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BOC Study > Chapters 11-17 > Flashcards

Chapters 11-17 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 classifications for injuries?

A

Short-term: less than 4 weeks

Long-term: more than 4 weeks

Chronic: recurring

Terminating: career-ending

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2
Q

What are the 3 reactive phases towards an injury?

A

Reaction to injury
Reaction to rehabilitation
Reaction to return

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3
Q

What’s the Kübler-Ross model?

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
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4
Q

What are some psychological barriers to rehabilitation?

A 
Depression or grief
Anxiety
Anger, agitation, or aggression
Denial
Sleep disturbance
Psychosocial isolation
Substance abuse
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5
Q

What is needed from the AT for providing social support to the patient?

A 
Be a good listener
Find out what the problem is
Be aware of body language
Project a caring image
Explain the injury to the patient
Manage the stress of injury
Help athlete return to competition
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6
Q

What are some characteristics of an injury-prone athlete?

A 
Risk takers
Reserved
Detached
Tender-minded players
Apprehensive
Overprotective
Easily distracted
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7
Q

What’s the difference between eustress and distress?

A

Eustress- positive beneficial stress

Distress- detrimental responses or negative stressors

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8
Q

Name some signs of anxiety?

A 
Heart palpitations
Shortness of breath
Sweaty palms
Constructed throat
Headaches
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9
Q

T/F: If the season is rewarding, athletes are more likely to develop staleness.

A

False

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10
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of staleness?

A

Decrease in performance level, difficulty falling asleep, awakening from sleep for no reason, loss of appetite/increase weight (or the opposite), indigestion, difficulty concentrating, difficulty enjoying sex, nausea for no apparent reason, head colds/allergic reactions, behavioral signs of restlessness (irritability, anxiety, depression), elevated destiny HR, elevated BP, arriving late to practice/rehab

Page 293

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11
Q

What are symptoms associated with sudden exercise abstinence syndrome?

A 
Heart palpitations
Irregular heartbeat
Chest pain
Disturbed appetite and digestion
Sleep disorders
Increased sweating
Depression
Emotional instability
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12
Q

What is burnout?

A

Syndrome related to physical and emotional exhaustion. Leads to negative self-concept, negative job or sport attitudes, and loss of concern for the feelings of others

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13
Q

Describe the progressive relaxation technique to relieve tension/anxiety?

A

Person contracts each muscle group for 5-7 seconds then relaxes for 20-30 seconds

Page 297

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14
Q

Explain these two techniques to reconstruct cognitive function: referring irrational thoughts and thought stopping

A

Recruiting irrational thoughts:
Changing negative thoughts into positive

Thought stopping:stop negative thoughts by using phrase or noise and focus on positive

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15
Q

How often should emergency procedures be rehearsed?

A

At least once a year

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16
Q

Who has the final say in transporting an injured athlete?

A

EMT

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17
Q

What is included in the primary survey (on-the-field assessment)?

A 
Level of consciousness
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Severe bleeding
Shock
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18
Q

What’s the ratio of chest compressions:breaths

A

30:1

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19
Q

Who and when passed that we needed to use Barriers for mouth to mouth to decrease chance of transmitting blood borne pathogens?

A

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration

1992

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20
Q

What percent oxygen is in normal air?

A

21%

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21
Q

Describe the three types of bleeding.

A

Venous: dark red with steady flow

Capillary: reddish color

Arterial: bright red and spurting

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22
Q

What are the main types of shock?

A

Hypovolemic-decreased blood loss

Respiratory- lungs unable to supply enough oxygen to circulating blood

Neurogenic- caused by General dilation of blood vessels within the cardiovascular system

Psychogenic- temporary dilation of blood vessels that reduces the normal amount of blood in brain (fainting)

Cardiogenic- inability of heart to pump enough blood to body

Septic- occurs from severe infections

Anaphylactic- allergies

Metabolic- when severe illness goes untreated

Page 323

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23
Q

What are signs of shock?

A 
Low BP
systolic pressure is usually below 90 mmHg
Rapid and weak pulse
Patient drowsy and appear sluggish
Shallow, rapid respiration
Skin pale, cool, and clammy

Page 323

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24
Q

What are the 3 primary vital signs?

A

Pulse
Respiration
Blood pressure

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25
Q

What are the normal levels for the vital signs?

A

Pulse: 60-100/min adult
80-100/min children

Respiration: 12-20 breaths/min adult
15-30 for children

Blood pressure: 120/80

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26
Q

What’s the name given to the sounds heard while taking BP?

A

Korotkoff sounds

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27
Q

What’s the normal progression of feeling with cold application?

A

Cold, burning, aching, complete numbness

Age 328

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28
Q

Define etiology.

A

Cause of disease

Ex. MOI

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29
Q

What is sequela?

A

Condition resulting from disease or injury

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30
Q

What are the 3 types of direct transmutation for an infectious disease?

A

Contact between body surfaces (touching, sex)

Droplet spread

Fecal-oral spread

Page 374

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31
Q

What are indirect contact transmission?

A

Water, food, towels, clothing, and eating utensils

Through vectors (insects, birds, or animals)

Page 374

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32
Q

What are ways a pathogen can inter the body?

A

Skin
Respiratory system
Digestive system
Reproductive system

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33
Q

What are the stages of pathogen infection?

A

Incubation stage- time when pathogen enters and multiplies to the point where signs/symptoms begin

Prodromal stage-person is able to transfer disease to another. Continued multiplication

Acute stage-disease reaches greatest development and spread is highest. Body resists further damage from pathogen

Decline stage-first signs of recovery appear
Recovery stage-apparent recovery achieved. Patient susceptible to other pathogens

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34
Q

T/F: hand washing is the single most important practice for preventing the spread of infectious dieseases

A

True

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35
Q

T/F: A virus contains both DNA and RNA

A

False. It contains one or the other. Depends on host for metabolic and reproductive requirements. Person gets sick because it redirects cellular activity to create more viruses.

Page 376

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36
Q

T/F: HIV is is most often transmitted through intimate sexual contact

A

True

37
Q

What should contaminated surfaces be cleaned with?

A

Solution of 1:10 bleach to water

38
Q

What are the 5 classifications of modalities?

A

Thermal conductive energy-thermo/cryo

Electrical energy- estim/ionto

Electromagnetic energy-diathermy/ infared/ UV light therapy/ low level lasers

Sound energy- US/ extracorporal shockwave therapy

Mechanical energy- intermittent compression, traction, massage

39
Q

What are desirable effect of heat?

A

Increase extensibility of collagen tissue, decrees joint stiffness, reducing pain, relieving muscle spasm, reducing inflammation, edema, exudates in the productive phase of healing, and increases blood flow

Page 390

40
Q

How hot should the hydrocollator be?

A

160-170 degrees

41
Q

How many layers should be used with the hydrocollator pad?

A

6 layers for 15-20 minutes

42
Q

How warm is a paraffin bath?

A

126-130 degrees

43
Q

What’s the ratio of wax:mineral oils for a paraffin bath?

A

25kg:1 liter

44
Q

What is the hunting response?

A

Slight temperature increase during cooling

Intermittent periods of vasodilation lasting 4-6 minutes during a 30 minute cold treatment

Page 393

45
Q

What are some affects of cold application?

A

Decrease muscle spasm(by decreasing metabolism)
Lower metabolic rate
Vasoconstriction
Decreases amount of swelling (does not get rid of swelling that is already present)
Decreases free nerve endings excitability
Decreases excitability of peripheral nerves
Decreases muscle fatigue
Increase and maintain muscular contraction

Page 394

46
Q

How long should an ice cup massage be?

A

5-10 minutes

47
Q

How cold is an ice bath?

A

50-60 degrees

48
Q

T/F: A typical ice bath is 15-20 minutes long.

A

False.

10-15

49
Q

T/F: The goal of cryojinetics is to numb the injured part to the point of analgesia and then work toward achieving normal ROM through progressive active exercise

A

True

50
Q

Explain how to perform cryokinetics.

A

Numb area 12-20min
Do exercise until numbness wears off (3-5 minutes)
Re-numb area (3-5 min)
Repeat 5x

51
Q

What is an amperes?

A

Measurement of volume or amount of electrical energy

52
Q

What is an ohms?

A

Measurement of resistance

53
Q

What is voltage and watts?

A

Force

Measurement of power

54
Q

What is the order in which the threshold of depolarization occurs in the 3 nerve fibers?

A

1) sensory
2) motor
3) pain

55
Q

What is DC current used for (monophonic current)

A

Pain modulation, muscle contraction, or ion movement

Flow moves from positive to negative pole

56
Q

What can biphasic currents be used for?

A

Pain modulation

Muscle contraction

57
Q

What does estim for muscular contraction do? (4)

A

Muscle pumping
Muscle strengthening
Retards atrophy
Muscle reeducation

Page 400

58
Q

What are 2 common ions used for iontophoresis?

A

Dexamethasone

Hydrocortisone

59
Q

What is the frequency for shortwave diathermy?

A

13.56 or 27.12

60
Q

What does LASER stand for?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

61
Q

What is US used for?

A

Deep tissue heating
Repair soft-tissue injuries
Relieve pain

62
Q

T/F: Absorption of sound increases with an increase in frequency

A

True

63
Q

What is the piezoelectrical effect?

A

Expansion and contraction of crystals, producing oscillation voltage at the same frequency as the sound wave

64
Q

What’s the depth of 1MHz and 3MHz in regards to US?

A

1: 1.2-2 inches
3: .4-.8 inches

65
Q

What is the effective radiating area of a US transducer?

A

Portion of transducer that produces sound energy

66
Q

What are the nonthermal effects of US?

A

Cavitation: formation of gas bubbles that expand and compress b/c of ultrasonically induced pressure changes

Microstreaming: unidirectional movement of fluids along the boundaries of cell membranes, resulting in the mechanical pressure wave

Page 405

67
Q

How often can thermal US be applied?

A

Alternating days for 10-12 treatments

68
Q

What are the physiologic responses to massage?

A

Reflex effects
Relaxation
Stimulation
Increased circulation

69
Q

T/F: The fast twitch muscle fibers are the first to atrophy with loss of function.

A

False.

Slow-twitch

70
Q

T/F: Immobilizing a muscle in a shortened position will tend to atrophy less.

A

False.

Lengthened =less atrophy
Shortened = more atrophy

Page 423

71
Q

T/F: Joint immobilization decreases normal lubrication

A

True.

Occurs because articulate cartilage is deprived of its normal nutrition

72
Q

Name some components of a rehabilitation program.

A 
Minimize swelling
Control pain
Reestablish neuromuscular control
Establish/enhance core stability
Regain/improve ROM
Restore/increase muscular strength/endurance
Regain balance/postural control
Maintain cardiorespiratory endurance
Incorporate functional progressions
73
Q

What are the 4 elements that reestablish neuromuscular control?

A

1) proprioceptive and kinesthesia
2) dynamic stability
3) preparatory and reactive muscle characteristics
4) conscious and unconscious functional motor patterns

Page 424

74
Q

Define kinesthesia.

A

Ability to detect movement

75
Q

Describe ruffini corpuscles.

A

In joint capsules. Sensitive to touch, tension, maybe heat.

Sensitive to position of joint and rate/direction of movement of joint.

Most active at end ranges of motion

Page 425

76
Q

What do pacinian corpuscles respond to?

A

Deep pressure

77
Q

What are merkel’s corpuscles respond to?

A

Deep pressure, but a lot slower than Pacinian

Located in skin

78
Q

What do Meissner’s corpuscles respond to?

A

Activated by light touch

Located in skin

79
Q

What’s the difference between validity and reliability?

A

Validity: measures what it says it will

Reliability: consistently provides similar results

Page 431

80
Q

What are 5 components needed to make muscle energy techniques effective?

A

1) active muscle contraction by patient
2) muscle contraction oriented in a specific direction
3) some control of contraction intensity by the patient
4) control of joint position by AT
5) appropriate counterforce applied by the AT

81
Q

What are the 5 grades of joint mobilization?

A

1) small-amplitude glide at beginning of ROM. Used when pain and spasm limit motion
2) large-amplitude glide within midrange ROM
3) large-amplitude glide up to pathological limit in ROM
4) small-amplitude guide at end of ROM
5) small-amplitude, quick thrust delivered at end of ROM, usually accompanied by popping sound

Page 441

82
Q

What are the grades of muscle energy used for?

A

1&2 for pain

3&4 treat stiffness

83
Q

Define pharmacokinetics.

A

Method by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated

84
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

How completely a particular drug is absorbed by the system.

Dependent on characteristics of drug not dosage form

85
Q

What is the relationship between efficacy and potency?

A

Efficacy= drugs capability of producing a specific therapeutic effect

Potency= dose of a drug required to produce a desired therapeutic effect

86
Q

What drugs can be used to fight infection?

A

Local antiseptics, disinfectants, antifungal agents, and antibiotics

Page 465

87
Q

What are some drugs used to inhibit pain or inflammation?

A

Counterirritants, narcotic analgesics, nonnarcotic analgesics, and antipyretics

Page 468

88
Q

What drugs are used to treat GI disorders?

A

Antacids, antiemetics, carminatives, cathartics (laxatives), antidiarrheals, H2 blockers, and proton pump inhibitors

Page 471

89
Q

T/F: A concentration of 10 micrograms/ml of caffeine in urine is banned.

A

False. 12 and over

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