Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT-B JBLearning > Chapters 1-4 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-4 Flashcards

Learn Definitions

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

A (_______) has training in specific aspects of Advanced Life Support, such as intravenous therapy, and administration of certain emergency medications.

A

AEMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Advanced Life Support (ALS)?

A

Advanced lifesaving procedures, some of which are now being provided by the EMT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the comprehensive legislation that is designed to protect people with disabilities against discrimination?

A

Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a device that detects treatable life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmians (ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia) and delivers the appropriate electric shock to the patient?

A

Automated External Defibrillator (AED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical care.

A

A Certification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A Health Care model in which experienced paramedics receive advanced training to equip them to provide additional services in the prehospital environment, such as health evaluations, monitoring of chronic illnesses or conditions, and patient advocacy.

A

Community Paramedicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A system of all internal and external reviews and audits of all aspects of an EMS system.

A

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A system that assists dispatchers in selecting appropriate units to respond to a particular call for assistance and provide callers with vital instructions until the arrival of EMS crews.

A

Emergency Medical Dispatch (EMD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The first trained Professional, such as a police officer, firefighter, lifeguard, or other rescuer, to arrive at the scene of an emergency to provide initial medical assistance.

A

Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A multidisciplinary system that represents the combined efforts or several professionals and agencies to provide prehospital emergency care to the sick and injured.

A

Emergency Medical Services (EMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An individual who has training in Basic Life Support, including Automated External Defibrillation, use of a definitive airway adjunct, and assisting patients with certain medications.

A

Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Federal legislation passed in 1996. Its main effect in EMS is in limiting availability of patients’ health care information and penalizing violations of patient privacy.

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Intravenous (IV) Therapy?

A

The delivery of medication directly into the vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act.

A

Licensure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Physician instructions given directly by radio or cell phone (online/direct) or indirectly by protocol/guidelines (off-line/indirect), as authorized by the medical director of the service program.

A

Medical Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who is the Medical Director?

A

The physician who authorizes or delegates to the EMT the authority to provide medical care in the field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH)?

A

A method of delivering health care which involves providing health care within the community rather than at a physician’s office or hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the National EMS Scope of Practice Model?

A

A document created by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) that outlines the skills performed by various EMS providers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Paramedic?

A

An individual who has extensive training in Advanced Life Support, including endotracheal intubation, emergency pharmacology, cardiac monitoring, and other advanced assessment and treatment skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Primary Prevention?

A

Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occurring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Primary Service Area (PSA)?

A

The designated area in which the EMS agency is responsible for the provision of prehospital emergency care and transportation to the hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Public Health?

A

Focused on examining the health needs of the entire populations with the goal of preventing health problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a Public Safety Access Point?

A

A call center, staffed by trained personnel who are responsible for managing requests for police, fire, and ambulance services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Quality Control?

A

The responsibility of the medical director to ensure the appropriate medical care standards are met by EMTs on each call.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Secondary Prevention?

A

Efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(_________) ate reactions to stress that occur during a stressful situation

A

Acute stress reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the spread of an organism via droplets or dust?

A

Airborne Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(_________) are Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. These pathogens include, but are not limited to, hepatitis B virus and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

Blood borne pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary federal agency that conducts and supports public health activities in the United States. The (___) is part of the US department of health and human services

A

Centers for disease control and prevention (CDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A (_________) is a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another.

A

Communicable Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the use of objects to limit a person’s visibility of you called?

A

Concealment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(__________) is the presence of infectious organisms on or in objects such as dressings, water, food, needles, wounds or a patient’s body.

A

Contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection called?

A

Cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(_________________________) is a process that confronts the responses to critical incidents and defuses them, directing the emergency services personnel toward physical and emotional equilibrium.

A

Critical incident stress management (CISM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prolonged or excessive stress is called (_____________)

A

Cumulative stress reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Reactions to stress that occur after a stressful situation are called (_____________)

A

Delayed stress reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(___________) is the individual in the department who is charged with the responsibility of managing exposures and infection control issues.

A

Designated officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Exposure or transmission of a communicable disease from one person to another by physical contact is called (_______)

A

Direct contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(______) is a situation in which a person has had contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or air borne particles in a manner that suggests disease transmission may occur.

A

Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the contamination of food or water with an organism that can cause disease considered?

A

Foodborne transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

(___________________) The body’s response to stress that begins with an alarm response , followed by stage of reaction and resistance, and then recovery or ,if the stress is prolonged, exhaustion

A

General adaptation syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

(_____________) is the inflammation of the liver, usually caused by a viral infection, that causes fever, loss of appetite, jaundice, fatigue, and alter liver function.

A

Hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The organism or individual that is attacked by the infecting agent is considered the (__________)

A

Host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome(AIDS) is caused by (___________________________), Which dangers the cells in the body’s immune system so that the body is unable to fight infection or certain cancers

A

Human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The body’s ability to protect itself from acquiring a disease means that is it (____________)

A

Immune

46
Q

What is indirect contact?

A

Exposure or transmission of disease from one person to another by contact with a contaminated object

47
Q

What is an infection?

A

The abnormal invasion of a host or host tissues by organisms such as bacteria, viruses, or parasites, with or without signs or symptoms of disease

48
Q

What is infection control?

A

Procedures to reduce transmission of infection among patients and healthcare personnel

49
Q

What is an infectious disease?

A

A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

50
Q

What is the federal regulatory compliance agency that develops, publishes, and enforces guidelines concerning safety in the workplace?

A

Occupational safety and health administration(OSHA)

51
Q

What is a micro organism that is capable of causing disease in a sub susceptible host called?

A

Pathogen

52
Q

What is the protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material?

A

Personal protective equipment(PPE)

53
Q

(____________________) is a delayed stress reaction to a prior incident. Often the result of one or more unresolved issues concerning the incident, And may relate to an incident that involve physical harm or the threat of physical harm

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder(PTSD)

54
Q

(______________) Is The way in which an infectious disease is spread: contact, airborne, by vehicles, or by vectors.

A

Transmission

55
Q

What are standard precautions?

A

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the CDC for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluid, and other potential exposure risk of communicable disease.

56
Q

(________________) Is The Unilateral Termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making provisions for transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient

A

Abandonment

57
Q

What is advance directive?

A

Written documentation that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; Also called a living will or health care directive

58
Q

The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct is called(__________)

A

Applied ethics

59
Q

(______) Is unlawfully placing a patient in fear of bodily harm

A

Assault

60
Q

(________) Unlawfully touching a patient or providing emergency care without consent

A

Battery

61
Q

What is bioethics?

A

The study of ethics related to issues that arise in healthcare

62
Q

Disclosure of information without proper authorization is considered a(______________________)

A

Breach of confidentiality

63
Q

What is a certification?

A

A process in which a person, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain predetermined standards to provide safe and ethical patient care.

64
Q

What is Compensatory damages?

A

Damages awarded in a civil lawsuit that are intended to restore the plaintive to the same condition that he or she was in prior to the incident

65
Q

Define competent

A

Able to make rational decisions about personal well-being

66
Q

Define consent

A

Permission to render care

67
Q

A legal defense that may be raised when the defendant feels that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff is called

A

Contributory negligence

68
Q

(______________) An established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice a particular profession, or to function as an organization

A

Credentialing

69
Q

What is decision making capacity?

A

The ability to understand and process information and make a choice regarding appropriate medical care

70
Q

Define defamation

A

The communication of false information about a person that is damaging to that person’s reputation or standing in the community

71
Q

Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin; A definitive sign of death is called(______________)

A

Dependent lividity

72
Q

What are depositions?

A

Oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath

73
Q

(_______________) is The phase of a civil lawsuit where the plaintiff and defense obtain information from each other that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and which will assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for trial. (_______________) includes depositions, interrogations, and demands for a production of records

A

Discovery

74
Q

What are do not resuscitate (DNR) orders?

A

Written documentation by a physician giving permission to medical personnel not to attempt Resuscitation in the event of Cardiac arrest

75
Q

A type of advanced directive Executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf, in the event that the person making the appointment loses decision making capacity.

A

Durable power of attorney for healthcare

76
Q

(__________) is a Medicolegal Term relating to certain personnel who either by statute or by function have a responsibility to provide care

A

Duty to act

77
Q

What is an emancipated minor?

A

A person who is under the legal age in a given state but, because of other circumstances, is legally considered an adult

78
Q

(____________) Is a serious situation, such as injury or illness that threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people and requires immediate intervention

A

Emergency

79
Q

(_________________) The principle of law that permits a healthcare provider to treat a patient in an emergency situation when the patient is in capable of granting consent because of an altered level of consciousness, disability, the effects of drugs or alcohol, or the patient’s age

A

Emergency doctrine

80
Q

Define emergency medical care

A

Immediate care or treatment

81
Q

The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior is called (________)

A

Ethics

82
Q

(______________)A type of consent in which a patient gives verbal or nonverbal authorization for provision Of care or transport

A

Expressed consent

83
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

The confinement of a person without legal authority or the person’s consent

84
Q

The act of physically preventing an individual from initiating any physical action is called: (_________________)

A

Forcible restraint

85
Q

(____________________) Statutory provisions enacted by many states to protect citizens from liability for errors and omissions and giving good faith emergency medical care unless there is a wanton, gross, or willful negligence

A

Good Samaritan laws

86
Q

Define governmental immunity

A

Legal doctrine that can protect an EMS provider from being sued or which may limit the amount of the monetary judgment that the plaintiff may recover; Generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by municipalities or other governmental entities

87
Q

Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care is called(______________)

A

Gross negligence

88
Q

What is the health care directive?

A

A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should he or she become unable to make decisions. Also known as an advance directive or a Living will

89
Q

What is a healthcare proxies

A

A type of advanced directive executed by a competent adult that appoints another individual to make medical treatment decisions on his or her behalf in the event that the person making the appointment was his decision making capacity also known as a durable power of attorney for healthcare

90
Q

Define implied consent

A

Type of consent in which a patient who is unable to give consent is given treatment under the legal assumption that he or she would want treatment

91
Q

Define informed consent

A

Permission for treatment given by a competent patient after the potential risk, benefits, and alternatives to treatment have been explained

92
Q

What is: In loco parentis?

A

Refers to the legal responsibility of a person or organization to take on some of the functions and responsibilities of a patient

93
Q

Define Interrogatories

A

Written questions that the defense and plaintiff send to one another

94
Q

The seizing, confining, abducting, or caring away of a person by force, including transport he in competent adult for medical treatment without his or her consent is considered(_____________)

A

Kidnapping

95
Q

False and damaging information about a person that is communicated in writing is called (______)

A

Libel

96
Q

The process whereby a competent authority, usually the state, allows people to perform a regulated act is called (___________)

A

Licensure

97
Q

Define Medicolegal

A

A term relating to medical jurisprudence (law) Or forensic medicine

98
Q

Define morality

A

A code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience

99
Q

What is negligence

A

Failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide

100
Q

The right of a patient to make informed choices regarding his or her health care is called (_____________)

A

Patient autonomy

101
Q

(________________) is Any information about health statues, provision of healthcare, or payment for healthcare that can be linked to an individual. This is interpreted rather broadly and includes any part of a patient’s medical record or payment history

A

Protected health information(PHI)

102
Q

When a person who has a duty abuses it, and causes harm to another individual, the EMT, the agency, and or the medical director may be sued for negligence. This is called (________)

A

Proximate causation

103
Q

What are punitive damages

A

Damages that are sometimes awarded in a civil lawsuit when the contact of the defendant was intentional or constituted a reckless disregard for the safety of the public

104
Q

(_____________) Decomposition of body tissues; A definitive sign of death

A

Putrefaction

105
Q

Define Rigor Mortis

A

Stiffening of the body muscles; A definitive sign of death.

106
Q

(________________) is most commonly defined by state law; Outlines the care that the EMT is able to provide for the patient

A

Scope of practice

107
Q

Define slander

A

False and damaging information about a person that is communicated by the spoken word

108
Q

Define standard of care

A

Written, accepted levels of emergency care expected by reason of training and profession; Written by legal or professional organization so that patients are not exposed to unreasonable risk or harm.

109
Q

What is the statute of limitations?

A

The time within which case must be commenced

110
Q

A wrongful act that gives rise to a civil Lawsuit is called (____)

A

Tort

EMT-B JBLearning (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions