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OrganHisto Exam One > Chapter Two - Connective Tissue > Flashcards

Chapter Two - Connective Tissue Flashcards

0
Q

What is an example of a type of connective tissue whose function is to provide a medium for exchange?

A

Loose connective tissue

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1
Q

What are the general functions of connective tissue?

A

Provide structural support, provide a medium for exchange, defense/protection, storage of adipose

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2
Q

What is an example of a type of connective tissue whose function is to provide defense and protection?

A

Loose areolar

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3
Q

Most connective tissue is derived from where?

A

Mesenchyme

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4
Q

Support cells in connective tissue are separated by what structure and also produce it?

A

Matrix

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5
Q

Cells in connective tissue adhere to what structure?

A

Matrix

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6
Q

What makes up the ground substance of the extracellular matrix?

A

Glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides)

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7
Q

What is an important characteristic about glycosaminoglycans?

A

Extremely hydrophilic

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8
Q

Keratan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, heparin sulfate, and dermatan sulfate are examples of what type of GAGs?

A

Sulfated

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9
Q

Sulfated GAGs are covalently bonded to what substances?

A

Proteins

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10
Q

Hyaluronic acid is what type of GAG?

A

Non-Sulfated

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11
Q

Which type of GAG is a smaller molecule?

A

Sulfated

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12
Q

What type of GAG is a larger molecule, forms dense molecular networks, and holds a lot of water?

A

Non-Sulfated

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the excess water in non-sulfated GAGs?

A

Important for diffusion in some tissues

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14
Q

What are the positive aspects of inflammation?

A

Increased fluidity will aid cell movement, increased number of defensive cells

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15
Q

Where do the extra fluid and defensive cells come from during positive inflammation?

A

Leaky capillaries and venules

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16
Q

What is the negative aspect of inflammation?

A

Excessive swelling can damage blood vessels, nerves, and cells

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17
Q

What is the name for the excessive fluid remaining in the interstitial spaces during inflammation?

A

Edema

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18
Q

What is the most common connective tissue protein?

A

Collagen

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19
Q

What type of collagen accounts for 90% of the total body collagen?

A

Type I

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20
Q

What term refers to the ability to resist longitudinal stress?

A

Tensile strength

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21
Q

What connective tissue protein is known for its tensile strength but is unable to stretch?

A

Collagen

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22
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is a pathology associated with improper production of which connective tissue protein?

A

Collagen

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23
Q

Unstable joints, hypermobility, and many dislocations are all symptoms and signs of what connective tissue condition?

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

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24
What effect does aging have on collagen fibers?
Fiber production slows, and fibers are weaker
25
What is necessary for the proper crosslinking within the collagen I fiber?
Vitamin C
26
What happens to collagen when there is not enough vitamin C?
Weaker collagen and more rapid fiber breakdown
27
What is the cause of scurvy?
Vitamin C deficiency
28
What produces elastic fibers?
Fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells
29
What makes up elastic fibers?
Elastin and microfibrils
30
Elastic fibers are important in what locations of the body?
Blood vessels and lungs
31
What types of fibers can stretch 150% of its resting length?
Elastic
32
What effect does aging have on elastic fibers?
Increased age results in decreased elastic fibers
33
What condition is characterized by undeveloped elastic fibers due to a defective fibrillin protein?
Marfan's syndrome
34
What fiber is the same as collagen type III?
Reticular fibers
35
What type of fiber is easy to produce and unaffected by aging?
Reticular fibers
36
What is the first fiber produced during wound healing?
Reticular
37
Where are reticular fibers commonly found?
Liver, bone marrow, and lymph nodes
38
What type of fiber does not really have pathologies associated with it?
Reticular
39
Fibroblasts are usually derived from what type of cells?
Mesenchymal cells
40
What is the most important type of cell seen in ordinary connective tissue?
Fibroblasts
41
What is the special circumstance where fibroblasts actually divide?
During wound healing
42
When do fibroblasts change into chondrocytes?
During fibrocartilage formation
43
When do fibroblasts change into osteoblasts?
During certain pathologies
44
What are the structural functions of fibroblasts?
Produce and maintain matrix, healing
45
How do fibroblasts promote healing?
Scar formation and production of growth factors
46
What type of connective tissue is a scar?
Dense irregular connective tissue
47
What types of cells make up scars?
Fibrocytes
48
When mature, is a scar vascular?
No, avascular
49
Are scars as strong as the previous tissue?
No, only about 70%
50
What are the defensive functions of fibroblasts?
Produce cytokines and enzymes, can phagocytize when needed
51
What are the mature and less active (quiescent) fibroblasts that appear flat?
Fibrocytes
52
What can fibrocytes produce?
Hyaluronic acid, ground substance, and reticular fibers
53
What are fibrocytes unable to produce?
New collagen I and elastic fibers
54
What is the general function of fibrocytes?
Maintenance of matrix
55
Adipocytes are derived from what kind of cells?
Mesenchymal
56
What do myofibroblasts primarily function in?
Wound healing and tooth eruption
57
What are the general functions of adipocytes?
Lipid storage and regulation of energy metabolism
58
What satiety hormone is produced by adipocytes in energy metabolism?
Leptin
59
Are adipocytes typically well vascularized?
Yes
60
Where are plasma cells found?
Connective tissue and lymphatic tissues/organs (not really in the blood)
61
Plasma cells are derived from what kinds of cells?
B lymphocytes
62
What is the characteristic appearance of the nucleus of plasma cells?
Spherical clock faced nucleus
63

What is the function of plasma cells?

Produce antibodies

64
Which is the secretory antibody associated with epithelium?
IgA
65
Which is the antibody associated with macrophages and neutrophils?
IgG
66
Which is the antibody associated with mast cells and basophils?
IgE
67
Which antibody is widely seen in the gut and nasal cavity?
IgA
68
Residual bodies are seen in the cytoplasm of which cells?
Macrophages
69
Which important defensive cell is derived from monocytes?
Macrophages
70
Macrophages are a part of what system?
Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS) or Reticuloendothelial System (RES)
71
What are examples of members of the MPS/RES?
Kupffer cells, alveolar macrophages, monocytes, microglia, Langerhans, osteoclasts
72
What are the functions of macrophages?
Phagocytosis of debris or microbes, act as an APC, create foreign body giant cells, and release of cytokines
73
What is formed by the permanent fusion of many macrophages?
Foreign body giant cells
74
Foreign body giant cells form in response to what?
Sizeable foreign substance
75
What are some pathogens that could trigger the formation of foreign body giant cells?
TB, leprosy, syphilis, granulomas, yaws
76
What type of large cells contains cytoplasmic granules?
Mast cells
77
What are mast cells derived from?
Bone marrow precursor
78
Where are mast cells found?
Connective tissue proper, near small blood vessels, under epithelium
79
From where were mast cells once thought to be derived?
Basophils
80
What are the mediated functions of mast cells?
Inflammation, immediate hypersensitivity response, anaphylaxis, and asthma
81
What actually is an immediate hypersensitivity response?
A simple allergy
82
What primary mediator is released from mast cells?
Histamine
83
What effect does histamine have when released?
Increased permeability of capillaries and venules
84
What effect does vasodilation of arterioles and small arteries have?
Increased blood flow to a certain area
85
What effect does histamine release have on smooth muscle?
Contraction of visceral smooth muscle
86
What binds to and inactivates histamine?
Heparin
87
Other mast cells release what product that has the same effect as heparin?
Chondroitin sulfate
88
What is ECF that is released from mast cells?
Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor
89
What is the effect of the release of ECF from mast cells?
Attraction of eosinophils
90
What effect do eosinophils have on leukotrienes?
Inhibition
91
What effect do eosinophils have on mast cell degranulation?
Inhibition
92
What can eosinophils do to mast cell granules and IgE allergen complexes?
Phagocytize them
93
What can be secreted by eosinophils?
Histaminase
94
What can eosinophils destroy?
Parasitic worm larvae
95
What is the NCF that is released by mast cells?
Neutrophil Chemotactic Factor
96
What does NCF do?
Attracts neutrophils
97
What is the effect of leukotrienes?
Same as histamine but more powerful (1000s of times)
98
What can extend and amplify the effects of histamine?
Leukotrienes
100
What stimuli will activate mast cells?
Direct mast cell trauma, phagocytosis, IgE allergen complex, complement process/molecules
101
What structure of the ground substance is a protein core with many sulfated GAGs attached to it?
Proteoglycans
102
Laminin and fibronectin are examples of what structure in the ground substance?
Adhesive glycoproteins
103
What is another term for macrophages?
Histiocytes
104
What is the appearance of the nuclei of macrophages?
Indented or kidney bean shaped
105
All members of the MPS or RED are derived from where?
Bone marrow
106
What is the "on switch" released by mast cells?
Histamine
107
What is the "off switch" released by mast cells?
Heparin
108
What is the function of heparin?
Binds to and inactivates histamine
109
What structure has the overall function of limiting the effects of both histamine and leukotrienes?
Eosinophils

OrganHisto Exam One (7 decks)

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