Chapter 9 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a load

A

an external force acting on tissues that causes internal reactions within the tissues

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2
Q

What is stiffness

A

relative ability of a tissue to resist a particular load

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3
Q

The _____ the stiffness the _____ the ____ of load it can withstand

A

greater, greater, magnitude

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4
Q

What is stress

A

the internal resistance of the tissue to a external load

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5
Q

What is strain

A

the extent of the deformation of tissue when it is loaded

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6
Q

Human tissue is _____ allowing a tissue to _________

A

elastic, return to normal following deformation

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7
Q

When as a yield point been reached

A

when the tissue is deformed to the extent that it no longer reacts elastically

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8
Q

What is creep

A

deformation in the shape and/or properties of a tissue that occurs with the application of a constant load over time

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9
Q

What is compression load

A

produced by external loads applied toward one another on opposite surfaces in opposite directions

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10
Q

What are common injuries caused by compression forces

A

arthritic changes in cartilage, fractures, and contusions

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11
Q

What is tension load?

A

equal and opposite external loads that pull a structure apart

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12
Q

What types of injuries typically occur due to tension load

A

muscle strains and ligament sprains

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13
Q

What is a shear load?

A

equal but not directly opposite loads are applied to opposing surfaces, forcing those surfaces to move in parallel directions relative to one another

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14
Q

What are types of injuries common with shear load?

A

skin injuries such as blisters or abrasions or in vertebral disk injuries

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15
Q

What is a bending force?

A

two forces pairs act at opposite ends of a structure; when three forces cause bending; or when an already bowed structure is axially loaded

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16
Q

What type of injury is common in bending forces?

A

fractures

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17
Q

What is a torsion force

A

twisting in opposite direction from the opposite ends of a structure causes shear stress over the entire cross section of that structure

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18
Q

What type of injury is common with torsion force?

A

spiral fractures

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19
Q

What are fascicles and what surrounds them

A

bundles of muscle fibers surrounded by perimysium

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20
Q

What is the entire muscle covered by

A

epimysium

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21
Q

Grade I strain

A

painful, but full ROM is usually possible

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22
Q

Grade II strain

A

ROM is decreased due to pain

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23
Q

Grade III

A

initially, pain is intense but quickly diminishes

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24
Q

What is tendinopathy used to refer as

A

tendinitis and tendinosis

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25
Q

What does crepitus mean?

A

crackling feeling or sound

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26
Q

What is tenosynovitis

A

inflammation of a tendon synovial sheath

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27
Q

Where does tenosynovitis commonly occur.

A

long flexor tendon of the fingers as they cross over the wrist joint and the biceps tendon around the shoulder joint

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28
Q

What is myofascial trigger point

A

a discreet, hypersensitive nodule within a taut band of skeletal muscle and/or fascia

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29
Q

What is a the difference between a latent and active trigger point

A

does not cause spontaneous pain but may restrict movement or cause muscle weakness; causes pain at rest

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30
Q

what is ecchymosis

A

black-and-blue skin discoloration caused by hemorrhage

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31
Q

What is myositis ossificans

A

calcium formations that are found between fibers in the muscle belly or form a spur that projects from the underlying bone

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32
Q

What are synovial joints

A

two or more bones that articulate to allow motion in one or more places

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33
Q

What does synovial fluid do

A

provides lubrication, shock absorption, and nutrition of the joint

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34
Q

Grade I sprain

A

mild to moderate pain, localized swelling, and joint stiffness

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35
Q

Grade II sprain

A

Moderate to severe pain, swelling, and joint stiffness

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36
Q

Grade III sprain

A

severe pain and swelling, joint stiffness

37
Q

what is diastasis

A

separation of articulating bones

38
Q

a first time dislocation should always be considered and treated as a possible ______

39
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

a chronic disease involving joint in which there is destruction of articular or hyaline cartilage and boney overgrowth

40
Q

what joints is osteoarthritis most commonly found in

A

weight-bearing joints: knees, hips, lumbar spine

41
Q

symptoms of osteoarthritis

A

pain, stiffness in the morning, localized tenderness, creaking, or grating that may

42
Q

What is a safe and effective treatment for osteoarthritis

A

glucosamine sulfate, NSAIDs, chondroitin sulfate, hyaluronic acid, antioxidants, omega-3 fatty acids

43
Q

What is the Bursa

A

pieces of synovial membrane that contain a small amount of fluid

44
Q

what covers a bone and contains the blood supply

A

periosteum

45
Q

what 5 functions do bones perform

A

body support, organ protection, movement, calcium storage, and formation of blood cells

46
Q

examples of flat bones

A

skull, ribs, scap,

47
Q

examples of irregular bones

A

vertebral column and skull

48
Q

examples of short bones

A

wrist and ankle

49
Q

examples of long bones

A

humerus, ulna, femur, tibia, fibula, phalanges

50
Q

what are osteoblasts

A

bone-forming cells

51
Q

how does bone ossification occur

A

synthesis of bone’s organic matrix by osteoblasts, followed immediately by the calcification of this matrix

52
Q

what are osteoclasts

A

cells that resorb bone

53
Q

at what age does bone loss exceed bone gain

54
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

increased bone porosity

55
Q

what is a closed fracture

A

there is little or no movement or displacement of the broken bone

56
Q

what is an open fracture

A

there is enough displacement of the fractured ends that the bone actually breaks through surrounding tissues

57
Q

what is a greenstick fracture

A

incomplete breaks in bones that have not completely ossified

58
Q

what is a comminuted fracture

A

consist of three or more fragments at the fracture site

59
Q

what is a linear fracture

A

the bone splits along its length

60
Q

what is a transverse fracture

A

occur in a straight line, more or less at right angles to the bone shaft

61
Q

what is a oblique fracture

A

occur when one end of the bone receives sudden torsion or twisting while the other end is fixed

62
Q

what is a spiral fracture

A

S-shaped separation

63
Q

what are impacted fractures

A

results from a fall from a height, which causes a long bone to receive, directly on its long axis a force of such magnitude that the osseous tissue is compressed

64
Q

what is an avulsion fracture

A

separation of a bone fragment from its context at an attachment of a ligament or tendon

65
Q

what is a serrated fracture

A

two bony fragments have a sawtooth, sharp-edged fracture line, are usually caused by a direct blow

66
Q

what is a depressed fracture

A

falling and striking the head on a hard surface

67
Q

what is a countercoup fracture

A

occur on the side opposite the point at which trauma was initiated

68
Q

what causes spiral fractures

69
Q

what causes oblique fractures

A

combined axial compression, bending, and torsion

70
Q

what causes transverse fractures

71
Q

what are typical causes of stress fractures

A
  1. overtraining
  2. going back into competition too soon after an injury
  3. going from one event to other without proper training
  4. starting initial training too quickly
  5. changing habits or the environment
72
Q

what factors can predispose someone to a stress fracture

A

flatfeet, short first metatarsal bone or a hyper mobile metatarsal region

73
Q

what are signs of stress fracture

A

swelling, focal tenderness, and pain, pain may be more intense at night

74
Q

Salter-Harris Type I

A

separation of the physis

75
Q

Saltar-Harris Type II

A

fracture-separation of growth plate and small part of metaphysis

76
Q

Saltar-Harris Type III

A

fracture part of physis

77
Q

Salter-Harris Type IV

A

fracture- physis and metaphysis

78
Q

Salter-Harris Type V

A

crushing of physis with no displacement- may cause premature closure

79
Q

what is osteochondrosis

A

degenerative changes in the ossification center of the epiphysis of bones, especially during periods of rapid growth in children

80
Q

hypesthesia

A

diminished sense of feeling

81
Q

hyperesthesia

A

increased sense of feelings such as pain or touch

82
Q

paresthesia

A

numbness, prickling, or tingling, which may occur from a direct blow to or stretch of an area

83
Q

neuropraxia

A

interruption in conduction of the impulse down the nerve fiber

84
Q

what causes neuropraxia

A

compression or relatively mild, blunt blows close to the nerve

85
Q

neuritis

A

chronic nerve problem, can be caused by a variety of forces that usually have been repeated or continued for a long time

86
Q

symptoms of neuritis

A

neuritis can range From minor nerve problems to paralysis

87
Q

What is the rate regeneration of nerve fiber

A

3-4 mm per day

88
Q

what nerves generate better? peripheral or central?

A

peripheral