Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Cal's Part A > Chapter 8 - Operating Procedures > Flashcards

Chapter 8 - Operating Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)?

A

MSA represents the safe altitude around a navigation station or aerodrome reference point. If no other information is present, the radius is 25 NM.

In case of an RNAV approach, MSA may be replaced by a Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA).

Provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance down to the intermediate approach segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Route MORA – Company Operational Flight Plans (OFPs)?

A

The MFAs depicted on OFPs are based upon Route MORA and provide 1000 ft clearance for terrain up to 5000 ft and 2000 ft clearance for terrain above 5000 ft, within 20 NM of the route segment centreline. The minimum MFA value depicted on OFPs is 2000 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Minimum Grid Altitude (MGA)

A

MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. It is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the grid area to the next 100 ft and adding an increment of:
• 1000 ft for terrain or obstructions up to 6000 ft; and
• 2000 ft for terrain or obstructions above 6000 ft.

The lowest indicated MGA is 2000 ft. This
value is also provided for terrain and obstacles that would result in an MGA below 2000 ft. An exception is over water areas where the MGA can be omitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When should Temperature corrections be applied? (Low Altitude)

A

Temperature corrections should be applied when the surface temperature is -10°C or below. Unless otherwise specified, the elevation of the aerodrome in use is taken as the elevation of the altimeter source. These corrections must be applied when conducting an instrument approach:

  • To DA (except Baro-VNAV procedures that are published with a temperature limit) and MDA.
  • Non-precision approach to minimum altitudes after passing the Final Approach Fix.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When should a Pressure Correction be applied?

A

When flying at levels with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa, the MFA must be corrected for deviations in pressure when the pressure is lower than the standard atmosphere (1013 hPa). An appropriate correction is 30 ft per hPa below 1013hPa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the required Rescue and Fire Fighting Service (RFFS) for the 319/320?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the acceptable Downgrades of RFFS for Planning Purposes for Departure/Destination Airports?

A

RFFS Cat 6 is normally required.

RFFS Cat 5 may be permitted for certain aerodromes which experience low volumes of commercial air transport traffic. This will be indicated on the OFP when permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the acceptable Downgrades of RFFS for Planning Purposes for Departure and Destination in
case of temporary downgrade notified by ATC, NOTAM, ATIS etc. for a period of time
not exceeding 72 hours?

A

Downgrade to RFFS Category 4 is permitted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the acceptable Downgrades of RFFS for Planning Purposes for Take-off alternate, Destination alternate and Enroute alternate?

A

Non UK Aerodromes – RFFS 4.

UK Aerodromes – RFFS 5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of an isolated aerodrome?

A

An isolated aerodrome is one for which the alternate and final fuel reserve required to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than fuel to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel.

(easyJet does NOT hold a specific approval to operate to an isolated aerodrome.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a take-off alternate required?

A

When performance or meteorological conditions preclude a return to the departure aerodrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is required of the Take off alternate?

A

To be located within one hour still air flight time at the one engine inoperative cruising speed (maximum continuous thrust speed) in ISA conditions based on the actual take-off weight.

The maximum distance allowed for this purpose is stated in OMB for the aeroplane type; this assumes maximum take-off weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When are two destination alternates are required?

A
  • The weather reports or forecasts at destination are below the applicable planning minima.
  • No meteorological information is available.

• The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway
state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the minima required for the Destination?

A

Shall be at or above the applicable minima for the expected instrument approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the minima required for the Destination Alternate and ERA Aerodromes at the planning Stage?

A

Cat II & Cat III = Cat I minima (RVR)

LTS Cat I = Cat I minima (RVR)

Cat I = NPA minima (RVR/ceiling above MDH)

Non-precision = NPA minima plus 200 ft/1000 m (MDH/MDA + 200 ft/RVR + 1000 m)

Circling = Circling minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

At least one usable destination alternate aerodrome must be selected for each IFR flight unless what?

A

• Dispatched under the Alternative Flight Planning Procedures in Section 8.1.7.6.5, “No Destination Alternate Aerodrome Procedure”.

• The duration of the planned flight from take-off to landing, or, in the event of in-flight re-planning, the remaining flying time to destination does not exceed
six hours.

• Two separate runways are available and usable at the destination and the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome indicate that for the period from one hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival (ETA) at the destination, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 ft or circling height +500 ft, whichever is greater, and the visibility will be at least 5 km.

Or the destination aerodrome is isolated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When are runways deemed separate?

A

Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways when they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway. Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Category A Aerodrome?

A

Category A – Non-complex and can be treated as routine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Category B Aerodrome?

A

Category B – Complexity requiring specific briefing, e.g. audio visual briefing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a Category B Restricted Aerodrome?

A

Category B Restricted – Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an aerodrome visit or specific training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Category C Aerodrome?

A

Category C – Special crew qualification required which can be achieved by an aerodrome visit or specific training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is easyJet aeroplanes category?

Nominal indicated airspeed at the threshold (Vat) in the landing configuration.

A

A319, A320

Category C

From 121 to 140 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the facilities required & RVR/Visibility for Take-off when LVP’s are not in force?

A

Nil Facilities (Day only) = 500R/500V

Day: - Runway edge lights and RCL markings = 400R/400V

Night: -Runway edge lights and runway end
lights or RCL lights and runway end lights. =
400R/400V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the facilities required & RVR/Visibility for Take-off when LVP’s are in force?

A

300R for:-
Day: Runway edge lights and RCL markings.
Night: Runway edge lights and runway end lights or RCL lights & runway end lights.

200R for :- Runway edge lights and RCL lights.

150R for :- Runway edge lights and RCL lights
(multiple RVR). (The required RVR value to be achieved for all relevant RVRs.)

125R for:- Runway edge and CL lighting and multiple
RVR info & all conditions below are met:- (The required RVR value to be achieved for all relevant RVRs.)

  1. High intensity runway CL lights spaced 15 m or less and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less are in operation.
  2. A 90 m visual segment is available from the cockpit at the start of the take-off run. (This is an aeroplane design requirement. All easyJet aeroplanes are compliant.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can the reported RVR value representative of the initial part of the take-off run be replaced by pilot assessment?

A

Yes it can.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Lowest Approach Minima Permitted for a Cat I approach? DH and RVR’s

A

DH 200 ft

TD RVR 550 m

Mid RVR 125 m (If reported)

Stopend RVR 75m (If reported)

(Multiple RVR is not required for CAT I and LTS CAT I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Lowest Approach Minima Permitted for a Cat I LTS approach? DH and RVR’s

A

DH 200ft

TD RVR 450m to 400m

Mid RVR 125m (If reported)

Stopend RVR 75 m (If reported)

(Multiple RVR is not required for CAT I and LTS CAT I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Lowest Approach Minima Permitted for a Cat II approach? DH and RVR’s

A

DH 100ft

TD RVR 300m

Mid RVR 125m

Stopend RVR 75 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Lowest Approach Minima Permitted for a Cat III A approach? DH and RVR’s

A

DH 100 ft

TD RVR 200m

Mid RVR 125m

Stopend RVR 75m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Lowest Approach Minima Permitted for a Cat III B approach? DH and RVR’s

A

No DH or <50ft

TD RVR 75m

Mid RVR 75m

Stopend RVR 75m

Fail operational rollout guidance required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can you NOT use a conversion from meteorological visibility to RVR/CMV?

A
  1. When reported RVR is available;
  2. For calculating take-off minima; and
  3. For any RVR minima less than 800m (after conversion).
    Note: If the RVR is reported as being above the max value assessed by the aerodrome operator, e.g. “RVR more than 1500 metres”, it is not considered to be a reported value for the purpose of this paragraph.
  4. When converting met vis to RVR in all other circumstances than those in (1) above, crew must use Table 8.7 Conversion of Met vis to RVR/CMV.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In flight, when can the met visibility be converted to RVR/CMV?

A

If RVR is not reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Conversion of Met visibility to RVR/CMV for airports with HI approach and runway lighting? Day and Night?

A 
Day = met vis x 1.5 
Night = met vis x 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the Conversion of Met visibility to RVR/CMV for airports with any type of lighting installation other
than HI approach and runway lighting? Day and Night?

A 
Day = met vis x 1.0
Night = met vis x 1.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the Conversion of Met visibility to RVR/CMV for airports with no lighting? Day and Night?

A 
Day = met vis x 1.0
Night  = Not allowed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the requirements for a visual approach?

A
  • A minimum of 2500 ft cloud base or circling minimum if higher;
  • 5000 m visibility.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Presentation of Minima (Company) on LIDO charts

A

CAT III

CAT 3B COMPANY = NO DH
CAT 3B with RA = 25RA
CAT 3A COMPANY = 50RA
(CAT IIIA is not depicted when CATIIIB is published-
CAT IIIA is allowed with 200R and 50 RA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where can you find the table “Effect of Failed or Downgraded Ground Equipment” regarding effect on landing minima?

A

Part A Chapter 8:-

8.1.3.5 Effect of Failed or Downgraded Ground Equipment Table 8.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Easyjet’s Fuel policy?

A

Adequate fuel quantity (block fuel) to cover the requirements of Trip, Contingency, Alternate, Reserve and Taxi must be loaded prior to departure. (CFP Fuel)

40
Q

What is Alternative Flight Planning Procedures?

A

Alternative Flight Planning Procedures is normally limited to those flights that are payload or performance restricted, consideration should be given to obtaining a revised OFP in the event that these procedures are necessary for dispatch.

41
Q

What is the minimum fuel required for Basic Fuel Planning?

A
  1. Taxi Fuel.
  2. Trip Fuel.
  3. Contingency Fuel.
  4. Alternate Fuel (if required).
  5. Additional Fuel (if required).
  6. Final Reserve Fuel.
  7. Extra Fuel if required by the Commander.
42
Q

Describe Taxi Fuel

A

Fuel expected to be used prior to take-off, including engine start, taxi and APU consumption. Maximum ramp weight may not be exceeded with taxi fuel on board.

43
Q

What does Trip Fuel consist of?

A
  • Fuel for take-off and climb to from departure aerodrome to cruise altitude taking into account the expected departure routing; and
  • Fuel for cruise including step climbs if any; and
  • Fuel for descent, taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and
  • Fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome.
44
Q

What is Contingency fuel?

A

Contingency fuel is the greater of:-

  • 5% of the planned trip fuel, and;
  • An amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

(Allows for variation in Cruise Altitudes or track deviations from forecast wind values or any other unforeseen circumstances.)

45
Q

When can Contingency fuel be used?

A

Contingency fuel may be used at any time after commencement of the flight i.e. after push-back or engine start.

46
Q

What is Statistical Contingency Fuel? SCF

A

SCF fuel is the greater of:

  • 95% coverage (CONT95), or 99% coverage (CONT99) for selected city pairs, based upon operational factors, and;
  • An amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.
47
Q

What is Alternate Fuel?

A

Fuel to reach the alternate aerodrome, taking into account:-

  1. Fuel from a missed approach from the applicable MDA/DH at the destination aerodrome to the missed approach altitude taking into account the complete missed approach procedure.
  2. Fuel from the missed approach altitude to climb, cruise and descent to the alternate aerodrome from an en-route transition point using the expected arrival procedure.
  3. Fuel for the approach and landing at alternate aerodrome.
  4. When two destination alternates are required, alternate fuel should be sufficient to proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount of alternate fuel.
48
Q

What is Final Reserve Fuel?

A

Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above destination alternate aerodrome elevation in standard conditions, calculated with estimated weight on arrival at the alternate or the destination when no alternate is required.

49
Q

What is Minimum Additional Fuel used for “Alternative Flight Planning Procedures”?

A
  1. Holding for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions, when the flight is operated without a destination alternate
  2. Following the possible engine failure or loss of pressurisation at the most critical point along the route the aeroplane will:-

a. Descend as necessary and proceed to an adequate
alternate aerodrome.
b. Hold there for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions.
c. Make an approach and landing.

Additional Fuel for engine failure or loss of pressurisation is only required if the fuel calculated above (from Trip Fuel up to Final Reserve Fuel) is not sufficient for such an event. Additional fuel for no alternate operations may be calculated by dividing the OFP Final Reserve fuel figure by two (2), or by referring to Part B.

50
Q

Can Extra fuel be carried at the discretion of the Commander?

A

Flight crew will load Extra Fuel only if a strong possibility exists that it will be used. If there is a likelihood of a diversion at the destination, then fuel should normally be carried to allow the Commercial Alternate to be reached with Normal Reserves.

51
Q

when can extra fuel be loaded?

A

• Thunderstorms are forecast.
• Destination weather is forecast or reported to be at or near operational landing limits.
• An unscheduled runway closure, affecting the arrival rate, is likely because of:
– Freezing precipitation (runway treatment).
– Moderate to heavy intensity snowfall (snow removal).
• Crosswind/contaminated runway limitations (aircraft specific).
• ATC - Anticipated departure and arrival delays.
• Fuel for additional approaches at destination.
• Forecast icing conditions en-route.

52
Q

What is the penalty for carriage of extra fuel?

A

Normally 3.0% of extra fuel per hour of flight

e.g. 2 hour flight = 6% of the extra fuel uplifted will be burned off due to increased in weight.

53
Q

What are the Fuel Penalties for Non-conformity with Flight Plan – Aircraft Weight Change

A

An increment in Trip Fuel per 1000 kg increase/decrease in Zero Fuel Weight is provided on the OFP.

If this information is missing:- Plus 3% of the weight increase per hour, for the time the increase is carried.

54
Q

If the weather forecast indicates that the aircraft may spend an appreciable time in icing conditions, can additional contingency fuel be loaded?

A

Yes, additional contingency fuel may be loaded to cover the extra amount that will be burned with Engine Anti-Ice (EAI) or Engine and Wing Anti-Ice (EWAI) on.

55
Q

What fuel modifications can be made under Alternative Flight Planning Procedures for trip Fuel and Taxi Fuel?

A

Taxi Fuel Reduction-
can reducing statistical taxi fuel to take account of expected taxi times on the day of operation.

Trip Fuel Reduction
Modification to the OFP trip fuel is permitted. Reduce by 4kg per NM or increase by 5kg a minute.

56
Q

What fuel modifications can be made under Alternative Flight Planning Procedures for Contingency Fuel?

A

If SCF data is available, contingency fuel can be reduced to the greater of:-
• 95% coverage (CONT95), or;
• 90% coverage (CONT90), and;
• An amount to fly for 5 mins at holding speed at 1500ft above the dest aerodrome in standard conditions.
The minimum CF is limited to 204 kg (A320) or 190 kg (A319).

To use 90% coverage (CONT90) a suitable fuel ERA must be selected & annotated on the OFP

Only if SCF data is not available, contingency fuel can be reduced to the greater of:
• 3% of the planned trip fuel, and;
• An amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft above the dest aerodrome in standard conditions. Provided a suitable fuel ERA is selected & annotated on the OFP.

57
Q

Can you dispatch to an airport with No Destination Alternate?

A

Dispatch to a destination is permitted with no destination alternate aerodrome provided that the conditions stated in Section 8.1.2.2.2.4, “Destination Alternate and ERA Aerodromes” are met.

The fuel required is:

  1. Taxi Fuel.
  2. Trip Fuel.
  3. Contingency Fuel.
  4. Additional Fuel not less than the fuel necessary to fly for 15 mins at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in ISA.
  5. Final Reserve Fuel.
  6. Extra Fuel if required by the Commander.
58
Q

What are the ages for Passenger Classification for Adults Children and Infants?

A
  • Adults, male and female, are defined as persons of an age of 12 years and above.
  • Children are defined as persons of an age of 2 years and above but who are less than 12 years of age.
  • Infants are defined as persons who are less than 2 years of age.
59
Q

What is the standard masses of crew members and crew baggage?

A

85 kg for flight crew, 75 kg for Cabin Crew – including
cabin bag/baggage.

Included in the Operating Empty Weight.

Actual masses including any crew baggage may be used.

60
Q

What is the Method for Determining Passengers, Baggage and Cargo Mass? Standard or Actual weights?

A
  • Passengers plus cabin bag/baggage = standard masses used.
  • Baggage: weighed at check-in. If not possible standard masses are used.
  • Freight: must be always weighed.
61
Q

What is the standard weight of passengers?

A

Adult – Male = 93 kg Female= 75 kg

Children – (2 yr – 12 yr) both 35 kg

62
Q

What is the standard weight per piece of checked baggage?

A

Domestic flights 11 kg
Within the European region 13 kg
Intercontinental 15 kg

63
Q

What weight is used for a Guide/Assistance Dog?

A

35kg

64
Q

What is the typical weight for a full-sized Cello?

A

10kg

65
Q

The Daily Inspection procedure allows an Inspection to be certified before midnight but valid from 0001 UTC the next day so long as what Operating
Instructions need to be adhered to?

A
  1. The Daily Inspection must be certified after the last flight of that calendar day.
  2. The Daily Inspection must be certified after 1800 UTC.

E.g.If it is certified after the last flight of the day at 2245z on Tuesday 17th Sept its validity commences at 0001z on the Wednesday 18th Sept and expires at 2359z on Thursday 19th Sept.

66
Q

What defects must be entered in the Technical Log?

A
  • Systems malfunction.
  • Fire/smoke.
  • Damage (actual or potential).
  • ALL Bird strikes
  • Lightning strike.
  • Hard landing.
  • Limit that has been exceeded (inc the value & duration by which the limit is exceeded).
  • Deployment & use of emergency systems /equipment that require servicing, e.g. pax oxygen system.
67
Q

If it is not possible to clear a defect it is to be transferred to the Aircraft Status Report as an ADD provided what conditions are met?

A

• It’s an allowable deficiency specified in the MEL Or,
if not listed in the MEL:

• Has been evaluated by an appropriately authorised engineer as not being an airworthiness/safety item.

The deferral of a defect is normally a maintenance action carried out by an appropriately authorised engineer.

The Commander may defer a defect that does not require a maintenance procedure (M) after consultation with MOC.

68
Q

Cabin Defects Log

A

Non-airworthiness items would affect soft furnishings, carpets, seat covers, and some galley equipment.

Seats, life jackets and emergency exit lighting are airworthiness items.

Where doubt exists airworthiness should be the overriding consideration.

69
Q

The term “FOR INFO” can be used in the Technical Log, what is this for?

A

For specific entries that record information which may be useful in fault diagnosis, but which does not require immediate engineering action.

The Commander must still inform MOC that such an entry is made.

70
Q

What circumstanses can crew use a “FOR INFO” entry in the Tech Log?

A
  • System malfunctions which are rectified by QRH action and/or system resets, in accordance with the FCOM. Follow the “CREW RESET” procedure in accordance with OMB, Section 3.2. There is no requirement to contact MOC and the “action taken” column and “CRS” column shall be crossed out.
  • Limited Birdstikes
  • A transient indication which disappears without further action on the crew’s part.
  • Cleanliness or general condition of aircraft, flight deck or cabin.
  • Any observation that has no impact on airworthiness or continued aircraft operation.
  • Further reporting on an existing Deferred Defect at the request of Maintenance.
71
Q

For Birdstikes “For Info˝ entry cannot be used under what circumstances?

A
  • The bird impact has caused a dent or crack to any structure, hydraulic, pneumatic or other system(s).
  • The bird strike is on the engine(s).
  • The bird strike is on the radome.
  • The bird strike is within one meter upstream of the Air Conditioning Pack intake.
  • The bird strike is within one meter upstream of any pitot head, static port, angle of attack probe.
  • Any unusual odours have been noticed or reported by passenger or crew.
72
Q

Smoke, or incidents of suspected contaminated air in the Flight Deck or Cabin, shall be reported to MOC by the most expeditious means available. What are the actions required?

A

Form No. EZE-132 Smell in Aircraft Report must be completed in addition to any Technical Log entry.
When possible, an ACARS message should be sent to MOC as soon as is practical.

73
Q

What certificates are carried on board in paper form in the Certificates Folder?

A

All original copies: -

Certificate of Airworthiness

Airworthiness Review Certificate &

Certificate of Registration

In case of loss or theft of documents the operation may continue until the flight reaches its destination or a place where replacement documents can be provided

74
Q

What certificates are carried on board in electronic format in the EFB?

A

Air Operator Certificate

Noise Certificate

Radio Licence

Third Party Insurance Certificate

75
Q

Can Aircraft Spares be carried?

A

AOG urgent aircraft spares, for easyJet aircraft only, may be carried unless they are categorised as Dangerous Goods. easyJet OCC will brief the crew of the necessity of carriage.

Restrictions to This Process

  1. This process is for the carriage of spares for easyJet aircraft ONLY.
  2. The carriage of dangerous goods is not permitted.
  3. The maximum permissible shipping weight of an individual item is 60 kg unless specific arrangements for handling and securing in flight, have been made by OCC in advance of the shipment, with both departure and arrival airports.
  4. DUE TO IMPORT EXPORT AND CUSTOMS RESTRICTIONS, THE CARRIAGE OF AIRCRAFT SPARES TO OR FROM SWITZERLAND IS NOT PERMITTED.
76
Q

Is carriage of PCMCIA cards in the flight deck allowed?

A

Yes - The cards will be transported in blue padded bags sealed with a zip seal. The bags will be x-rayed by security before loading if originating landside, and will be delivered to and collected from the aircraft by engineering personnel.
Where the zip seal is missing or has been broken, the bag should be examined and, at the discretion of the Commander, either offloaded or returned to LTN. Such an event should be reported to the Flight Data Monitoring Department.

77
Q

Does easyJet carry cargo?

A

EasyJet does not carry cargo except for the carriage of aircraft spares and flight monitoring data.

78
Q

What Musical instruments can be accepted for carriage in the cabin?

A

Musical instruments can be accepted for carriage in the cabin if the instrument meets the dimensions of the overhead lockers (30 × 117 × 38 cm).
This includes violin, viola, piccolo, flute, clarinet, bugle and trumpet.

Where it is not practical to combine this instrument with
another item of cabin bag/baggage into a single piece in accordance with the easyJet cabin bag/baggage policy, one small additional piece (e.g. ladies cabin bag/baggage or small laptop case) is allowable.

where it is not practical to check such items as hold luggage.

Customers wishing to take larger musical instruments into the cabin must purchase an extra seat for the item to travel on. The instrument must be secured to a window seat, not in a restricted seat, and its centre of mass should not be more than 30 cm above the top of the seat cushion.

79
Q

De icing / Ant icing

What is a One-step process?

A

One-step process – either a mixture of water and de-/anti-icing fluid is applied in a single application to both remove contamination and provide anti-icing protection.

80
Q

De icing / Ant icing

What is a Two-step process?

A

Two-step process – contamination is first removed from the surfaces by applying heated water or Type I fluid. This is normally succeeded with the application of
Type II or Type IV fluid to provide anti-icing protection.

81
Q

What De-icing and Anti-icing Fluids can be used on Easyjet Aircraft?

A

Types I, II or IV fluids may be used.

Heated water may only be used to de-ice as the first step in a two-step de-/anti-icing process.

82
Q

What is Type I (Unthickened) Fluid?

A

This fluid has a high glycol content and low viscosity in its concentrated form. De-icing performance of the fluid is good. However, due to low viscosity it provides
only limited anti-icing protection during freezing precipitation. It is used predominantly for removing frozen deposits from aircraft surfaces, either as the
first step in a two step operation or when precipitation has stopped. With this type of fluid no additional protection is provided by increasing the concentration of the fluid/water mix. Type I fluids are usually clear or light orange.

83
Q

What is Type II (thickened) fluid?

A

This fluid generally has a lower glycol content in its concentrated form than Type I fluid due to the inclusion of a pseudo plastic thickening agent. This effectively
means that when applied to the surface of an aircraft the viscosity is high, thus allowing the fluid to remain on and protect against freezing rain for a period of time. However, the increasing effect of the airflow over the wing surface during the take-off roll will effectively shear the fluid, reducing its viscosity and allowing it to
readily flow off the critical surfaces. With this type of fluid the holdover time can be extended by increasing the concentration of fluid in the fluid/water mix. Type II
fluids are usually straw coloured.

84
Q

What is Type IV Fluid (Thickened)?

A

This type of fluid is similar in both composition and operation to Type II fluids. However, through the use of advanced thickening systems it is able to provide
more holdover time than Type II fluids, when used in concentrated forms. As with Type II fluids the holdover time can be extended by increasing the concentration
of fluid in the fluid/water mix. Type IV fluids are usually coloured green.

85
Q

What are the Anti-icing Fluids?

A

Anti-icing Fluids:-

  1. Type I fluid.
  2. Mixture of water and Type I fluid.
  3. Type II fluid, or Type IV fluid.
  4. Mixture of water and Type II fluid, or Type IV fluid.

Note: Fluids mentioned in a) and b) must be heated to ensure a temperature of 60°C minimum at the nozzle.

86
Q

What are the De-icing Fluids?

A 
De-icing Fluids
• Heated water (only as part of a two-step process).
• Type I fluid.
• Mixture of water and Type I fluid.
• Type II, or Type IV fluid.
87
Q

What is (MNPS)? And is Easyjet approved?

A

The Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) Airspace is an airspace within Oceanic Control Areas (OCA)

The North Atlantic MNPS (NAT-MNPS) rules shall be applied between FL285 and FL420 within the OCA of Santa-Maria, Shanwick, Reykjavik, Gander Oceanic and
New-York Oceanic.

NAT-MNPS airspace is also an RVSM airspace from FL290 to FL410 included. easyJet routes to Iceland/ Funchal Azores and Canary Island from UK will operate
into NAT-MNPS and are subject to an MNPS approval.

easyJet is not approved for ETOPS Operations and POLAR Area.

easyJet MNPS operations are restricted to Santa-Maria, Shanwick and Reykjavik OCA.

88
Q

What Equipment is to be Carried within MNPS Airspace?

A

In addition to requirements specified for RVSM, operation in MNPS airspace requires specific equipment for Navigation (ATA 22 FMS), Communication (ATA 23 HF) and (ATA 31 Clock and EFIS).

89
Q

What is RVSM airspace?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) airspace is defined as any airspace where the vertical separation between aircraft from FL290 to FL410 is 1000 ft
rather than 2000 ft.

90
Q

What is the pre-flight altimeter check for RVSM?

A

The maximum difference between primary altimeters and the elevation at which the check takes place should not exceed 75 feet.

91
Q

What equipment should be operating normally at entry into RVSM airspace?

A
  1. Two primary altimeters.
  2. One automatic altitude-control system (i.e autopilot with altitude hold capability).
  3. One altitude-alerting system.
  4. A Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the primary in use for altitude keeping.
92
Q

The primary altimeters must agree within how many ft before entering, and whilst operating within, RVSM airspace?

A

The primary altimeters must agree within 200 ft before entering, and whilst operating within, RVSM airspace.

93
Q

When a third altimeter is fitted this must be set to what?

A

Relevant QNH for T/O and maintained until climbing through the MSA. After passing the MSA, on climb, and
when cleared to a flight level it is to be set to standard. Destination QNH will be set before passing FL200 in descent or at TOD if cruise altitude is less than FL200.

94
Q

The Commander shall advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring ‘MINIMUM FUEL”. What does this mean?

A

When, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel
The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned FRF. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.

95
Q

The Commander shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, FUEL, when the calculated usable fuel is what?

A

Fuel is predicted to be less than the planned final reserve fuel.

96
Q

What does a landing Assured mean?

A

A landing is “assured” if, in the judgement of the Commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities, e.g. CAT II/III
to CAT I.

Cal's Part A (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions