Chapter 9 - Microbial Genetics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the transmission of biological properties (traits) from parents to offspring, how those traits are expressed, the structure and function of genetic material, and how this material changes is known as?

A

Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Genetics

A

The study of inheritance or heredity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define Genome

A

The sum total of genetic material of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Genomics?

A

The study of an organism’s entire genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How may genomes appear?

A

Most exists in the form of chromosomes and

Some may appear in nonchromosomal forms:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some non chromosomal form that genome can appear as?

A

Plasmids: tiny extra pieces of DNA
Organelles: mitochondria and chloroplasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are basic informational packets called?

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a functional unit of heredity called?

A

Classical genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is molecular and biochemical genetics?

A

Site on the chromosome that provides information for a certain cell function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a preferred definition of genes?

A

A segment of DNA that contains the necessary code to make a protein or an RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define genotype

A

The sum of all types of genes constituting an organism’s distinctive genetic makeup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the expression of the genotype that creates certain structures or functions?

A

Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the basic unit of DNA?

A

Nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a nucleotide?

A

Phosphate, Deoxyribose sugar, and Nitrogenous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are purines and pyrimidines?

A

Nitrogenous bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What nitrogenous base is found in DNA and RNA?

A

Purines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What pyrimidines are found in DNA?

A

Cytosine and Thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What pyrimidines are found in RNA?

A

Cytosine and Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What binds to Guanine and Adenine in RNA?

A

Guanine to Cytosine and Adenine to Uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What binds to Adenine and Guanine in DNA?

A

Adenine to Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What enzyme adds bases to the new DNA chain; proofreading the chain for mistakes?

A

DNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A template strand is an original?

A

Parental DNA Strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Each parent DNA strand serves as a?

A

Template for synthesis of New DNA strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Semiconservative replication is?

A

Each daughter molecule is identical to the parent in composition, yet neither is completely new

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What synthesizes a new daughter strand of DNA using the parental strand as a template?

A

DNA polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

DNA must be _______ and ______ before DNA polymerase III can function.

A

Unwound

Separated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

DNA polymerase III can only add _________ to an existing chain- cannot begin _________ a chain of nucleotides but can only add nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ _______.

A

nucleotide
synthesizing
direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define replication fork

A

The place in the helix where the strands are unwound and replication is taking place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How many Replications forks will a circular DNA molecule have?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a length of RNA that is inserted initially during replication before being replaced by DNA known as?

A

Primer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the strand of new DNA that is synthesized continuously in a 5’ to 3’ direction known as?

A

Leading strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The strand of new DNA that must be synthesized in short segments and is Later sealed together to form a strand in the 3’ to 5’ are know as?

A

Lagging strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In what direction does the new DNA that is synthesized in short segments process through?

A

In the 5’ to 3’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are Okazaki fragments?

A

Short segments of DNA synthesized in a 5’ to 3’ direction which are then sealed together to form the 3’ to 5’ strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the “Central Dogma” of genetics?

A

It is the process of turning DNA into proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The first step of the “Central Dogma theory is known as?

A

Transcription- DNA is used to synthesize RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the second step to the “Central Dogma” theory?

A

Translation- RNA used to produce proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is the “Central Dogma” complete or incomplete?

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is used to regulate gene function?

A

A wide variety of RNAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is “Junk” DNA?

A

The DNA that codes for these crucial RNA molecules used to regulate gene function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where are many genetic malfunctions that cause human disease found?

A

In regulatory RNA and not in genes for proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What determines a an organisms characteristic shape and function?

A

A protein’s primary structure

43
Q

What determines phenotype?

A

Proteins

44
Q

What is proteomics?

A

the study of an organism’s complete set of expressed proteins

45
Q

DNA is mainly a blueprint that tells the cell?

A

Which kinds of proteins to make and how to make them

46
Q

What does tRNA stand for?

A

Transfer RNA

47
Q

What is a tRNAs function in a cell?

A

Brings amino acids to ribosomes during translation

48
Q

What codes does tRNA contain?

A

A cloverleaf tRNA to carry amino acids

49
Q

What is known as a transcript of structural gene or genes in the DNA and is synthesized in a process similar to synthesis of the leading strand during RNA replication?

A

mRNA

50
Q

What has a function that is a series of triplet bases that hold the message of the transcribed mRNA?

A

Codons

51
Q

What contains sequences of bases that form hydrogen bonds with complementary sections of the same tRNA strand?

A

tRNA

52
Q

What designates the specificity of the tRNA and complements the mRNA codon and is found at the bottom loop of the cloverleaf?

A

Anticodon

53
Q

What is a long polynucleotide molecule, that forms complex three-dimensional shapes that contribute to the structure and function of ribosomes?

A

rRNA

54
Q

The interaction of rRNA and protein create?

A

The two subunits of the ribosome that engage in final translation of the genetic code

55
Q

How are mRNA nucleotides read?

A

They are read in codons, or groups of three

56
Q

What dictates which amino acids are added to the growing chain?

A

The codon

57
Q

Is the message in messenger RNA universal?

A

This code is universal for bacteria, archaea, eukaryotes, and viruses

58
Q

What allows for the insertion of correct amino acids even when mistakes occur in the DNA sequence?

A

Redundancy

59
Q

Define Redundancy

A

Certain amino acids are represented by multiple codons.

60
Q

What does it mean when only the first two nucleotides are required to encode the correct amino acid, with the third nucleotide not changing its sense, and permits some variation or mutation without altering the message?

A

Wobble

61
Q

What are the elements needed to synthesize a protein?

A

Amino acids
Ribosome
mRNA
tRNA

62
Q

What are the three stages of transcription?

A

Initiation
Elongation
Termination

63
Q

What are the first three RNA nucleotides that signal the beginning of the message called?

A

Start Codon, always AUG

64
Q

What is translocation?

A

The process of shifting the ribosome down the mRNA strand to read new codons

65
Q

What are one of three codons that has no corresponding tRNA and causes translation to be terminated known as?

A

Stop Codon

66
Q

How many stop codons are there and what are they?

A

Three: UAA, UAG UGA

67
Q

What is it called when Proteins begin to fold upon themselves to achieve their tertiary conformation even before the peptide chain is released?

A

Posttranslational modifications

68
Q

Formyl methionine may be clipped off, cofactors may be added, and some join with other proteins to form a quaternary structure are considered part of what?

A

Posttranslational modifications that complete protein synthesis

69
Q

What does not exist in an uninterrupted series of codons coding for a protein?

A

Most eukaryotic genes

70
Q

What is a coding region called?

A

Exxon’s

71
Q

What are intervening sequences of bases that do not code for protein called?

A

Introns

72
Q

What are a coordinated set of genes regulated as a single unit, can be inducible or repressible, categories determined by how transcription is affected by the environment surrounding the cell, and is found only in bacteria and archaea?

A

Operons

73
Q

What are inducible operons?

A

Operon is turned on (induced) by the substrate(s) for which the structural genes encode

74
Q

What kind of operon is a catabolic operon that encodes enzymes that act in catabolism and the enzymes needed to metabolize a nutrient are only produced when that nutrient is present in the environment?

A

Inducible Operons

75
Q

What is a repressible operon?

A

Operon that contain genes coding for anabolic enzymes

76
Q

What is describes as several genes in a series that are turned off by product synthesized by the enzyme?

A

Repressible operons

77
Q

What is a regulator in the lac operon?

A

Feature of the lac operon composed of the gene that codes for the repressor, a protein capable of repressing the operon

78
Q

What two features does control locus have?

A

Promoter and Operator

79
Q

What recognizes a promoter in the control locus?

A

Recognized by RNA polymerase

80
Q

What acts as an on/off switch for transcription?

A

Operator

81
Q

Define structural locus

A

made up of three genes, each coding for a different enzyme needed to catabolize lactose

82
Q

What protein in the Lactose Operon is allosteric?

A

The repressor protein

83
Q

What is the binding sites for the operator sequence on the DNA and lactose?

A

The repressor protein

84
Q

In the absence of lactose what does the repressor do?

A

Binds to the operator, blocking transcription of structural genes

85
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Extrachromosomal DNA adept at moving between cells

86
Q

Define recombinant

A

any organism that contains and expresses genes that originated in another organism

87
Q

What is described as an event in which one bacterium donates DNA to another bacterium and the end results is a strain different from both the donor ad the recipient strain?

A

Recombination

88
Q

What is any transfer of DNA that results in organisms acquiring new genes that did not come directly from parent organisms?

A

Horizontal gene transfer

89
Q

What is described as a small circular pieces of DNA that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome?

A

Plasmids

90
Q

What is found in most bacteria and in some fungi, contains at most a few dozen genes, and allow transfer of DNA between cells?

A

Plasmids

91
Q

What is not necessary for cell survival but often carry useful traits?

A

Plasmids

92
Q

Resistance plasmids carry genes for resisting _______ or other drugs, commonly shared among bacteria through __________, can confer multiple resistance to antibiotics, and _ factors can also carry _______ codes for resistance to heavy metals, or ____________ virulence factors.

A
antibiotics
conjugation
R
genetic
synthesizing
93
Q

What is described as the acceptance by a bacterial cell of small fragments of soluble DNA from the surrounding environment?

A

Transformation

94
Q

What is competent?

A

Cells that are capable of accepting genetic material through transformation

95
Q

What is the process by which a bacteriophage serves as a carrier for DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cell?

A

Transduction

96
Q

Transduction occurs in a broad _______ of bacteria and the participating ______ in a single transduction event must be the same species.

A

spectrum
bacteria
same

97
Q

When are random fragments of disintegrating host DNA taken up by a phage?

A

Assembly

98
Q

What kind of part of the host genome is regularly incorporated into the virus?

A

A highly specific part

99
Q

What separate from the chromosome carrying host genes with it?

A

The Prophage DNA

100
Q

Define Mutation

A

Any permanent change to the nucleotide sequence in the genome

101
Q

What is the driving force of evolution?

A

Mutations

102
Q

What becomes evident in altered gene expressions?

A

Mutations such as altered pigment production or development of resistance to a drug

103
Q

Define spontaneous mutation

A

A random change in the DNA arising from errors in replication that occur randomly

104
Q

What is the result from exposure to known mutagens?

A

Induced mutations