Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOC Study > Chapters 4-8 > Flashcards

Chapters 4-8 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F improper conditioning is a primary contributing factor for sports injuries

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some principles that should be applied to conditioning programs to reduce risk of injury? (10)

A

Safety, warmup/cooldown, motivation, overload, consistency, progression, intensity, specificity, individuality, minimal stress

(Page 89-90)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does SAID stand for?

A

Specific adaptations to imposed demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the SAID principle state?

A

When the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt over time to overcome whatever demands are placed on it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is cardiorespiratory endurance?

A

The ability to perform whole-body large-muscle activities for extended periods of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 4 components transport oxygen?

A

Heart, lungs, blood vessels, and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is meant by “Training effect” with regards to cardiac output of the heart?

A

Strike volume increases while heart rate is reduced at a given exercise load

(Page 93)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the ratio of carbohydrate/fat consumption at rest and submaximal activity?

A

40:60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 3 different types of cardiovascular training?

A

Continuous training, interval training, and speed play (fartlek)

(Page 95-97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is speed play?

A

When the terrain they are running on differs (goes from uphill to flat to downhill etc) and they run for a specified time, but speed and pace are not specified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F The strength of noncontractile structure, tendons/ligaments, decreases with resistance training

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F Adaptations from resistance training begin to reverse (atrophy) is as little as 48 hours

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F For a muscle to improve in strength must be forced to work at a higher level than it is accustomed to work

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What muscles make up the core?

A

Lumbar spine, abdomen, hips, and pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is progressive resistance exercise (PRE)?

A

Technique that strengthens muscles through a contraction that overcomes some fixed resistance produced by equipment. (Normal lifting)

Page 104

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which contraction requires less oxygen usage?

A

Eccentric.

Lower motor unit activity–> lower oxygen utilization–> more resistant to fatigue

(Page 105)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 jobs of a spotter?

A

Protect lifter from injury, make recommendations on proper lifting form, and help motivate the lifter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is accommodating resistance?

A

Change in resistance at different points in the range

Ex Cam system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are common things targeted in circuit training? (4)

A

Weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and aerobic exercise

Typically 10-12 stations, repeated 3 times

(Page 109)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is flexibility?

A

The ability to move a joint or series of joints smoothly and easily through a full range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some things that may limit flexibility? (6)

A

Bony structure, excessive fat, skin (scar tissue), muscles/tendons, connective tissue, neural tissue tightness

Page 112

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an agonist muscle?

A

Muscle contracting to cause movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does an antagonist muscle do?

A

Muscle being stretched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F Passive range of motion is important for injury prevention

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do Golgi tendon organs respond to?

A

Change in length and the increase in tension by firing off sensory impulses of their own to the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the impulses from the GTO do?

A

Causes a relaxation of the antagonist.

Allows muscle to stretch through relaxation w/o exceeding the estensibility limits

Page 114

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does a muscle spindle do?

A

Informs CNS that a muscle is being stretched.

Causes the muscle to reflexively contract, resisting the stretch

Page 114

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is autogenic inhibition?

A

Relaxation of the antagonist muscle during contractions

GTO

Page 114

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

A contraction of the agonist causes a reflex relaxation in the antagonist muscle, allowing it to stretch and protecting it from injury

114

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 PNF techniques?

A

Slow reversal hold
Contract relax
Hold relax

Page 116

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the definition of nutrition?

A

The science of the substances in food that are essential to life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 major functions of nutrients?

A

The growth, repair, and maintenance of all tissues

Regulation do body processes

Production of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the 6 classes of nutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, fats/lipids, proteins, water, vitamins, and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the recommended amount of fiber in the diet?

A

25 grams/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the dietary recommendation percentages for carbs, fats, and proteins?

A

Carbs: 55-60%
Fats: 25-30%
Proteins: 15-20%

Page 130

36
Q

What is the one unsaturated fatty acid that seems to serve as a protective mechanism against certain disease processes?

A

Omega-3

Cold water fish

37
Q

What are some uses for proteins?

A

Growth, maintenance, and repair of all body tissues

Make enzymes, hormones, and antibodies

Page 131

38
Q

T/F: there is a huge advantage by consuming excess proteins

A

False

It will be converted to fats, and cause cells to become dehydrated (possibly causes damage to kidneys and liver)

132

39
Q

What vitamins are fat-soluble?

A

A,D,E, and K

40
Q

What are water soluble vitamins?

A

C, thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, B6, B12, folate, biotin, and pantithenic acid

132 chart of what they are/do

41
Q

How much water does an average adult need a day?

A

2.5 liters or 10 cups

Page 135

42
Q

What are symptoms of dehydration?

A

Fatigue, vomiting, nausea, exhaustion, fainting, and possibly death

43
Q

T/F: electrolytes maintain the balance do water inside and outside the cell

A

True

44
Q

T/F: calcium is the most abundant mineral in the body

A

True

45
Q

How much extra protein should an individual consume whom is trying to build muscle?

A

1-1.5 grams/kg body weight

Page 138

46
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

A scale that indicates how much different types of carbohydrate effect blood glucose levels

Page 142

47
Q

What are the 3 phases of glucose supercompensation?

A

1( day 1 and 2) training hard, dietary intake of carbs restricted

2(days 3-5) training cut back, eat plenty of carbs

3(day of event) normal diet

Page 146

48
Q

How many calories/gram are there in carbs, fats, proteins, and alcohol

A

Carbs: 4
Proteins: 4
Fats: 9
Alcohol: 7

Page 148

49
Q

What are the 3 processes which expend energy?

A

Basal metabolism, work(any activity other than sleeping), and excretion

Page 148

50
Q

What 3 things make up the female athlete triad syndrome?

A

Eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis

51
Q

What are the ways heat can be gained or lost?

A

1) metabolic heat production: metabolism cause increase in body heat
2) conductive heat exchange: physical contact
3) convective heat exchange: mass of air or water moves around individual
4) radiant heat exchange: sunshine to gain or our body when cloudy day
5) evaporative heat loss: sweat

Page 157

52
Q

At what humidity does evaporation become impaired? Stop?

A

65%

75%

53
Q

What are some strategies to prevent hyperthermia?

A

Appropriate hydration, unrestricted fluid/electrolyte replacement, gradual acclimatization, identification of susceptible individuals, appropriate uniforms, weight records, and monitoring the heat index

Page 158

54
Q

T/F: mild dehydration is the loss of less than 2% body weight

A

True

55
Q

T/F: fluid intake should equal fluid loss

A

True

56
Q

What are signs of dehydration?

A

Thirst, dry mouth, headache, dizziness, irritability, lethargy, excessive fatigue, and possibly cramps

57
Q

Is water a good rehydrator?

A

No. It turns off thirst before the body is completely rehydrated. It also turns on kidneys prematurely so fluid is lost in urine quicker.

Page 159

58
Q

What is the ideal ratio for carbohydrate in sports drinks to replenish hydration?

A

14 grams per 8 ounces

6% carbohydrate

59
Q

What is heat rash?

A

Red, raised rash accompanied by sensations of prickling and tingling during sweating

60
Q

What is heat syncope?

A

Rapid physical fatigue during overexposure to heat. Caused by peripheral vasodilation of superficial vessels, hypotension, or a pooling of blood in extremities

61
Q

What are exertional heat cramps?

A

Extremely painful muscle spasms. Related to the excessive loss of water and electrolytes

62
Q

What is exertional heat exhaustion?

A

Athlete is so dehydrated they are unable to sustain adequate cardiac output

Rectal temp less that 104

63
Q

What are signs of heat exhaustion?

A

Pale skin, profuse sweating, stomach cramps w/ nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, persistent muscle cramps, and dizziness with loss of coordination

Page 165

64
Q

What should be continually measured when someone is being treated for heat exhaustion?

A

Heart rate, blood pressure, and core temperature

65
Q

What is exertional heatstroke?

A

CNS abnormalities and potential tissue damage from a significantly elevated body temperature

Over 104 degrees

66
Q

What are some signs of heatstroke?

A

Altered consciousness, seizures, confusion, emotional instability, irrational behavior, decreased mental acuity, rectal temp greater than 104, loss of sweating

Shallow, fast breathing. Rapid, strong pulse. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, dizziness/weakness, decreased BP, and dehydration

67
Q

What is the biggest concern for an athlete with heatstroke?

A

Lowering body temp.

Get athlete into a cool environment, strip off all clothing, and immerse the athlete in a cold-water bath (35-58 degree)

68
Q

What are 3 things which will increase the likelihood of hypothermia?

A

Cold, wind, and dampness

69
Q

At what core temperature does shivering stop? Death is imminent?

A

85-90

77-85

70
Q

What climate is frost nip more likely to occur?

A

Damp, freezing cold

Page 170

71
Q

What climate most likely produces frostbite?

A

Dry temperatures well below freezing

Page 170

72
Q

What are some early treatment techniques for frost nip?

A

Firm sustained pressure from hands (not rubbing), blowing hot breath on spot, placing affected area in armpits

Page 170

73
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of frostbite?

A

Chilblains: skin redness, swelling, tingling, and pain in toes/fingers

Superficial (skin and subcutaneous tissue): skin appears pale, hard, cold, and waxy

Deep: initially cold, hard, pale/white, and numb. After gradual rewarding tissue becomes blotchy red, swollen, and extremely painful

Page 170

74
Q

What are 4 adverse illnesses to altitude? What do they entail?

A

Acute mountain sickness: tissues disruption in brain affecting NA/K balance. Symptom: headache, nausea, vomiting, sleep disturbance, and dyspnea

High altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE): small amount of fluid shotgun alveolar walls. Symptoms: dyspnea, cough, headache, weakness, and unconsciousness

High altitude cerebral edema (HACE): increased cerebral fluid in head causing increased pressure. Symptoms: severe headache and neurological abnormalities

Sickle cell trait reaction: RBC clump together.

PAGE 172

75
Q

What are 2 long-term effects of sun over exposure?

A

Skin cancer

Premature aging: Characterized by dryness cracking, and decrease in elasticity

76
Q

What is the flash-to-band method?

A

Number of seconds from lightning flash until sound of thunder divided by 5 to determine the distance of the lightning strike.

When count reaches 30 leave playing field.

77
Q

How long do you have to wait to resume practice after seeing lightning?

A

30 minutes of no sighted lightning

78
Q

Flying which direction has been shown to decrease performance?

A

West to east

Page 176

79
Q

T/F: the best way for an athletic trainer to avoid litigation is to follow exactly the manufacturer’s instructions for using and maintaining protective equipment.

A

True

80
Q

What committee is responsible for football,baseball/softball, and lacrosse?

A

The National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE)

81
Q

How would you fit a football helmet?

A

1: fit snugly around head no gaps
2: cover base of skull
3: front should be 2 fingers width above eyebrows
4: wars in ear holes
5: face mask secure, and 3 fingers width from chin
6: no shifting with manual pressure
7: no recoil on impact
8: chin strap equal distance from center

Page 187

82
Q

What 2 places certify hockey helmets?

A

Canadian Standards Association (CSA)
And
Hockey Equipment Certification Council (HECC)

83
Q

What are the different forms of face protection?

A

Face guards, threat protection devices, mouth guards, ear guards, and eye protection devices

Page 189

84
Q

T/F a properly fitted mouth guard protects the teeth, absorbs blows to the chin, and can prevent concussion

A

True

85
Q

What are 3 types of mouth guards?

A

Stock variety
Boil and bite
Custom-fabricated

86
Q

How should you fit shoulder pads?

A

1: Measure width of shoulder to determine size
2: inside of pad should cover top of lateral shoulder
3: deltoid should be covered
4: neck area allow athlete to raise arms overhead without discomfort
5: make sure they don’t shift when putting in jersey

Page 194

87
Q

How long do running shoes last?

A

350-550 miles

Page 196

BOC Study (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions