anatomy and phys teas Flashcards
Which of the following is a medial structure?
Tibia
The tibia is the medial bone in the lower leg, meaning it is closer to the body’s midline. The fibula is lateral to the tibia. Similarly, in the forearm, the ulna is medial, while the radius is lateral.
The term that refers to a position farther from the body’s surface is:
Deep
The term ‘deep’ is used to describe structures that are located further from the body’s surface. In contrast, ‘superficial’ refers to structures closer to the surface.
The big toe is also known as:
Hallux
The hallux refers to the big toe, while the pollex refers to the thumb. Other terms like manus refer to the hand, and calcaneal refers to the heel.
The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the:
Pericardium
The pericardium contains a small amount of fluid to reduce friction as the heart beats.
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?
AB
AB blood type has both A and B antigens and no antibodies against A or B in their plasma.
In the cardiac conduction system, after the SA node fires, the impulse travels to the:
Atrioventricular (AV) node
The AV node acts as a delay station before passing the signal to the Bundle of His and Purkinje fibers.
Which valve prevents the backflow of blood from the pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle?
Pulmonary valve
The pulmonary valve prevents backward blood flow after contraction.
An individual with Type O blood should NOT receive:
Both B and C (A and AB blood)
Type O blood has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies, making it incompatible with A and AB blood types.
The term ‘cardiac output’ refers to:
Both A and B (The amount of blood the heart pumps in one minute & Heart rate × Stroke volume)
Cardiac output is a vital measurement of cardiovascular efficiency.
A decrease in blood pH can be caused by:
Accumulation of metabolic acids
This condition leads to acidosis, which can be counteracted by hyperventilation or increased bicarbonate levels.
An increase in which factor would lead to a decrease in blood pressure?
Vessel diameter
Vasodilation reduces resistance to blood flow, lowering blood pressure.
The difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is known as:
Pulse pressure
Pulse pressure indicates the force generated by the heart during contraction.
Which of the following factors can lead to an increase in blood pressure?
Increased sodium intake
High sodium intake causes fluid retention, raising blood volume and blood pressure.
A decrease in which factor can lead to an increase in blood pressure?
Vessel elasticity
Stiffer arteries lead to higher resistance and increased blood pressure.
In a normal cardiac cycle, the ventricles are filled with blood during:
Ventricular diastole
During this phase, the ventricles relax and fill with blood from the atria.
The conducting zones of the respiratory system include all of the following EXCEPT:
Alveoli
The conducting zone consists of structures that transport air but do not participate in gas exchange, including the nasal cavity, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. The alveoli belong to the respiratory zone, where actual gas exchange occurs.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
Filtering impurities from the blood
The primary functions of the respiratory system include delivering oxygen to the bloodstream, removing carbon dioxide from the blood, and assisting in vocal sound production.
The amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forced exhalation is termed:
Residual volume
Residual volume is the air that remains in the lungs even after maximum exhalation. This prevents lung collapse and ensures continuous gas exchange between breaths.
The lung volume that represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal inhalation is called:
Inspiratory reserve volume
The inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the extra volume of air that can be inhaled with force after taking a normal breath (tidal inhalation).
In the event of hypoxia, which of the following would most likely occur?
Increased rate of respiration
Hypoxia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. To compensate, the body increases respiration rate to supply more oxygen and remove carbon dioxide.
The primary force that drives air into the lungs during inhalation is:
Decreased thoracic pressure
During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, increasing the size of the thoracic cavity and decreasing pressure inside the lungs compared to the external atmosphere.
Which of the following will most likely happen in response to increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood?
Deep and rapid breathing
When carbon dioxide (CO₂) levels rise, the blood becomes more acidic (lower pH). The body responds by increasing the rate and depth of breathing to expel more CO₂.
The condition in which the alveoli are damaged, leading to a reduction in surface area for gas exchange, is called:
Emphysema
Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disease in which the alveolar walls are damaged, leading to a loss of surface area for gas exchange.
Which part of the brain plays a critical role in coordinating motor movements and maintaining balance?
C) Cerebellum
Responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining posture, and ensuring balance.
Which structure is responsible for connecting the cerebrum with the spinal cord and houses vital centers controlling heart rate and respiration?
C) Brain stem
Includes the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata; regulates heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.
Which part of the brain plays a vital role in controlling homeostasis, including body temperature, hunger, and thirst?
A) Hypothalamus
Regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, and autonomic processes.
Which structure in the brain plays a crucial role in emotion, particularly in processing fear?
C) Amygdala
Part of the limbic system, responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aggression.
The area of the brain that plays a crucial role in forming new memories is the:
C) Hippocampus
Responsible for consolidating short-term memories into long-term memories.
Which brain structure is involved in controlling voluntary motor movements and learned routines?
B) Basal ganglia
Assist in coordination of voluntary movements, procedural learning, and habit formation.
Which structure connects the pituitary gland to the brain and plays a role in controlling the release of hormones?
B) Hypothalamus
Controls the pituitary gland, influencing growth, metabolism, and stress responses.
The primary function of the midbrain is to:
C) Process auditory and visual information
Plays an essential role in processing sensory information and coordinating reflexive motor responses.
The division of the nervous system that consists of nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord is known as the:
D) Peripheral nervous system
Connects the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body, facilitating sensory input and motor output.
Which part of the neuron is primarily responsible for transmitting information to other neurons or cells?
D) Axon
Long projection of a neuron that carries electrical impulses away from the cell body.
The region of the brain that plays a significant role in memory, particularly in the consolidation of short-term memories to long-term memories, is the:
D) Hippocampus
Critical for converting short-term memories into long-term storage.
The small, pea-sized structure that regulates the release of hormones from the pituitary gland is the:
C) Hypothalamus
Regulates hormonal release for various bodily functions.
The basal ganglia are associated with all of the following functions EXCEPT:
D) Vision processing
Basal ganglia are involved in motor control and cognitive functions related to movement.
Damage to which part of the brain would most likely result in difficulties with spatial awareness and sensory interpretation?
C) Parietal lobe
Responsible for processing sensory information and spatial awareness.
Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down carbohydrates in the mouth?
Amylase
Salivary amylase, produced by the salivary glands, begins the breakdown of starches (carbohydrates) into simpler sugars in the mouth.
The ring of muscles at the end of the large intestine that controls the passage of feces out of the body is the:
Anal sphincter
The anal sphincter is a group of muscles at the end of the rectum that controls the release of feces from the body.
Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the liver?
Absorbing water and electrolytes
The liver is responsible for producing bile, filtering toxins, and storing nutrients. The absorption of water and electrolytes is a function of the large intestine.
Which enzyme, produced by the pancreas, is responsible for breaking down fats in the small intestine?
Pancreatic lipase
Pancreatic lipase is released by the pancreas and is essential for breaking down dietary fats into glycerol and fatty acids in the small intestine.
The final segment of the colon before the rectum is the:
Sigmoid colon
The sigmoid colon is the S-shaped section of the large intestine that connects the descending colon to the rectum.
Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid?
Secretin
Secretin is released when acidic chyme enters the small intestine and stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate, which helps neutralize stomach acid.
The process by which food is moved from the pharynx to the stomach is known as:
Deglutition
Deglutition refers to swallowing, which moves food from the pharynx to the esophagus, ultimately leading to the stomach.
Which muscle primarily flexes the hip joint and assists in knee flexion?
Sartorius
The sartorius muscle is the longest muscle in the human body and runs diagonally across the thigh. It is responsible for hip flexion, knee flexion, and lateral rotation of the thigh.
The function of the serratus anterior includes:
Protraction and stabilization of the scapula
The serratus anterior muscle is located on the side of the ribcage. It plays a key role in protracting (moving forward) and stabilizing the scapula, as well as assisting in upward rotation of the shoulder.
The orbicularis oculi muscle is primarily responsible for:
Closing the eyelids
The orbicularis oculi muscle is a circular muscle surrounding the eye. It is responsible for closing the eyelids, which helps in blinking and protecting the eyes from debris.
Which muscle group is most directly responsible for extending the thigh and assisting in lateral rotation?
Gluteus maximus
The gluteus maximus, the largest muscle in the body, is primarily responsible for extending the thigh at the hip joint and assisting in lateral rotation.
Which muscle is responsible for plantarflexing the foot at the ankle?
Gastrocnemius
The gastrocnemius, one of the main calf muscles, is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot, which is the movement that allows you to stand on your toes or push off when walking or running.
The biceps femoris is a part of which muscle group?
Hamstrings
The biceps femoris is one of the three muscles that make up the hamstrings, located in the posterior thigh. These muscles assist in knee flexion and hip extension.
The ability of a muscle to stretch without being damaged is termed:
Extensibility
Extensibility refers to a muscle’s ability to be stretched beyond its normal resting length without sustaining damage.
Which muscle is primarily responsible for chewing and elevating the mandible?
Masseter
The masseter muscle, located at the angle of the jaw, is one of the strongest muscles in the body. It is responsible for elevating the mandible (closing the jaw) during chewing.
Which muscle abducts the arm and stabilizes the scapula?
Serratus anterior
The serratus anterior plays a crucial role in stabilizing the scapula and assisting in arm abduction by allowing the shoulder blade to move smoothly.
The vastus medialis muscle is part of which group?
Quadriceps
The vastus medialis is part of the quadriceps muscle group, which is responsible for extending the knee and is essential for movements like standing, walking, and running.
The external male reproductive organ that also serves as the urinary excretory duct is:
Penis
The penis allows the passage of semen during ejaculation and urine from the bladder.
The hormone responsible for the secondary sexual characteristics in males, such as facial hair growth, is:
Testosterone
Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone responsible for developing secondary sexual characteristics.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating the growth of ovarian follicles?
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
FSH is essential for the early stages of the menstrual cycle.
Which of the following structures aids in the lubrication of the vagina?
Bartholin’s glands
Bartholin’s glands produce a lubricating fluid that helps reduce friction during intercourse.
The luteinizing hormone (LH) in males promotes:
The secretion of testosterone
LH stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
The monthly release of an egg from an ovary is termed:
Ovulation
Ovulation occurs around the middle of the menstrual cycle.
The hormone primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrial lining during the second half of the menstrual cycle is:
Progesterone
Progesterone is released by the corpus luteum after ovulation.
Which hormone stimulates the release of an egg from the mature follicle?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
A surge in LH triggers ovulation.
The thick middle layer of the uterine wall, consisting mainly of smooth muscle, is the:
Myometrium
The myometrium is responsible for uterine contractions during labor and menstruation.
Which hormone primarily prepares the endometrium for the potential implantation of an embryo?
Progesterone
Progesterone thickens the endometrial lining preparing it for embryo implantation.
Which structure serves as the site of fertilization in females?
Fallopian tube
Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tube.
Which of the following describes the function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in females?
It stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles
FSH allows follicles to mature and release an egg during ovulation.
Which male structure is responsible for producing a fluid that nourishes and protects sperm?
Seminal vesicles
The seminal vesicles produce a nutrient-rich fluid that constitutes the majority of semen.
Which cells found in the epidermis are dead and filled with the protein keratin?
Corneocytes
Corneocytes are the dead, flattened cells found in the outermost stratum corneum of the epidermis. These cells lack nuclei and are filled with keratin, providing a protective barrier against environmental damage.
Which type of cell in the epidermis helps in the immune defense against pathogens?
Langerhans cells
Langerhans cells are immune cells found in the epidermis that help detect and defend against pathogens. They act as antigen-presenting cells (APCs), capturing foreign substances and activating the immune system.
Which layer of the epidermis contains actively dividing cells, replenishing the more superficial layers?
Stratum basale
The stratum basale (also called the germinativum) is the deepest layer of the epidermis. It contains actively dividing basal cells, which constantly produce new keratinocytes that migrate upwards to replace dead skin cells.
Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for producing the extracellular matrix in proper connective tissues?
Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts are the primary connective tissue cells that produce collagen, elastin, and the extracellular matrix (ECM), which gives tissues their strength and flexibility.
Which gland serves as the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems?
Hypothalamus
The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland and regulates hormone release by producing releasing and inhibiting hormones.
Which gland is responsible for regulating the body’s circadian rhythm?
Pineal gland
The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which helps regulate the body’s sleep-wake cycle.
Which section of the adrenal glands releases adrenaline in response to stress?
Adrenal medulla
The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline for the ‘fight or flight’ response.
The release of which hormone regulates the body’s sleep-wake cycle?
Melatonin
Melatonin is responsible for maintaining the body’s circadian rhythm and sleep cycle.
Which of the following describes a negative feedback mechanism?
It stabilizes the system by reversing deviations from a set point.
Negative feedback loops maintain homeostasis by reducing deviations from a set point.
Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults can lead to which condition characterized by enlarged bones?
Acromegaly
Acromegaly results from excessive growth hormone secretion in adulthood.
In which region of the adrenal gland is aldosterone produced?
Adrenal cortex
The adrenal cortex produces aldosterone, which regulates sodium and potassium balance.
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal gland are all parts of which brain structure?
Diencephalon
The diencephalon regulates hormones, sensory processing, and autonomic functions.
Calcitonin, a hormone that helps regulate calcium levels in the blood, is produced by which gland?
Thyroid
The thyroid gland produces calcitonin, which lowers blood calcium levels.
The ‘fight or flight’ response is triggered by the release of hormones from which part of the adrenal gland?
Adrenal medulla
The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the body’s circadian rhythm?
Melatonin
Melatonin regulates the sleep-wake cycle; other hormones do not.
Which structure connects the two lobes of the thyroid gland?
Isthmus
The isthmus is a narrow bridge of tissue connecting the left and right lobes of the thyroid gland.
Which structure serves as the functional unit of the kidney?
Nephron
The nephron is responsible for filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion.
Where does the process of filtration primarily occur within the nephron?
Glomerulus
The glomerulus is a network of capillaries in Bowman’s capsule where blood plasma is filtered.
What is the primary function of the loop of Henle in the nephron?
Concentration of urine
The loop of Henle creates a concentration gradient for water reabsorption.
The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs which of the following ions?
All of the above
The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs sodium (Na⁺), potassium (K⁺), and chloride (Cl⁻).
Where does most reabsorption of solutes and water occur in the nephron?
Proximal tubule
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) reabsorbs ~65-70% of filtrate.
Within the kidney, the process of __________ helps to maintain blood pressure and volume by adjusting the amount of filtrate that becomes urine.
Reabsorption
Reabsorption controls water balance and blood pressure by moving substances from filtrate back into the blood.
Which structure is responsible for regulating the final concentration and volume of urine?
Collecting duct
The collecting duct is influenced by ADH and aldosterone for final urine regulation.
When blood pH becomes too acidic, how do the kidneys compensate?
Reabsorb more bicarbonate
The kidneys help buffer blood pH by reabsorbing bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻).
Which structure connects the renal pelvis to the major calyces?
Minor calyces
Minor calyces collect urine from renal pyramids and pass it to the major calyces.
In which part of the nephron is the filtrate most hypotonic?
At the start of the distal convoluted tubule
The distal convoluted tubule has the most diluted filtrate.
What hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more sodium ions when blood pressure is low?
Aldosterone
Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption, which increases blood pressure.
The connecting tubule of the nephron primarily connects to which structure?
Collecting duct
The connecting tubule links the nephron to the collecting duct.
What is the primary function of the renal pyramids?
Collection of urine
Renal pyramids contain collecting ducts that drain urine into minor calyces.
The glomerular filtrate primarily consists of:
Water, glucose, and small solutes
The glomerulus filters water, ions, glucose, while proteins and blood cells stay in circulation.
The process of __________ removes waste products from the blood and adds them to the filtrate.
Secretion
Secretion moves toxins, drugs, and excess ions from blood into the nephron.
Which section of the nephron is impermeable to water, allowing only for solute reabsorption?
Thick ascending limb
The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs solutes but is impermeable to water.
Which structure connects the bladder to the external body, allowing for urine excretion?
Urethra
The urethra carries urine from the bladder out of the body.
An increase in the concentration of which ion would directly stimulate the release of aldosterone to promote its reabsorption?
Potassium
High potassium levels stimulate aldosterone release, increasing potassium excretion.
When there’s a decrease in blood volume, the kidneys can stimulate the production of red blood cells by releasing:
Erythropoietin (EPO)
EPO stimulates bone marrow to produce more red blood cells.
Which type of immunity is present at birth and does not rely on previous exposure to a pathogen?
B) Innate immunity
Innate immunity is the body’s first line of defense and provides non-specific protection against pathogens from birth.
Which white blood cell is most commonly found in blood and primarily targets bacteria?
A) Neutrophil
Neutrophils are the most abundant WBCs and are the first responders to bacterial infections.
An individual who receives a vaccine for chickenpox is gaining which type of immunity?
B) Active immunity
Active immunity occurs when the body produces its own antibodies after exposure to a pathogen or vaccine.
Which of the following are specifically known for producing antibodies?
D) B cells
B cells produce antibodies, which bind to and neutralize pathogens.
Which glandular secretion contains enzymes that attack bacterial cell walls?
B) Tears
Tears contain lysozyme, an enzyme that breaks down bacterial cell walls.
Which cells are primarily responsible for cellular immunity and directly attack body cells infected with pathogens?
C) Cytotoxic T cells
Cytotoxic T cells (CD8+) kill virus-infected and cancerous cells directly.
An antigen is best defined as:
B) A substance that triggers an immune response
Antigens are molecules found on pathogens that stimulate an immune response.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune system?
B) Antibodies
Antibodies are part of the adaptive immune response, produced by B cells in response to specific pathogens.
Which of the following is a primary function of the adenoids?
C) Trapping and removing pathogens entering through the nasal cavity
Adenoids are lymphatic tissues that trap bacteria and viruses inhaled through the nose.
Erythropoiesis regulation is primarily a function of the:
D) Kidneys
The kidneys release erythropoietin (EPO), which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
Which white blood cell releases chemicals that intensify the inflammatory response and are involved in allergic reactions?
B) Basophil
Basophils release histamines, which contribute to inflammation and allergic reactions.
Which structure in the lymphatic system helps in the maturation of B cells?
B) Bone marrow
B cells mature in the bone marrow, while T cells mature in the thymus.
In an allergic reaction, which cells release histamines that cause symptoms like itching and inflammation?
C) Basophils
Basophils release histamines, which cause inflammation and allergic symptoms.
Which type of joint allows for a wide range of movement?
Diarthrosis
Diarthrosis (synovial joints) allow for the greatest range of motion and include ball-and-socket joints (shoulder, hip) and hinge joints (elbow, knee)
What bone forms the lower jaw?
Mandible
The mandible is the only movable bone of the skull and supports the lower teeth
The epiphyseal line is found in mature bones and is a remnant of the _______.
epiphyseal plate
The epiphyseal line replaces the epiphyseal plate after growth stops, serving as a marker of bone maturity
In which part of the bone is yellow bone marrow primarily found?
Diaphysis
Yellow bone marrow, primarily composed of fat, is found in the diaphysis (shaft) of long bones
The bones that form the wrist are known as _______.
Carpals
The eight small bones in the wrist are called carpals
A sesamoid bone is typically found embedded within _______.
Tendons
Sesamoid bones, such as the patella (kneecap), are embedded within tendons to reduce friction and increase leverage
Flat bones, such as the bones of the skull, primarily serve which function?
Protection of underlying organs
Flat bones (like the skull, ribs, and sternum) are designed to protect organs such as the brain and heart
True or False: Synarthrosis joints allow for movement.
False
Synarthrosis joints do not allow movement, while diarthrosis joints allow for a wide range of motion
Which type of marrow is responsible for blood cell production?
Red bone marrow
Red bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, while yellow bone marrow is primarily composed of fat
What is the function of long bones like the femur?
Leverage for movement
Long bones provide leverage for movement, unlike flat bones which protect underlying organs
