stop pathogens entering whilst laos stopping water collection on the leaf which could reduce infection

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278
Q

Why is a cell wall a defense within plants?

A

Acts as a barrier preventing pathogens that make it past the waxy cuticle

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279
Q

What is a plant cell wall made of?

A

Cellulose

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280
Q

What are examples of chemical defenses within plants?

A

Quinine and Aspirin

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281
Q

In the field, how are plant disease usually detected?

A

Observations

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282
Q

How can plant pathologists identify the pathogen involved?

A

Different pathogens are spread in different way

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283
Q

How do plant pathologists detect antigens?

A

Monoclonal antibodies can be used to detect the antigens present from a particular pathogen within a cell tissue
The pathogen can then be used to identify the disease

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284
Q

How do plant pathologists detect DNA?

A

If a pathogen is present, it’s DNA will be present in the plants tissue
Techniques can be used to identify the DNA

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285
Q

What are examples of physical barriers within human body?

A

Skin, Hairs and Mucus and Cells in the tranchea

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286
Q

Why is skin a defense within humans?

A

Acts as a barrier to prevent pathogens entering

Blood will also clot to quickly seal cuts

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287
Q

Why does hair and mucus in your nose act as a defense within humans?

A

They trap particles that could contain pathogens

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288
Q

Why do cells in your trachea and bronchi act as a defense within humans?

A

They produce mucus which traps pathogens

Also occasionally have cillia on them

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289
Q

What are examples of chemical barriers within human body?

A

HCL in stomach and lysosomes in tears

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290
Q

Why does hydrochloric acid in the stomach act as a defense within humans?

A

It kills most pathogens that are swallowed

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291
Q

Why does lysosomes in tears act as a defense within humans?

A

It kills bacteria on the surface of the eye

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292
Q

What destroys pathogens within the human body?

A

The immune system (eg. Lymphocytes and Phagocytes)

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293
Q

What do white blood cells use to travel around the body?

A

The blood (Circulatory System)

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294
Q

What does every pathgogen have on it’s surface?

A

Antigens

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295
Q

Where is the antigen located on a pathogen?

A

The surface

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296
Q

What is a pathogens antigen usually made from?

A

Protein

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297
Q

What happens when the b-lymphocytes locates an antigen?

A

The b-lymphocytes begins to produce antibodies (proteins)

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298
Q

What do the antibodies to do the antigens?

A

Bind to them so other white blood cells can destroy them

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299
Q

True or False? The antibodies produced are specific to that pathogen so they won’t lock on to any other pathogens?

A

True

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300
Q

What is also produced alongside the antibodies?

A

Memory lymphocytes

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301
Q

Why is the response to a pathogen slow at first?

A

No b-lymphocytes that can make the respective antibody

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302
Q

When is the person “immune” to a specific antigen?

A

When the b-lymphocytes have produced memory lymphocytes for that specific antigen

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303
Q

How is the secondary response different to the first, in terms of pathogen infection?

A

The secondary response is not only faster but also stronger

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304
Q

Why is the secondary response faster and stronger?

A

Memory lymphocytes are present to quickly produce antibodies for the specific antigen

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305
Q

What does immunisation usually involve injecting into the body?

A

Dead or inactive pathogens

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306
Q

What must the pathogens be that are injected into the body during immunisation?

A

Antigenic (carry antigens)

307
Q

What do the antigenic pathogens cause to be made?

A

Memory lymphocytes

308
Q

Why does immunisation help prevent infection?

A

Memory lymphocytes are produced because of the dead/inactive antigenic pathogens
On infection of live pathogens of the same type, fast response due to memory lymphocytes

309
Q

What are the pros of immunisation?

A

Herd Immunity and disease eradication

310
Q

What are the cons of immunisation?

A

Doesn’t always work and a bad reaction may occur (rejection)

311
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

If a certain percentage of the population are immune to a pathogen, there are fewer people to pass on the pathogen

312
Q

Name a disease that has been virtually wiped out by vaccines?

A

Smallpox

313
Q

What are examples of a bad reaction to a vaccine?

A

Swellin, fever or even seizures

314
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies?

A

Identical antibodies

315
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B-lymphocytes

316
Q

Why is a tumour cell fused with a b-lymphocyte?

A

Although tumour cells don’t produce antibodies, they do rapidly divide

317
Q

What type of tumour cell is most oftenly used for monoclonal antibodies?

A

A myeloma cell (tumorous white blood cell)

318
Q

What is the name of the cell produced when a myeloma cell is fused with a monoclonal antibody?

A

A hybridoma cell

319
Q

Why are monoclonal antibodies useful?

A

They can be made to bind to anything you want, therefore they can be used to target a specific cell or chemical found within the body

320
Q

What hormone is found within the human urine only when a woman is pregnant?

A

HCG

321
Q

Which hormone do pregnancy testing sticks test for?

A

HCG

322
Q

What is found on the area of the pregnancy stick you urinate on?

A

Antibodies that will bind to HCG, with blue beads attached

323
Q

What is found on the test strip on the pregnancy stick?

A

Antibodies that will bind to HCG. However, they are stuck onto the strip

324
Q

Why are the antibodies stuck to the test strip?

A

So they don’t move

325
Q

What would happen to the pregnancy stick if you’re pregnant and urinate on it?

A

The hormone will bind to the antibodies on the blue beads
The urine will move up the stick, carrying the hormone and the beads
The beads and hormone bind to the antibodies on the strip
The blue beads get stuck, leading to the blue colour change

326
Q

What would happen to the pregnancy stick if you’re not pregnant and urinate on it?

A

The urine will move up the stick, carrying the beads

The blue beads don’t get stuck, leading to no colour change

327
Q

What do cancer cells have that allow them to be targeted by monoclonal antibodies?

A

They have proteins on their cell membranes that aren’t found on normal body cells. These are called tumour markers

328
Q

When using monoclonal antibodies to diagnose cancer what must you do first with the antibodies?

A

Label them with a radioactive element

329
Q

How are the labelled monoclonal antibodies given to the patient?

A

Through a drip (which goes into the blood and is carried around the body)

330
Q

What happens when the labelled monoclonal antibodies come into contact with the cancer cells?

A

They bind to the tumour markers

331
Q

What is used to find the labelled monoclonal antibodies?

A

A radio-sensitive camera

332
Q

What are the results from the radio-sensitive camera show?

A

The location of the cancer, the size of the cancer and whether it’s spreading or not

333
Q

When treating cancer, what is attached to the monoclonal antibodies?

A

An anti-cancer drug

334
Q

How is the monoclonal antibodies given to the patient when treating cancer?

A

Through a drip (which goes into the blood and is carried around the body)

335
Q

Why do the monoclonal antibodies target only the cancer cells?

A

Because they only bind to the unique tumour markers

336
Q

True or False? The drug attached to the monoclonal antibody kills the cancer cells and body cells?

A

False, only the cancer cells are killed

337
Q

Why is using monoclonal antibodies better than methods such as radiotherapy?

A

Monoclonal antibodies only kill cancer cells, whereas, radiotherapy kills all the cells within a given area

338
Q

True or False? The side-effects of monoclonal antibodies for treating cancer are lower than radiotherapy?

A

True

339
Q

True or False? Monoclonal antibodies can’t be used to find blood clots as they don’t have antigens?

A

False

340
Q

How come monoclonal antibodies can be used to find blood clots?

A

When a blood clot forms, proteins in the blood join together to form a solid mesh
Monoclonal antibodies can be used to bind to these proteins

341
Q

What must you attach to a monoclonal antibodies when finding blood clots?

A

A radioactive element

342
Q

How do you use a labelled monoclonal antibody to find blood clots?

A

Inject the labelled monoclonal antibodies into the body
Take a picture using a radio-sensitive camera, if on the photo there is an area with a really bright spot, there is a blood clot in that location

343
Q

Why is finding blood clots useful?

A

You can easily find a potentially harmful blood clot and get rid of it before it harms the patient

344
Q

How do antibiotics work?

A

They inhibit processes in bacterial cells - but not in the host cells

345
Q

What is an example of an antibiotic preventing processes within bacterial cells?

A

Some antibiotics work by destroying the cell wall which prevents the cell from dying, therefore the cell will die without any daughter cells

346
Q

Why is it important to be treated with the right antibiotic?

A

Different antibiotics kill different types of bacteria

347
Q

True or False? Antibiotics kill viruses

A

False, they don’t as viruses reproduce using your body cells therefore they are resistant to the antibiotics as antibiotics won’t target host cells

348
Q

Why can’t antibiotics kill viruses?

A

Viruses reproduce using your body cells therefore they are resistant to the antibiotics as antibiotics can’t target host cells without killing them

349
Q

What are the two phases of testing for antibiotics?

A

Preclinical and clinical testing

350
Q

What is the first stage of preclinical testing?

A

Drugs are tested on human cells and tissues

351
Q

What is the second stage of preclinical testing?

A

Drugs are tested on live animals

352
Q

What is the goal of the second stage of preclinical testing?

A

To test that the drug works, whether it produces the effect you’re looking for) and to find out how toxic it is

353
Q

What is the first stage of clinical testing?

A

The drug is tested on healthy volunteers

354
Q

What is the goal of the first stage of clinical testing?

A

To ensure there aren’t any harmful side effects when the body is working normally

355
Q

What is the second stage of clinical testing?

A

The drug is tested on volunteers who are infected with the disease respective to that antibiotic

356
Q

What is the goal of the second stage of clinical testing?

A

To find the optimum dosage

357
Q

What occurs once the drug passes clinical testing?

A

It must be approved by a medical agency to be used

358
Q

What is a disadvantage of testing drugs on human cells and tissue?

A

You can’t test drugs that affect whole or multiple body systems

359
Q

True or False? The first stage of clinical testing involves testing the drug on infected individuals?

A

False, it is first given to healthy volunteers

360
Q

Define the optimum dose, in terms of antibiotics?

A

The dose of drug that is the most effective and has the fewest side effects

361
Q

Define placebo, in terms of antibiotics?

A

A substance that looks like the drug being tested but doesn’t do anything (eg. A sugar pill)

362
Q

What does using a placebo account for when testing for drugs?

A

The placebo effect which is when the patient expects the treatment to work so they feel better, even though the treatment isn’t doing anything

363
Q

Define a blind trial, in terms of drug testing?

A

The patient in the study doesn’t know whether they’re getting the drug or placebo

364
Q

Define a double blind trial, in terms of drug testing?

A

The patient nor the doctor know who has a placebo and who has the drug

365
Q

Why is a double blind trial sometimes done?

A

So the doctors analysing the results aren’t subconsciously influenced by their knowledge

366
Q

What are the two types of solution that can be used for a growth medium?

A

Nutrient broth solution or solid agar jelly

367
Q

What is used to transfer the microorganisms to the agar jelly after it’s been poured into a petri dish?

A

An inoculating loop (wire loop)

368
Q

What temperature are the petri dishes keep at in school?

A

25 degrees Celsius

369
Q

What does antiseptic kill?

A

Bacteria outside the body (eg. the skin)

370
Q

What’s the difference between antiseptics and antibiotics?

A

Antibiotics kill bacteria within the body where as antiseptics kill bacteria outside the body

371
Q

What is the name for the bacteria that aren’t affected by the antibiotic?

A

Antibiotic-resistant bacteria

372
Q

What is the control on an agar plate?

A

A paper disc

373
Q

Why is a control used on an agar plate?

A

Ensure the bacteria are killed due to the antibiotic, not to a property of the paper discs which are soaked with the antibiotic

374
Q

How do you tell how effective an antibiotic is when using agar plates?

A

The larger the inhibition zone, the more effective the antibiotic against the specific bacteria

375
Q

When using agar plates, what is the impact of contamination of unwanted microorganisms?

A

Results will be affected and could result in the growth of pathogens

376
Q

What does an autoclave use to kill any microorganisms present?

A

Steam at high pressure and high temperature

377
Q

List ways of steralising equipment

A

Gamma rays, autoclave or heat (bunsen burner)

378
Q

How is the inoculating loop steralised?

A

Passing it through a hot flame

379
Q

Why is the inoculating loop steralised?

A

So any unwated microogranisms are killed

380
Q

Why are liquid bacterial cultures kept in a culture vial with a lid?

A

To prevent other microbes getting in

381
Q

What is the liquid bacteria kept in?

A

A culture vial with a lid

382
Q

True or false? The petri dish should be stored upside down?

A

True, this is to avoid drops of condensation falling onto the agar

383
Q

Which way is the petri dish stored?

A

Upside down

384
Q

Why is the petri dish stored upside down?

A

To avoid drops of condensation falling onto the agar

385
Q

Define a risk factor, in terms of non-communicable disease

A

A factor that is linked to an increase in the likelihood that a person will develop a certain disease during their lifetime

386
Q

List risk factors that are unavoidable

A

Age or gender

387
Q

List risk factors that are avoidable

A

Smoking, drinking alcohol, diet or obesity

388
Q

How is smoking a risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

Nicotine, in smoke, increases the heart rate which increases blood pressure
Blood pressure damages artery walls, which contributes to the build up of fatty deposits in the arterys which restricts blood flow therefore increasing the risk of a heart attack/stroke

389
Q

What disease could too few, much nutrients lead to?

A

Scurvy (lack of vitamin c)

390
Q

How does excessive alcohol consumption act as a risk factor?

A

Alcohol is broken down by enzymes in the liver and some of the products are toxic
Therefore, drinking too much alcohol will cause an excessive amount of those toxic products which can cause permanent liver damage

391
Q

What non-communicable disease can excessive alcohol consumption lead to?

A

Cirrhosis

392
Q

List risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease

A

Obesity, lack of exercise, too much alcohol and a diet high in saturated fat

393
Q

How do non-communicable diseases affect the NHS at a local level?

A

Wastes money, beds and staff

394
Q

How do non-communicable diseases affect the NHS at a national level?

A

Wastes money, beds and staff but also puts a strain on the economy with less able workers

395
Q

How do non-communicable diseases have an affect at a global level?

A

Can hold back developing countries as cardiovascular disease is the number one cause of death worldwide

396
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

A fatty substance that the body needs to make things like cell membranes

397
Q

What does too much cholesterol cause?

A

Blood flow restriction as the fatty deposits build up in the arteries

398
Q

Where do the deposits occur?

A

Area’s where the artery wall have been damaged

399
Q

What is usually recomended first to treat cardiovascular disease?

A

Lifestyle changes

400
Q

Why are lifestyle changes recomended first when treating cardiovascular disease?

A

There are not really any downsides

401
Q

Why must people with cardiovascular disease eat less saturated fat?

A

Saturated fat can increase blood cholesterol level

402
Q

What are examples of drugs that can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Statins, anticoagulants and antihypertensives

403
Q

How do statins reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Statins reduce the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream which slows down the rates of deposits forming

404
Q

What are the side-effects of using statins to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Aching muscles or potentially liver damage

405
Q

How do anticoagulants reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Anticoagulants make blood clots less likely to form

406
Q

What are the side-effects of using anticoagulants to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Excessive bleeding, if in an accident

407
Q

What is an example of an anticoagulant?

A

Warfarin

408
Q

How do antihypertensives reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Antihypertensives reduce blood pressure, this helps to prevent damage to blood vessels which reduces the risk of fatty deposits forming

409
Q

What are the side-effects of using antihypertensives to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease?

A

Headaches and fainting

410
Q

What is an example of an antihypertensives?

A

Beta blockers

411
Q

Why are surgical procedures the last opportunity when treating cardiovascular disease?

A

Any type of surgery is a major procedure and there is a risk of bleeding, clots and infection

412
Q

Name 3 examples of surgical procedures to treat cardiovascular disease

A

Stents, coronary bypass surgery (CBS) and donor heart replacement

413
Q

Where are stents inserted?

A

Inside arteries

414
Q

Why are stents used to treat cardiovascular disease?

A

They keep the vessel open, allowing blood through lowering the risk of a heart attack

415
Q

What is a disadvantage of using stents to treat cardiovascular disease?

A

Overtime, the artery can narrow again as stents can irritate the atery and make scar tissue grow

416
Q

How is coronary bypass surgery used to treat cardiovascular disease?

A

A healthy vessel will enable blood to flow better, reducing blood pressure therefore the risk of cardiovascular disease decreases

417
Q

What are some disadvantages of using a donor heart?

A

New heart may not always start pumping properly and drugs have to be taken to prevent rejection (these drugs may also increase the vulnerability to infection)

418
Q

Why does cells need oxygen?

A

For aerobic respiration

419
Q

How do oxygen and carbon dioxide move between cells?

A

Diffusion

420
Q

How is urea produced by animals?

A

From proteins

421
Q

Where does urea diffuse from?

A

The cells to the blood plasma

422
Q

Why do single-celled organisms not require exchange surfaces?

A

They have a large enough SA:V so enough substances can be exchanged across the membrane to supply the volume of the cell

423
Q

Why do multi-cellular organisms require exchange surfaces?

A

They have a small SA:V so it makes it harder for enough substances to be exchanged to supply their entire volume

424
Q

What do multi-cellular organisms have because they cannot match the demand of substances?

A

Efficient exchange surfaces and mass transport systems

425
Q

What are the three factors that affect the rate of diffusion?

A

Distance, concentration difference and surface area

426
Q

Why does distance affect the rate of diffusion?

A

Substances diffuse more quickly when they haven’t got as far to move

427
Q

Why does concentration difference affect the rate of diffusion?

A

Substances diffuse faster when there are more particles on a certain side

428
Q

Why does surface area affect the rate of diffusion?

A

The more surface there is available for molecules to move across, the faster they can get from one side to the other

429
Q

What is the job of the lungs?

A

To transfer oxygen to the blood and to remove waste carbon dioxide

430
Q

True or false? The lungs have 2 aveoli, one for each side

A

False, in fact, there are millions of them

431
Q

Where has the blood that reaches the lungs just came from?

A

The rest of the body (just came from the heart)

432
Q

Why is the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide within the alveoli fast?

A

Lots of the alveoli, so large SA:V
Close distance between alveoli and the circulation system
High concentration difference between alveoli and circulation system

433
Q

Why do the alveoli have high concentration difference?

A

Just came from heart so low oxygen, high carbon dioxide

434
Q

How are the alveoli specialised?

A

Moist lining
Good blood supply to maintain the concentration gradient
Very thin walls to minimise the distance that the gases have to move
An enormous surface area

435
Q

What is ficks law?

A

Rate of diffusion ∝ surface area × concentration difference thickness / thickness of membrane

436
Q

Is the surface area directly or inversely proportionate to the rate of diffusion?

A

Directly

437
Q

Is the concentration difference directly or inversely proportionate to the rate of diffusion?

A

Directly

438
Q

Is the thickness of membrane directly or inversely proportionate to the rate of diffusion?

A

Inversely

439
Q

If the surface area doubles, what will happen to the rate of diffusion?

A

It will double aswell

440
Q

If the concentration difference doubles, what will happen to the rate of diffusion?

A

It will double aswell

441
Q

If the thickness of membrane doubles, what will happen to the rate of diffusion?

A

It will halve

442
Q

What is the role of an erythrocyte?

A

To carry oxygen from the lungs to all the cells in the body

443
Q

How is an erythrocyte specialised?

A

No nucleus - more space for oxygen
Biconcave disc - increase surface area
Contains haemoglobin - allows oxygen to bind to the erythrocyte

444
Q

What do white blood cells defend against?

A

Infections

445
Q

What are the two types of white blood cells?

A

Phagocytes and lymphocytes

446
Q

How do phagocytes defend against infection?

A

They change shape to engulf microorganisms

447
Q

How do lymphocytes defend against infection?

A

They produce antibodies or antitoxins against microogranisms

448
Q

What will a blood test show a high amount of, if the body has an infection?

A

A high amount of white blood cells, to fight the infection

449
Q

What do platelets help blood do?

A

Clot

450
Q

What are platelets?

A

Fragments of cells

451
Q

What do platelets not have?

A

A nucleus

452
Q

Why does the blood clot?

A

To stop all your blood pouring out and to stop microorganisms getting in

453
Q

What can lack of platelets cause?

A

Excessive bleeding and bruising

454
Q

What is plasmas role in the blood?

A

To carry everything

455
Q

What does plasma carry?

A 
Red and white blood cells
Platelets
Urea
Nutrients (glucose and amino acids)
Carbon Dioxide
Urea
Hormones
Proteins
Antibodies and antitoxins
456
Q

What do the arteries do?

A

Carry the blood away from the heart

457
Q

What do the capillaries do?

A

Carry the blood so they can exchange the materials with the local tissue

458
Q

What do the veins do?

A

Carry the blood to the heart

459
Q

Why are artery walls strong and elastic?

A

The heart pumps the blood out at high pressure so the walls must be able to withstand the high pressure

460
Q

Why do arteries contain thick layers of muscle?

A

To make them strong and to allow them to stretch and spring back

461
Q

True or false? Capillaries are really tiny - too small to see?

A

True, this is to allow them to squeeze into small gaps between cells

462
Q

Why do capillaries have permeable walls?

A

So substances can diffuse in and out

463
Q

What do capillaries supply and take to and from cells?

A

Food, oxygen and carbon dioxide

464
Q

Why are capillaries usually one cell thick?

A

To increase the rate of diffusion (ficks law)

465
Q

Why are the vein walls less thick than artery walls?

A

The blood is at lower pressure

466
Q

Why do veins have a bigger luman than artery walls?

A

To help the blood flow

467
Q

What do veins have to keep the blood flowing in the right direction

A

Valves

468
Q

What type of circulatory system do mammals have?

A

A double circulatory system

469
Q

What type of circulatory system do fish have?

A

A single circulatory system

470
Q

What does the heart pump blood through?

A

Blood vessels

471
Q

Where does the right atrium recieve its blood?

A

From the body (through the vena cava)

472
Q

What type of blood does the right atrium recieve?

A

Deoxygenated blood

473
Q

Where does the right ventricle move the blood to?

A

The lungs (via the pulmonary artery)

474
Q

What type of blood does the right ventricle move?

A

Deoxygenated blood

475
Q

What type of blood does the left atrium recieve?

A

Oxygenated blood

476
Q

Where does the left atrium recieve its blood?

A

From the lungs (through the pulmonary vein)

477
Q

What type of blood does the left ventricle move?

A

Oxygenated blood

478
Q

Where does the left ventricle move the blood to?

A

To the whole body (via the aorta)

479
Q

What ventricle has a thicker wall?

A

The left

480
Q

Why does the left ventricle have a thicker wall?

A

Because it needs more muscle to push the blood around the whole body at a high pressure

481
Q

What is the role of the valves within the heart?

A

To prevent the backflow of blood in the heart

482
Q

Name 3 different valves within the heart

A

Tricuspid valve, Bicuspid valve and semi-lunar valves

483
Q

Where does the blood flow into the heart?

A

Vena cava or Pulmonary vein

484
Q

Where does the blood flow out of the the heart?

A

Pulmonary artery or aorta

485
Q

What connects from the vena cava?

A

Right atrium

486
Q

What connects from the right atrium?

A

Right ventricle

487
Q

Where does the pulmonary artery go to?

A

The lungs

488
Q

Where does the pulmonary vein come from?

A

The lungs

489
Q

What connects from the pulmonary vein?

A

Left atrium

490
Q

What connects from the left atrium?

A

Left ventricle

491
Q

What connects from the left ventricle?

A

Aorta

492
Q

Where does the aorta go to?

A

The rest of the body

493
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The total volume of blood pumped by a ventricle every minute

494
Q

What are the units for cardiac output?

A

cm^3/min^-1

495
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume

496
Q

What is heart rate?

A

The number of beats per minute

497
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The volume of blood pumped by one ventricle each time it contracts

498
Q

What type of reaction is respiration?

A

Exothermic

499
Q

Name the two types of respiration

A

Anaerobic and aerobic respiration

500
Q

What type of respiration occurs in abundance of oxygen?

A

Aerobic

501
Q

State the word equation of aerobic respiration

A

Glucose + Oxygen -> Carbon Dioxide + Water

502
Q

State the symbol equation of aerobic respiration

A

C6H1206 + 602 -> 6C02 + 6H20

503
Q

What equation is the reverse of respiration?

A

Photosynthesis

504
Q

What type of respiration occurs in no oxygen?

A

Anaerobic

505
Q

What type of respiration transfers more energy?

A

Aerobic

506
Q

What type of respiration produces lactic acid/ethanol?

A

Anaerobic

507
Q

True or false? Anaerobic transfers more energy due to it having less reactants

A

False, aerobic transfers more energy

508
Q

What does the build up of lactic acid lead to?

A

Pain and cramp

509
Q

What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration?

A

Glucose -> Lactic Acid

510
Q

In plants, what do they produce when they anaerobically respire?

A

C02 and Ethanol

511
Q

What is the word equation for anaerobic respiration in a plant?

A

Glucose -> Carbon Dioxide + Ethanol

512
Q

What piece of apparatus can you use to measure the rate of respiration?

A

Respirometer

513
Q

What measurement must you gather to measure the rate of respiration?

A

Amount of oxygen consumed by organisms in a given time

514
Q

What apparatus must you have to measure the rate of respiration?

A

Woodlice, water bath and respirometer

515
Q

What must be added to the two test tubes?

A

Soda lime granules

516
Q

Why are soda lime granules added to the test tubes?

A

To asorb the CO2 produced

517
Q

What is placed as a replace of the organisms in the other test tube?

A

Glass beads of the same mass

518
Q

How long is the apparatus left in the water bath for when measuring the rate of respiration?

A

A set time

519
Q

Why does the volume of gas decrease when measuring rate of respiration?

A

Because the woodlice use up the oxygen in the tube, with the carbon dioxide being absorbed by the soda lime present

520
Q

How is the distance moved in the respirometer used to calculate rate of respiration?

A

Volume of oxygen taken in / Time

521
Q

What is the indepenedent variable in the rate of respiration experiment?

A

The temperature, this is because the whole point of the practical is to see how changing the temperature affects the rate of respiration

522
Q

What issues arise when using live animals in experiments?

A

Ethical issues

523
Q

What must you avoid when using live animals when investigating respiration?

A

Ensuring they don’t run out of oxygen and die

524
Q

What do green plants and algae use to make glucose?

A

Energy from the sun

525
Q

What is some of the glucose used for in plants?

A

Growth

526
Q

What is biomass?

A

The mass of an organism

527
Q

Where does photosynthesis take place?

A

Chloroplasts

528
Q

What is found inside chloroplasts?

A

Chlorophyll

529
Q

What does chlorophyll do?

A

Traps and absorbs lights

530
Q

How is energy transferred to the chloroplasts?

A

By light

531
Q

What is the word equation for photosynthesis?

A

Carbon Dioxide + Water -> Glucose + Oxygen

532
Q

What is the symbol equation for photosynthesis?

A

6C02 + 6H20 -> C6H1206 + 602

533
Q

What type of reaction is photosynthesis?

A

Endothermic

534
Q

What are the three factors of photosynthesis?

A

Concentration of carbon dioxide, light intensity and temperatire

535
Q

What type of aquatic plant is used to measure the effect of light intensity of the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Canadian pond weed

536
Q

True or False? The gas syringe should be full before used to investigate the rate of photosynthesis?

A

False, it needs to be empty

537
Q

What gas is measured when investigating the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Oxygen

538
Q

What light should be used when investigating the rate of photosynthesis?

A

White light

539
Q

What is the independent variable when investigating the rate of photosynthesis??

A

Distance from white light and canadian pondweed

540
Q

How do you calculate the rate of oxygen production when investigating the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Volume produced / Time taken

541
Q

What variables should be controlled when investigating the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Temperature and Carbon dioxide concentration

542
Q

What does not enough light do to the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Slows down the rate

543
Q

What does light do for photosynthesis?

A

It transfers the energy needed

544
Q

Describe the graph when increasing the light level and measuring the rate of photosynthesis?

A

At first, steady increase

But beyond that, no difference as the limiting factor will now be either carbon dioxide level or temperature

545
Q

Why does the light level graph when measuring the rate of photosynthesis level off?

A

The limiting factor is no longer light level, it is now either carbon dioxide level or temperature

546
Q

Why is the distance from the light and light intensity inversely proportional?

A

Because as distance increases, the light intensity decreases

547
Q

What is the equation for light intensity and distance?

A

Light intensity ∝ 1 / distance²

548
Q

If distance was to halve, what would happen to the light intensity?

A

It would be multiplied by 4

549
Q

What does too little carbon dioxide do to the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Slows it down

550
Q

Describe the graph when increasing the carbon dioxide level and measuring the rate of photosynthesis?

A

At first, steady increase

But beyond that, no difference as the limiting factor will now be either light level or temperature

551
Q

Why does the temperature have to be just right when increasing the rate of photosynthesis?

A

Enzymes are present, too high of temperature will denature the enzymes

552
Q

What temperature do the enzymes in photosynthesis need to be to denature?

A

Around 45°C

553
Q

What do root hairs take in?

A

Minerals and Water

554
Q

What sticks out of root hair cells?

A

Hairs which stick into the soil

555
Q

What gives the root hair cells a large surface area?

A

They branch off to millions of microscopic hairs

556
Q

Why do root hairs cells have a large surface area?

A

So they can absorb water and mineral ions more

557
Q

What occurs alot in root hair cells?

A

Active transport

558
Q

Why does active transport occur in root hair cells?

A

The concentration of mineral ions is usually higher in the cell than in the soil
Energy is needed to move the minerals up the concentration gradient

559
Q

Why do the root hair cells have loads of mitochondria?

A

Because they undergo alot of active transport
Active transport is an active process so it requires energy
Mitochondria releases energy via respiration
More mitochondria means more efficient active transport

560
Q

What do pholem tubes transport?

A

Food

561
Q

What are pholem tubes made up of?

A

Elongated living cells

562
Q

Why do pholem tubes have small pores?

A

To allow stuff to flow through

563
Q

What are the two uses of the food that the pholem tube transports?

A

Immediate use (eg. growing) or storage for later use

564
Q

What is the name of the process that occurs in the pholem tubes?

A

Translocation

565
Q

Which directions does translocation occur?

A

Both directions

566
Q

What do xylem tubes transport?

A

Water

567
Q

What are xylem tubes made up of?

A

Dead cells joined end to end with no end walls between them

568
Q

What substance is used to strengthen the xylem tubes?

A

Lignin

569
Q

What and where do the xylem tubes transport?

A

Water and mineral ions from the roots to the stems/leaves

570
Q

What is the name of the process that occurs in the xylem tubes?

A

Transpiration

571
Q

Which directions does transpiration occur?

A

Only one, up and out of the leaves

572
Q

What is transpiration?

A

The loss of water from plants

573
Q

What causes transpiration?

A

Evaporation and diffusion

574
Q

Where does transpiration occur most?

A

At the leaves

575
Q

What does the loss of water due to transpiration cause?

A

More water to be absorbed up the xylem vessel due to lower concentration within plant

576
Q

What is also dissolved in the water that is part of the transpiration stream?

A

Mineral ions

577
Q

What are stomata needed for?

A

Gas Exchange

578
Q

What are stomata?

A

Tiny pores on the surface of a plant

579
Q

What do stomata allow to diffuse directly into the leaf?

A

Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen

580
Q

True or False? Transpiration is really just a side-effect of the way leaves are adapted to photosynthesis?

A

True, thats because the stomata are there for gas exchange, the water simply diffuses out because theres a higher concentration within the plant

581
Q

What are the three factors that affect the transpiration rate?

A

Light Intensity, Temperature and Airflow

582
Q

Why does light intensity affect transpiration rate?

A

As it gets lighter, the stomata opens more and more to ensure more gas exchange to match the demand of photosynthesis which also increases the rate water leaves

583
Q

Why does temperature affect transpiration rate?

A

The warmer it is, the more energy to evaporate and diffuse out the stomata

584
Q

Why does air flow affect transpiration rate?

A

The more the air flow, the less water vapour outside a plant, therefore, the concentration difference becomes even more steeper increasing the rate of diffusion

585
Q

What apparatus must you use to estimate the transpiration rate?

A

A potometer

586
Q

What measurement do you measure to estimate the transpiration rate?

A

The amount the air bubble has moved

587
Q

What is the equation to calculate the transpiration rate@

A

Distance moved / Time taken

588
Q

Why are leaves broad?

A

To have a large surface area, so theres more area exposed to light which is needed for photosynthesis

589
Q

What is the name of the layer that has lots of chloroplasts?

A

The palisade layer

590
Q

Why does the palisade layer have loads of chloroplasts?

A

Because its at the top
The top is where the most light is
Photosynthesis requires light

591
Q

Why is the upper epidermis transparent?

A

To allow light to pass through to the palisade layer

592
Q

What do the xylem and phloem tubes move?

A

Water and glucose

593
Q

How are the tissues of leaves adapted?

A

Lots of stomata, to allow carbon dioxide to diffuse directly in to the leaf
The spongy mesophyll tissue contains air spaces which increases the rate of diffusion of gases into and out of the leaf’s cells

594
Q

What do plant adaptations tend to affect?

A

Size and shape of it’s leaves, it’s cuticle and the number and position of its stomata

595
Q

What adaptations do cacti have to survive in desert locations?

A

Small leaves - reduces surface area so less water loss
Curled leaves - reduces air flow, reducing diffusion
Thick waxy cuticle - reduce water loss by evaporation
Thick fleshy stem - to store water
Fewer stomata - reduce water loss
Stomata sunken - reduces water loss as less air flow

596
Q

What are auxins?

A

Growth hormones within a plant

597
Q

True or False? Auxins move through the plant in solution?

A

True

598
Q

Where is auxin produced?

A

The tips

599
Q

Why and where does auxin diffuse to?

A

Backwards to stimulate cell elongation

600
Q

What does auxin promote?

A

Growth in the shoot

601
Q

What does auxin inhibit?

A

Growth in the root

602
Q

What is photoropism?

A

The response to a stimulus of light

603
Q

What is gravitropism?

A

The response to a stimulus of gravity

604
Q

How do shoots react to light?

A

They are positively phototropic which means they grow towards light

605
Q

Explain how a shoot reacts to light

A

When a shoot is exposed to light, it accumulates more auxin on the side that’s in the shade than the side that’s in the light
This makes the cells grow faster on the shaded side, bending the shoot

606
Q

Why does a shoot bend towards the light?

A

To absorb more light for photosynthesis

607
Q

What is the appearance of a shoot growing in the dark?

A

Tall and spindly

608
Q

How do shoots react to gravity?

A

They are negatively gravitropic which means they grow away from gravity

609
Q

Explain how a shoot reacts to gravity

A

When a shoot is growing sideways, gravity produces an unequal distribution of auxin in the tip, with more auxin being on the lower side
This makes the cell grow faster on the lower side, bending upwards

610
Q

How do roots react to gravity?

A

They are positively gravitropic which means they grow towards gravity

611
Q

Explain how roots react to gravity

A

A root growing sideways will have more auxin on it’s lower side
But in a root the extra auxin inhibits growth
This means the cells on top elongate faster, bending the root downwards

612
Q

How do roots react to light?

A

They are negatively phototropic which means they grow away from light

613
Q

Explain how roots react to light

A

If a root is exposed to light, it accumulates more auxin on the side that’s on the more shaded side
The auxin inhibits cell elongation on the shaded side which leads to the root bending downwards

614
Q

What seeds are used to investigate plant growth responses?

A

Cress Seeds

615
Q

Where do you put the cress seeds when investigating plant growth responses?

A

In a petri dish with moist filter paper

616
Q

What do you surround the petri dish with when investigating plant growth responses?

A

Black paper, leaving only one hole

617
Q

What do you do through the hole when investigating plant growth responses?

A

Shine a light

618
Q

How long do you leave the seeds when investigating plant growth responses?

A

One week

619
Q

What should you find after one week of investigating plant growth responses?

A

The seedlings grow towards the light

620
Q

Name examples of commercial uses of plant hormones

A

Weed killers, rooting powder, controlling fruit and flower formation, seedless fruit formation, controlling the ripening of fruits and seed germination

621
Q

What kind of leaved are weeds growing in fields?

A

Broad-leaved

622
Q

What have selective weed killers been developed from?

A

Auxins which only affect broad-leaved plants

623
Q

How do weed killers actually work?

A

They totally disrupt their normal growth pattern which eventually kills them

624
Q

True or false? Once weed killers are administered, all the weeds are killed leaving the crops and grass?

A

True

625
Q

Why do weed killers only “target” broad-leaved plants?

A

Because the auxins used to develop them have been taken from plants which are broad-leaved

626
Q

What is a cutting?

A

A part of a plant that has been cut off

627
Q

Why is root powder used on cuttings?

A

Because cuttings usually cannot grow, however, with root powder you can use it to produce roots rapidly and start growing as new plants

628
Q

What are gibberellins?

A

Plant hormones that stimulate seed germination, stem growth and flowering

629
Q

What is seed germination?

A

The growth of a seed into a plant

630
Q

How do gibberellins work?

A

Enables the plant to grow earlier and in conditions which they don’t usually flower

631
Q

What can gibberellins be used for in the commercial aspect?

A

They can be used to reduce flower formation which can improve fruit quality

632
Q

Where do fruits with seeds in the middle usually grow?

A

On flowering plants which haven’t been pollinated by insects

633
Q

What plant hormone is applied to remove seeds in fruit?

A

Gibberellin

634
Q

Why is it better to pick unriped fruit?

A

It is firmer and less easily damaged

635
Q

What ripening hormone is added to the fruit to ripen it?

A

Ethene

636
Q

What conditions will seeds not germinate in?

A

A period of cold and dryness

637
Q

What hormone can seeds be treated with to enable them to germinate in poor conditions?

A

Gibberellins

638
Q

What is another advantage of using gibberellins when germinating seeds?

A

All the seeds germinate at the same time

639
Q

In terms of ecosystems, what is an individual?

A

A single organism

640
Q

In terms of ecosystems, what is a population?

A

All the organisms of one species in a habitat

641
Q

In terms of ecosystems, what is a community?

A

All the organisms of different species living in a habitat

642
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

A community of organisms along with all the non-living conditions

643
Q

True or False? Organisms in a community are interdependent?

A

True

644
Q

What do organisms depend on?

A

Shelter and food

645
Q

Why do organisms need shelter and food?

A

To survive and reproduce

646
Q

What is mutualism?

A

A relationship between two organisms from which both organisms benefit

647
Q

Where do parasites live relative to their host?

A

In or on them

648
Q

What does the parasite do?

A

Take’s what it needs to survive, whilst the host has no benefit

649
Q

What does abiotic mean?

A

Non-living

650
Q

What does biotic mean?

A

Living

651
Q

List all the abiotic factors

A

Temperature, water amount, light intensity and levels of pollutants

652
Q

List all the biotic factors

A

Competition and predation

653
Q

Why does water amount have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

All organisms need water to survive, too little can cause death from dehydration
However, if plants become water logged they will die

654
Q

Why does light intensity have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

Trees and plants require light to photosynthesise, too little light will not only increase the competition but also cause more deaths

655
Q

Why does level of pollutants have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

If levels of air pollution is too high organisms will be unable to survive

656
Q

Why does temperature have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

If temperature is too high or low organisms will be unable to survive, without adaptations

657
Q

Why does competition have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

Organisms compete with other species for the same resources

If too much competition there will not be enough food for specific organisms causing high amounts of death

658
Q

Why does predation have an affect on an ecosystem?

A

If the numbers of predators increase, the amount of living prey will decrease

659
Q

What is a quadrat?

A

A square frame enclosing a known area

660
Q

What is a quadrat used for?

A

To compare how common an organism is in two sample areas

661
Q

True or False? You must place a quadrat at a random point?

A

True, if not, the results will be unreliable as the place chosen may undergo bias

662
Q

One placed your quadrat at a random point, what must you do?

A

Count all the microorganisms you’re interested in

663
Q

Once counted all the microorganisms in the quadrat, whats the next step?

A

Repeat several times, then work out the mean (Total number of organisms / Number of Quadrats)

664
Q

How do you calculate the mean when using quadrats?

A

Total number of organisms / Number of Quadrats

665
Q

How do you estimate the population size when using a quadrat?

A

Number of organisms in one quadrat x (Sample Area / Quadrat Area)

666
Q

What do you use to study distribution along a gradient?

A

Belt Transects

667
Q

What is an example of when a belt transect may be used?

A

How a species changes rarity from an area of shade to an area of light

668
Q

Once marked out using a belt transect, what must you do next?

A

Collect the relevant data by either counting the total organisms of a species present or by estimating percentage cover

669
Q

What could you do if your belt transect is long?

A

Measure every so often, instead of back to back to back

670
Q

What else could you measure when using a belt transect?

A

Light intensity or height of the plants

671
Q

What is the source of energy for nearly all life on Earth?

A

The Sun

672
Q

How do plants use light?

A

They convert a small percentage of the light that falls on them into glucose, via photosynthesis

673
Q

What do plants use glucose for?

A

Respiration or storage (which contributes directly into their biomass)

674
Q

What is biomass?

A

The mass of living material that makes up an organism

675
Q

List ways energy is lost to the food chain?

A

Respiration, heating, waste excretion and movement

676
Q

How is energy that is stored as biomass lost?

A

Not all of the organism is eaten, for example bones. But also, not all the stuff eaten can be digested

677
Q

Usually, how many trophic levels long is a food chain

A

Five

678
Q

In terms of population, what do you find as you go up a food chain?

A

There is a lower number of organisms this is because there is less biomass to go round

679
Q

What do pyramids of biomass show?

A

How much the creatures at each level of a food chain would weigh if you put them together

680
Q

As you go up a pyramid of biomass what do you see?

A

The mass of organisms goes down this is because most of the energy is lost and so does not become biomass in the next level

681
Q

True or False? The first level of a pyramid of biomass is the last organism in the food chain?

A

False, the first level is always the producer

682
Q

What type of organism goes on the first level of a pyramid of biomass?

A

The producer

683
Q

How do you calculate efficiency of a pyramid of biomass?

A

Efficiency = Energy transferred to next level / Energy available at previous level

684
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

The variet of living organisms in an ecosystem

685
Q

Give an example on how humans have a positive impact on biodiversity?

A

Reforestation or conservation schemes

686
Q

Give an example on how humans have a negative impact on biodiversity?

A

Eutrophication, fishing and the introduction of non-indigenous species

687
Q

What fertilisers cause eutrophication?

A

Nitrates

688
Q

What is eutrophication?

A

Excess of nutrients in water

689
Q

What does the excess nitrates in the water cause?

A

Algae to grow fast and block out the light

690
Q

Why does the algae grown from excess nitrate have a big impact?

A

The algae covers the light, which kills the plants as they can’t get light to photosynthesise
They then die and decompose

691
Q

What does the decomposure of fish cause during eutrophication?

A

Due to more food being available microorganisms, that feed on the plants, grow in numbers and use up more oxygen

692
Q

During eutrophication, what does the increase in the amount of microorganisms cause?

A

Fish death as less oxygen available because the microorganisms also need oxygen to survive

693
Q

Give examples of how fish farms in the open can reduce biodiversity?

A

Eutrophication if waste and food leaked
Breeding grounds for parasites
Predators are attracted to the nets and become trapped
Farmed fish can escape into the wild and can cause problems for wild populations

694
Q

What is a non-indigenous species?

A

A species that doesn’t naturally occur in an area

695
Q

Give ways non-indigenous species are brought in intentionally

A

Food or hunting

696
Q

Give ways non-indigenous species are brought in unintentionally

A

Stoaway or international cargo

697
Q

What is an indigenous species?

A

A species that does naturally occur in an area

698
Q

Why are non-indigenous species bad?

A

Sometimes, they outcompete the indigenous species for resources leading to a decrease in the indigenous species
They may also bring a disease which can infect and kill lots of the indigenous species

699
Q

What does reforestation increase?

A

Biodiversity in deforested areas

700
Q

Give an example of a way to increase the effectivity of reforestation

A

Replanting with a variety of tree species

701
Q

What do conservation schemes do?

A

Protect at risk species

702
Q

How do conservation schemes work?

A

By preventing species from dying out

703
Q

Give some examples of conservation schemes

A

Protecting a species natural habitat
Protecting species in safe areas outside their natural habitat
Introducing captive breeding to increase numbers
Introducing seed banks to store and donate rare and endangered plants

704
Q

Why should we maintain biodiversity?

A 
To protect the human food supply
To ensure minimal damage to food chains
To provide future medicines
To provide cultural aspects
To provide ecotourism
To provide new jobs
705
Q

List biological factors affecting the level of food security

A

Increasing consumption of higher trophic level foods
Environmental changes due to human activity
Human population
New pests and pathogens

706
Q

How does increasing consumption of higher trophic level foods affect the level of food security?

A

As you go up the food chain there becomes less and less biomass and energy available
Therefore, more of that organism is needed to provide the same amount as energy as the previous level

707
Q

How does environmental changes due to human activity affect the level of food security?

A

Climate change and soil pollution will reduce the growth of crops

708
Q

How does the increasing human population affect the level of food security?

A

More people, more food needed to feed same amount

More people, more energy needed, biofuel used

709
Q

How do new pests and pathogens affect the level of food security?

A

They cause damage to livestock therefore too many of them can reduce crop yields

710
Q

True or False? Materials are constantly recycled in an ecosystem?

A

True

For example, carbon, water and nitrogen

711
Q

Provide a step by step explanation of how recyling works in an ecosystem

A

Living things take in elements from the environment
Turn these elements into complex compounds
Elements passed along food chains (producer -> consumer)
Elements recycled via decomposers decomposing waste products and dead organisms

712
Q

In the carbon cycle, what is the one way carbon returns from the air?

A

Photosynthesis

713
Q

What is the whole carbon cycle powered by?

A

Photosynthesis

714
Q

How does the carbon get out the plants?

A

Via consumers

715
Q

When the organisms are alive, how does the carbon get into the air?

A

Via respiration

716
Q

When the organisms are dead, how does the carbon get into the air?

A

Via decomposers or burning of materials from the plants or animals

717
Q

What powers the water cycle?

A

The sun

718
Q

How does the water get into the air?

A

Evaporation from the land, sea and even plants (transpiration)

719
Q

What happens to the water vapour within the water cycle?

A

It rises and begins to cool and condense to form clouds

720
Q

What happens to the water vapour that has cooled and condensed?

A

It comes down as precipitation

721
Q

What happens with the rain in the water cycle?

A

It provides for life and then eventually dries back into the sea and restarts the cycle

722
Q

When does a drought occur?

A

When there’s not enough precipitation (rain)

723
Q

How does desalination work?

A

Water is evapourated leaving salt behind, water then condenses in a separate contained leaving pure water

724
Q

How does reverse osmosis work?

A

Any solids removed from water
Water is then pumped, at high pressure, into a container with a partially permeable membrane
The water molecules move across the membrane into pure water leaving the salt molecules

725
Q

What is recycled in the nitrogen cycle?

A

Nitrogen

726
Q

Why can’t nitrogen be used directly in animals?

A

Because it’s unreactive

727
Q

What is nitrogen needed to make, in organisms?

A

Proteins

728
Q

How does nitrogen enter the food chain?

A

By turning into a nitrate

729
Q

How does the nitrogen leave the food chain?

A

Being part of a rotting plant, animal or waste that is being decomposed by decomposers (bacteria and fungi in the soil)

730
Q

What is nitrogen fixation?

A

The process of turning nitrogen in the air into nitrogen-containing ions

731
Q

How does lightning fixate nitrogen?

A

Lightning has enough energy to make nitrogen and oxygen react

732
Q

How does nitrogen fixing bacteria fixate nitrogen?

A

Turn nitrogen gas into ammonia which then forms ammonium ions

733
Q

What are the four different types of bacteria involved in the nitrogen cycle?

A

Decomposers
Nitrifying bacteria
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Denitryifying bacteria

734
Q

How do decomposers contribute to the nitrogen cycle?

A

By turning the proteins and urea into ammonia

Ammonia then turns into ammonium ions which plants can use

735
Q

How does nitrifying bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle?

A

Turns ammonia in decaying matter into nitrites and then into nitrates

736
Q

How does nitrogen-fixing bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle?

A

Turns nitrogen gas into ammonia which then forms ammonium ions

737
Q

How does denitrifying bacteria contribute to the nitrogen cycle?

A

Turns nitrates back into nitrogen gas

738
Q

In the nitrogen cycle, what is the one way nitrogen returns to the air?

A

Denitrifying bacteria

739
Q

List ways farmers can increase the amount of nitrates in the soil

A

Crop rotation and fertilisers

740
Q

How does crop rotation increase the amount of nitrates in the soil?

A

Different crops are grown each year

One of the years introduces a nitrogen-fixing crop which puts nitrates back into the soil

741
Q

State examples of nitrogen-fixing crops

A

Peas or beans

742
Q

How do fertilisers increase the amount of nitrates in the soil?

A

The field recycles the nutrients left in the fertilisers through decomposition

743
Q

What animals can be used to measure water pollution?

A

Stonefly larvae, freshwater shrimps, blood worms and sludgeworms

744
Q

What do high amounts of stonefly larvae mean?

A

Low pollution

745
Q

What do high amounts of blood worms or sludge worms mean?

A

High pollution

746
Q

What are blood worms and sludge worms adapted to?

A

Polluted conditions

747
Q

What are stonefly larvae and freshwater shrimps adapted to?

A

Non-polluted conditions

748
Q

How can air pollution be measured?

A

Number of lichen and blackspot fungus

749
Q

What does a high amount of lichen indicate?

A

Clean air

750
Q

What does a high amount of blackspot fungus indicate?

A

Clean air

751
Q

Give examples of non-living indicator methods

A

Dissolved oxygen meters and electronic meters

752
Q

What are three factors of the rate of decay?

A

Temperature, water content and oxygen availability

753
Q

How does temperature affect the rate of decay?

A

A higher temperature means the faster the rate of enzyme-controlled reactions in microbes

754
Q

How does water content affect the rate of decay?

A

Decay takes place faster in moist conditions because they need water to survive

755
Q

How does oxygen availability affect the rate of decay?

A

Decay takes place faster in high oxygen conditions because most decomposers need oxygen to respire

756
Q

What are food preservation methods to reduce the rate of decay?

A

Storing food in fridge or freezer
Storing food in airtight containers
Steralising food
Drying food

757
Q

How does drying food prevent the rate of decay?

A

Microorganisms need water to survive

758
Q

How does steralising food prevent the rate of decay?

A

Steralising will kill any microorganisms present

759
Q

How do airtight cans prevent the rate of decay?

A

It prevents microorganisms getting in

760
Q

How does storing food in a fridge or freezer prevent the rate of decay?

A

By slowing down the rate of reproduction

761
Q

What is compost?

A

Decayed organic matter

762
Q

When is compost produced quickest?

A

Warm and moist conditions

763
Q

How do you calculate the rate of decomposition?

A

Arbitary Units / Time

Yr 10 Mock (8 decks)

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