CHEM2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the atomic number of an element representative of?

A

Number of protons

The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An atom that gains electrons will have a _______.

A

Negative charge

Gaining electrons introduces additional negative charge, leading to a negative ion or anion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ‘O’ in H2O is an example of:

A

Atomic symbol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum number of electrons the second shell (shell two) can hold?

A

8

The second shell can hold a maximum of 8 electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of bond is formed when one atom donates an electron to another?

A

Ionic bond

Ionic bonds are formed when one atom donates an electron to another, creating cations and anions that attract each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The f orbital can hold a maximum of how many electrons?

A

14

The f orbital has seven subshells and can hold a maximum of 14 electrons (2 electrons per subshell).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many valence electrons does carbon, with atomic number 6, have in its outer shell?

A

4

Carbon has 4 valence electrons in its outer shell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The electron configuration of a neutral atom of chlorine (atomic number 17) ends in:

A

3p^5

Chlorine has 17 electrons. The electron configuration is 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following types of bonds will form between two atoms that share electrons equally?

A

Nonpolar covalent bond

Nonpolar covalent bonds form when two atoms share electrons equally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many d orbitals are there in a d subshell?

A

5

The d subshell has five d orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which shell can hold a maximum of 2 electrons?

A

First shell

The first shell (often referred to as the K shell) can hold a maximum of 2 electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which element has the electron configuration 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6?

A

Neon

The electron configuration provided corresponds to Neon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following atoms has the highest electronegativity?

A

Chlorine

Among the options provided, chlorine has the highest electronegativity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of bond is formed when there is a slight difference in electronegativity, resulting in a slight charge difference but not enough to form an ionic bond?

A

Polar covalent bond

When there’s a slight difference in electronegativity between two atoms, they form a polar covalent bond.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The third electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of how many electrons?

A

18

The third electron shell can hold a maximum of 18 electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following elements would most likely form an anion by gaining electrons?

A

Chlorine

Chlorine tends to gain electrons to achieve a full valence shell, becoming an anion in the process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following elements is likely to lose an electron to become a cation?

A

Sodium

Sodium tends to lose one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, becoming a cation in the process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary factor that holds the nucleus of an atom together, despite the repulsive forces between protons?

A

Strong nuclear force

The strong nuclear force is the force that holds the protons and neutrons together in the nucleus, overcoming the repulsion between protons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following elements is most likely to share its electrons when forming a bond?

A

Chlorine

Chlorine typically forms covalent bonds by sharing its electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of covalent bonds?

A

Occur between metals and nonmetals

Covalent bonds typically occur between nonmetals, whereas ionic bonds usually form between metals and nonmetals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An atom with 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons would have an atomic number of:

A

3

The atomic number of an atom is defined by the number of protons it contains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following elements is most likely to form a negative ion by gaining electrons?

A

Chlorine

Chlorine, being a halogen, tends to gain an electron to achieve a full valence shell, thus becoming a negatively charged ion or anion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What element belongs to Group 1 of the periodic table?

A

Sodium

Group 1 elements are alkali metals, which include lithium, sodium, potassium, rubidium, cesium, and francium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which element has the atomic number 2?

A

Helium

The atomic number represents the number of protons in an atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The number of _________ determines the chemical behavior of an element.

A

Electrons in the outermost shell

The chemical properties of an element are primarily determined by the number of valence electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which element is known as the ‘King of Chemicals’?

A

Hydrogen

Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe and involved in numerous chemical reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following elements is a liquid at room temperature?

A

Bromine

Bromine is one of only two elements that are liquid at room temperature, along with mercury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which element is essential for the functioning of the thyroid gland?

A

Iodine

Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which block of the periodic table contains the lanthanides and actinides?

A

f block

The lanthanides and actinides are positioned separately at the bottom of the periodic table.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which group of elements is highly reactive and typically stored in oil?

A

Alkali metals

Alkali metals are stored in oil to prevent reactions with air or moisture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following elements is a non-metal that exists in a gaseous state at room temperature?

A

Nitrogen

Nitrogen exists as a gas (N₂) at room temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which group of the periodic table contains elements known for their characteristic bright colors and multiple oxidation states?

A

Transition metals

Transition metals exhibit multiple oxidation states and form colorful compounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is a metalloid?

A

Boron

Boron has properties of both metals and non-metals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Elements in which group are known to form diatomic molecules in their natural form?

A

Halogens

Halogens naturally exist as diatomic molecules (e.g., F₂, Cl₂).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the first element in the periodic table?

A

Hydrogen

Hydrogen has an atomic number of 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which element is the most electronegative?

A

Fluorine

Fluorine strongly attracts electrons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the periodic table, moving from left to right across a period, the atomic radius generally:

A

Decreases

The increase in protons pulls electrons closer, decreasing atomic radius.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In which state of matter do particles have the least amount of energy and are closely packed?

A

Solid

In a solid, particles are tightly packed together and have the least amount of energy compared to liquids and gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which state of matter consists of ionized gas?

A

Plasma

Plasma is a high-energy state of matter consisting of ionized particles, found in stars and neon lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In which state of matter do particles vibrate in fixed positions?

A

Solid

In a solid, particles are held in a fixed structure and can only vibrate, rather than move freely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When you increase the pressure on a given amount of gas while keeping the temperature constant, what generally happens to its volume?

A

Decreases

According to Boyle’s Law, increasing pressure on a gas decreases its volume if the temperature remains constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following is NOT a physical property of matter?

A

Flammability

Flammability is a chemical property because it describes how a substance reacts with oxygen to produce fire, rather than a physical characteristic like mass or density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In which state of matter do particles have the highest energy and are spaced farthest apart?

A

Plasma

Plasma has the highest energy level, as it consists of ionized particles with extremely high kinetic energy, such as in lightning and the Sun.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If the volume of a substance increases while its mass remains the same, its density will:

A

Decrease

Density is mass divided by volume. If volume increases while mass stays the same, the overall density decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The state of matter in which particles are the least densely packed is:

A

Gas

In gases, particles are widely spaced and move freely, making them the least dense compared to solids and liquids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following best describes the behavior of particles in a solid?

A

They are packed closely and vibrate in place.

In solids, particles remain in fixed positions and only vibrate rather than moving freely like liquids or gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If you decrease the volume of a gas while keeping its temperature constant, what will happen to its pressure?

A

It will increase.

According to Boyle’s Law, reducing the volume of a gas increases its pressure when temperature remains constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When a substance changes from a liquid to a solid, it typically:

A

Decreases in volume

Most substances contract when freezing, meaning their volume decreases as the particles pack closer together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

An increase in which of the following will cause a gas to condense into a liquid?

A

Pressure

Increasing pressure forces gas particles closer together, leading to condensation and turning the gas into a liquid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In which state of matter are particles ionized and have the highest energy?

A

Plasma

Plasma consists of ionized particles with very high energy, found in the Sun, lightning, and neon lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When you heat a solid, its particles:

A

Vibrate more vigorously

Heating increases the energy of solid particles, making them vibrate more, which can eventually lead to melting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the primary factor determining the state of matter of a substance at room temperature?

A

Temperature

Temperature is the key factor that determines whether a substance exists as a solid, liquid, or gas at room temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which state of matter does not have a definite shape but has a definite volume?

A

Liquid

Liquids take the shape of their container but maintain a fixed volume, unlike gases that expand to fill the container.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following phase changes requires the absorption of heat energy?

A

Vaporization

Vaporization (liquid to gas) requires heat energy to break intermolecular forces and allow particles to move freely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When a liquid turns into a gas below its boiling point, the process is called:

A

Evaporation

Evaporation occurs when molecules at the surface of a liquid gain enough energy to turn into gas without reaching boiling temperature.

56
Q

In which state of matter are particles packed the closest together?

A

Solid

In a solid, particles are arranged in a tightly packed structure, making it the most dense state of matter.

57
Q

What type of reaction occurs when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid?

A

Displacement

In a displacement reaction, one element replaces another in a compound.

58
Q

What is the term for the number placed before the formula of a reactant or product in a chemical equation?

A

Coefficient

The coefficient indicates the number of molecules or moles of a substance in a reaction.

59
Q

In the reaction CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O, how many moles of oxygen react with one mole of methane?

A

2

One mole of CH₄ reacts with two moles of O₂ to produce CO₂ and H₂O.

60
Q

If 4 moles of hydrogen gas react with 2 moles of oxygen gas to produce water, how many moles of water will be formed?

A

4

The balanced reaction is: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, meaning 4 moles of H₂ produce 4 moles of H₂O.

61
Q

What do you call a small whole number that appears as a factor in front of a formula in a chemical equation?

A

Coefficient

A coefficient represents the number of molecules or moles of a substance in a balanced chemical equation.

62
Q

What is the statement that the total mass of reactants in a chemical reaction is always equal to the total mass of the products?

A

Law of conservation of mass

This law states that mass cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

63
Q

What do you call the amount of substance that contains as many entities as there are atoms in 12 g of carbon-12?

A

Mole

A mole represents 6.022 × 10²³ particles (atoms, molecules, or ions) of a substance.

64
Q

If a balanced chemical equation has coefficients 2, 1, and 2 for the reactants and products, how many moles of the first reactant will be required to produce 4 moles of the second product?

A

2

To produce 4 moles of the product, 2 moles of the first reactant are needed.

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a product of the combustion of propane (C₃H₈)?

A

O₂

The combustion of propane produces CO₂, H₂O, and heat; O₂ is a reactant.

66
Q

If you know the quantities of reactants used and the quantities of products formed in a chemical reaction, you are dealing with:

A

Stoichiometric calculations

Stoichiometry involves calculating the amounts of reactants and products based on the balanced equation.

67
Q

When zinc metal is added to hydrochloric acid, what type of reaction occurs?

A

Single displacement

Zinc displaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid, forming zinc chloride and releasing hydrogen gas.

68
Q

In the balanced chemical equation N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, what does the ‘3’ in front of H₂ represent?

A

Coefficient

A coefficient represents the number of molecules or moles of a substance involved in the reaction.

69
Q

A chemical reaction that requires an input of energy to proceed is said to be:

A

Endergonic

Endergonic reactions absorb energy from their surroundings in order to proceed.

70
Q

What type of chemical reaction occurs when an acid and a base combine to produce water and a salt?

A

Neutralization

A neutralization reaction occurs when an acid reacts with a base to produce a salt and water.

71
Q

Which among the following is NOT a sign of a chemical reaction?

A

Boiling of liquid

Boiling is a physical change and does not change the chemical composition of the substance.

72
Q

What type of reaction involves an element reacting with a compound and displacing another element from it?

A

Single displacement

In a single displacement reaction, one element replaces another element in a compound.

73
Q

The small whole number that appears in front of a formula in a balanced chemical equation represents:

A

Coefficient

The coefficient represents the number of molecules or moles of a substance involved in a reaction.

74
Q

A chemical reaction in which both oxidation and reduction processes occur is termed:

A

Redox reaction

In redox reactions, one substance loses electrons (oxidation) while another gains electrons (reduction).

75
Q

Which of the following is an example of a combustion reaction?

A

Burning a candle

Combustion reactions involve burning a substance in the presence of oxygen to produce heat, light, CO₂, and H₂O.

76
Q

In a balanced chemical equation, if you change the coefficient of a reactant or product, you must adjust:

A

Other coefficients in the equation to maintain balance

Changing one coefficient affects the balance of atoms, so other coefficients must also be adjusted.

77
Q

In a combustion reaction involving hydrogen gas, which of the following products is formed?

A

Water (H₂O)

The combustion of hydrogen gas (H₂) in oxygen (O₂) produces water (H₂O) as the product.

78
Q

In an exothermic reaction, what happens to the energy of the system?

A

Released to surroundings

Exothermic reactions release energy, usually in the form of heat, as the reaction proceeds.

79
Q

If pressure is increased on a gaseous system, in which direction will the equilibrium shift for a reaction with fewer moles of gas on the product side?

A

Left, towards reactants

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, an increase in pressure favors the side with fewer gas molecules to reduce pressure.

80
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about static equilibrium?

A

Concentrations of products are always higher

In static equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products remains constant, but one is not necessarily higher than the other.

81
Q

For the reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g), what will happen if the concentration of N₂ is decreased?

A

Shift to the left

A decrease in the concentration of a reactant shifts the equilibrium towards the reactants to compensate.

82
Q

What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

A

Provide alternate pathway with lower activation energy

Catalysts speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy required, without being consumed in the process.

83
Q

How does a catalyst affect the activation energy of a reaction?

A

Decreases it

Catalysts reduce the activation energy, allowing the reaction to proceed faster.

84
Q

For a gaseous reaction at equilibrium, increasing the volume of the container will:

A

Favor the side with more moles of gas

Increasing volume decreases pressure, which shifts the equilibrium towards the side with more gas molecules.

85
Q

How does a decrease in temperature affect an exothermic reaction at equilibrium?

A

Shifts towards products

Lowering the temperature favors the exothermic direction, as the system tries to replace the lost heat.

86
Q

Which of the following is true about catalysts?

A

They provide an alternate pathway for the reaction

Catalysts speed up reactions by offering a lower-energy pathway for the reactants to convert into products.

87
Q

For a given reaction, if the concentration of reactants is doubled, the reaction will:

A

Shift to the right

Increasing reactant concentration pushes the equilibrium towards the products.

88
Q

An increase in pressure in a system at equilibrium will favor the side with:

A

Fewer moles of gas

Increased pressure favors the side with fewer gas molecules to reduce pressure.

89
Q

In an endothermic reaction:

A

Heat is treated as a reactant

Endothermic reactions absorb heat, so heat is considered a reactant.

90
Q

What effect does decreasing temperature have on an endothermic reaction at equilibrium?

A

Shifts left

Lowering temperature in an endothermic reaction shifts the equilibrium toward the reactants.

91
Q

When a system in equilibrium is compressed, the reaction will favor the side with:

A

The least moles of gas

Compression increases pressure, favoring the side with fewer gas molecules.

92
Q

Which of these reactions would be least affected by a change in pressure?

A

A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(l) + D(s)

Reactions that involve solids and liquids are the least affected by pressure changes.

93
Q

What happens to the position of equilibrium when a reactant is added?

A

Shifts to the right

Adding more reactant pushes the equilibrium towards the products.

94
Q

In which of these scenarios would Le Chatelier’s principle predict no change in the position of equilibrium?

A

Addition of a catalyst

Catalysts speed up the reaction but do not change the position of equilibrium.

95
Q

If the concentration of a product is decreased in a reaction at equilibrium, the equilibrium will:

A

Shift to the right

Removing product shifts the reaction toward producing more of it.

96
Q

Which of the following best describes a dynamic equilibrium?

A

Both forward and reverse reactions are occurring at the same rate

At dynamic equilibrium, the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction.

97
Q

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, if a system at equilibrium is subjected to a decrease in temperature, how will it respond?

A

By shifting to counteract the change

The system will shift to produce more heat if the temperature is decreased.

98
Q

Which of the following changes would NOT cause a shift in the position of equilibrium?

A

Adding a catalyst

Catalysts only speed up equilibrium attainment but do not affect its position.

99
Q

In a chemical reaction, if the system is at equilibrium and the concentration of a reactant is increased, the reaction will:

A

Shift to the right

Increasing reactant concentration pushes equilibrium toward the products.

100
Q

Which statement is true regarding an endothermic reaction?

A

The reaction absorbs heat

Endothermic reactions take in heat from the surroundings.

101
Q

Which of the following best describes how a catalyst works?

A

It provides an alternate pathway for the reaction with a lower activation energy

A catalyst lowers activation energy, making the reaction proceed faster.

102
Q

If the concentration of products is decreased in a reaction at equilibrium, the system will:

A

Shift to the right

Removing products shifts the equilibrium towards producing more products.

103
Q

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, if a system at equilibrium is disturbed, the system will:

A

Shift to counteract the disturbance

The system adjusts itself to oppose any changes imposed on it.

104
Q

In an exothermic reaction, heat is:

A

Released into the surroundings

Exothermic reactions release heat as a product.

105
Q

In a system at equilibrium, if the temperature is increased, the reaction will:

A

Favor the endothermic reaction

Increasing temperature favors the reaction that absorbs heat (endothermic).

106
Q

Which of the following changes would result in an increase in the rate of attainment of equilibrium?

A

Adding a catalyst

Catalysts increase the reaction rate, helping equilibrium to be reached faster.

107
Q

In a system at equilibrium, if the pressure is increased, the equilibrium will:

A

Shift to the side with fewer moles of gas

Increased pressure shifts equilibrium toward the side with fewer gas molecules.

108
Q

According to Le Chatelier’s principle, if a system at equilibrium is subjected to an increase in concentration of reactants, the system will:

A

Shift to the right

Increasing reactants pushes the reaction toward producing more products.

109
Q

Adhesion is best represented by which of the following scenarios?

A

Water droplets forming on a spider web

Adhesion refers to the attraction between molecules of different substances.

110
Q

How does the polarity of water molecules contribute to its cohesive properties?

A

The partial positive charge on oxygen in one water molecule attracts the partial negative charge on hydrogen in another molecule

Cohesion refers to the attraction between like molecules due to hydrogen bonding.

111
Q

What is solubility?

A

The maximum amount of solute that can dissolve in a specific solvent at a given temperature

Solubility is a quantitative property describing how much of a substance can dissolve in a solvent.

112
Q

Which of the following is an example of a hydrophilic substance?

A

Ethanol

Hydrophilic substances dissolve in water due to their ability to form hydrogen bonds.

113
Q

If you were to add more solute to a saturated solution at room temperature:

A

The solute would not dissolve and would settle at the bottom

A saturated solution has dissolved the maximum amount of solute at that temperature.

114
Q

Which of the following is NOT a solution?

A

A chunk of gold

A solution is a homogeneous mixture, while a pure chunk of gold is not a mixture.

115
Q

In terms of solubility, how do gases behave with an increase in temperature?

A

Their solubility decreases

Gases become less soluble in liquids as temperature increases due to increased kinetic energy.

116
Q

Which of the following statements about diffusion is correct?

A

It results in an even distribution of particles

Diffusion involves the movement of molecules from high to low concentration.

117
Q

Which scenario best represents cohesion?

A

Water droplets sticking to each other on a spider web

Cohesion refers to the attraction between molecules of the same substance.

118
Q

In osmosis, water moves:

A

Towards the area of higher solute concentration

Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane to balance concentration differences.

119
Q

Which of the following describes the main difference between a polar and a non-polar molecule?

A

Non-polar molecules have an equal distribution of electrical charge

Polar molecules have regions of partial charge due to uneven electron distribution.

120
Q

Hydrophilic substances:

A

Are attracted to water and can often dissolve in it

Hydrophilic substances interact with water through hydrogen bonding.

121
Q

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the concept of diffusion?

A

Perfume spreading throughout a room

Diffusion involves molecules moving from high to low concentration.

122
Q

Water’s ability to move up a thin tube against the force of gravity is due to:

A

Both its cohesive and adhesive properties

Adhesion helps water stick to the tube’s walls, while cohesion allows water molecules to pull each other up.

123
Q

In the sodium-potassium pump:

A

2 sodium ions are pumped out of the cell and 3 potassium ions are pumped into the cell

The sodium-potassium pump actively transports ions to maintain cellular balance.

124
Q

Which type of transport is responsible for maintaining the cell’s internal environment by removing or adding specific substances?

A

Active transport

Active transport moves substances against their concentration gradient.

125
Q

What role do buffers play in solutions?

A

Maintain a stable pH

Buffers resist changes in pH when acids or bases are added, helping maintain a stable pH.

126
Q

Which compound acts as a base in the following reaction? HCl + NaOH -> NaCl + H2O

A

NaOH

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a base and reacts with the acid HCl in this reaction.

127
Q

In the reaction of an acid and a base, what is primarily formed?

A

Salt and water

A neutralization reaction between an acid and a base typically results in the formation of salt and water.

128
Q

What will neutralize a base?

A

Acid

Acids neutralize bases in neutralization reactions.

129
Q

What is a common use for bases?

A

In the production of soap

Bases, such as sodium hydroxide, are commonly used in soap production.

130
Q

What substance can act as both an acid and a base?

A

H2O

Water can donate protons (H+) and accept protons, thus acting as both an acid and a base.

131
Q

What does a neutralization reaction produce?

A

Salt and water

A neutralization reaction between an acid and a base results in the formation of salt and water.

132
Q

Which system helps regulate acid-base balance?

A

Respiratory system

The respiratory system, along with the renal system, plays a significant role in maintaining acid-base homeostasis in the human body.

133
Q

A substance that donates protons (H+) in a solution is classified as:

A

An acid

Acids are substances that donate protons (H+) when they dissolve in water.

134
Q

The bicarbonate system in the blood is an example of:

A

Buffer

Buffers help maintain the pH balance in the blood, with the bicarbonate system being a key component.

135
Q

Which of the following reactions describes the neutralization process?

A

Acid + Base -> Salt + Water

A neutralization reaction involves the reaction of an acid and a base to produce salt and water.

136
Q

Which ion is common in all acidic solutions?

A

H+

The presence of hydrogen ions (H+) is what characterizes acidic solutions.