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Biology - Chapters 1 - 10 > Chapter 7 - Skeletal: Axial System > Flashcards

Chapter 7 - Skeletal: Axial System Flashcards

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0
Q

What is the musculoskeletal system?

A

The combination of bones, muscles, and joints

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1
Q

How does the axial skeleton contribute to homeostasis?

A

By protecting many of the body’s organs (brain, spinal cord, heart, lungs)
Important in support and calcium storage and release

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2
Q

What is orthopedics?

A

Prevention and correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system

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3
Q

How many bones does an adult have?

A

206

Children have more b/c some of their bone haven’t fused yet

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4
Q

What are the two principle divisions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. Axial skeleton - 80 bones

2. Appendicular skeleton - 126 bones

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5
Q

What bones make up the axial skeleton?

A 
Skull (cranium and face)
Hyoid
Auditory ossicles
Vertebral column
Thorax (sternum and ribs)
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6
Q

What bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

A

Pectoral girdles
Upper limbs
Lower limbs
Pelvic girdle

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7
Q

What are the 5 main types of bones based on shape?

A 
Long
Short
Flat
Irregular 
Sesamoid
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8
Q

What are the characteristics of long bones?

A 
Greater length than width
Consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities or epiphyses (ends) 
Slightly curved for strength 
Compact bone tissue in their diaphyses 
Spongy bone tissue in their epiphyses
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9
Q

Give some examples of long bones.

A 
Femur (thigh bone)
Tibia and fibula (leg bones) 
Humerus (arm bone)
Ulna and radius (forearm bones) 
Phalanges (finger and toe bones)
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10
Q

What are the characteristics of short bones?

A

Somewhat cube-shaped
Nearly equal in length and width
Consist of spongy bone tissue except at the surface (thin layer of compact bond)

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11
Q

What are some examples of short bones?

A

Carpal (wrist bones)

Tarsal (ankle bones)

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12
Q

What are the characteristics of flat bones?

A

Generally thin and composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bone tissue enclosing a layer of spongy bone tissue
Provide protection and extensive areas for muscle attachment

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13
Q

Give some examples of flat bones.

A

Cranial bones
Sternum
Ribs
Scapulae

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14
Q

What are the characteristics of irregular bones?

A

Complex shapes and cannot be grouped into any other previous category

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15
Q

Give some examples of irregular bones.

A

Vertebrae (backbones)
Hip bones
Certain facial bones
Calcaneus

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of sesamoid bones?

A

Develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension, physical stress
Very small! A few mm in diameter
May vary in number from person to person, may not be completely ossified

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17
Q

What are the functions of sesamoid bones?

A

Protect tendons from excessive wear
Often change the direction of pull of a tendon
Improves mechanical advantage at a joint

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18
Q

What are the notable exceptions of sesamoid bones? (Not small, and present in everyone)

A 
Two patellae (kneecaps)
Large sesamoid bones located in the quadriceps femoris tendon
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19
Q

What is another type of classification of bone based on location, not shape?

A

Sutural bones

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20
Q

What are sutural bones?

A

Small bones located in sutures (joints) between certain cranial bones
Their numbers vary from person to person

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21
Q

Where is red bone marrow found? Which bones?

A 
Ribs
Sternum
Skull
Vertebrae
Hip bones 
Femur (the proximal epiphyses)
Humerus 
Some short bones
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22
Q

What are surface markings?

A

Structural features adapted for specific functions
Develop in response to certain forces
Most prominent in the adult skeleton

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23
Q

What are two major types of surface markings?

A
  1. Depressions and openings

2. Processes

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24
Q

Describe the characteristics of “depressions and openings” (surface markings)

A

Allow the passage of soft tissues (such as blood vessels, nerves, ligaments, and tendons) and
Form joints

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25
Q

What are processes (surface markings)?

A

Projections or outgrowths that either help form joints or serve as attachment points for connective tissue

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26
Q

What is a fissure? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones through which blood vessels or nerves pass
*depression or opening

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27
Q

What is a foramen? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Opening through which blood vessels, nerves or ligaments pass
*depression or opening

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28
Q

What is a fossa? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Shallow depression

*depression or opening

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29
Q

What is a sulcus? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Furrow along bone surface that accommodates blood vessel, nerve or tendon
*depression or opening

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30
Q

What is a meatus? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Tubelike opening

*depression or opening

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31
Q

What is a condyle? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Large, round protuberance with a smooth articular surface at end of bone
* process that form joints

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32
Q

What is a facet? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Smooth, flat, slightly concave or convex articular surface

* process that forms joints

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33
Q

What is a head? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Usually round articular projection supported on neck (constricted portion) of bone
* process that forms joints

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34
Q

What is a epicondyle? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Typically roughened projection above condyle

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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35
Q

What is a crest? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Prominent ridge or elongated projection

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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36
Q

What is a line? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Long, narrow ridge or border (less prominent than crest)

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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37
Q

What is a spinous process? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Sharp, slender projection

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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38
Q

What is a trochanter? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Very large projection

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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39
Q

What is a tubercle? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Variably sized rounded projection

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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40
Q

What is a tuberosity? What kind of surface marking is it?

A

Variably sized projection that has a rough, bumpy surface

* process that form attachment points for connective tissue

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41
Q

What is the skull?

A

Bony framework of the head

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42
Q

How many bones are in the skull?

A

22 bones (not counting the bones in the middle ears)

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43
Q

What are the two categories of skull bones?

A
  1. Cranial bones

2. Facial bones

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44
Q

What is the function of the cranial bones?

A

Form the cranial cavity

Enclose and protect the brain

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45
Q

Name the 8 cranial bones.

A 
Frontal bone
2 parietal bones
2 temporal bones
Occipital bone
Sphenoid bone
Ethmoid bone
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46
Q

Name the 14 facial bones.

A 
2 nasal bones
2 maxillae
2 zygomatic bones
Mandible
2 lacrimal bones
2 palatine bones
2 inferior nasal conchae 
Vomar
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47
Q

What is the frontal bone?

A

Forms the forehead (anterior part of the cranium)

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48
Q

Where are the 2 parietal bones?

A

Sides and roof of the cranial cavity (form a large part of it)

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49
Q

What is in the internal surface of the parietal bones?

A

Many protrusions and depressions that accommodate the blood vessels supplying the dura mater

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50
Q

How is the zygomatic arch formed?

A

By the zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the temporal process of the zygomatic bone

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51
Q

Where is the mandibular fossa located?

A

On the inferior posterior surface of the zygomatic process of each temporal bone

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52
Q

What forms the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

A

The mandibular fossa and the articular tubercle

Also articulates the mandible

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53
Q

What serves as an attachment point of muscle and ligaments of the tongue and neck?

A

The styloid process

54
Q

What houses the middle and internal ear?

A

The petrous portion of the temporal bone

55
Q

What passes through the carotid foramen?

A

Carotid artery

56
Q

What is the passageway for the jugular vein?

A

Jugular foramen

57
Q

With which bones does the temporal bone articulate?

A

The mandible, parietal, sphenoid, zygomatic, occipital

58
Q

What forms the most of the posterior and inferior portions of the cranium?

A

Occipital bone

59
Q

What connects within the foramen magnum?

A

Medulla oblongata connects with the spinal cord

60
Q

What forms the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

The occipital condyles and the depressions of the first cervical vertebrae

61
Q

What allows you to nod your head “yes”?

A

The atlanto-occipital joint

62
Q

What is the most prominent midline projection on the posterior surface of the bone just above the foramen magnum?

A

The external occipital protuberance

63
Q

What ligament extends from the external occipital protuberance to the 7th cervical vertebrae?

A

Ligamentum nuchae

64
Q

What bone is called the keystone and why?

A

The sphenoid bone, b/c it articulates with all other cranial bones - holding them together

65
Q

What contains the pituitary gland?

A

Hypophyseal fossa

66
Q

What passes through the optic foramen?

A

Optic (II) nerve and the ophthalmic artery

67
Q

What is the nasal septum?

A

A partition that divides the nasal cavity into right and left sides

68
Q

What is the lacrimal sac? Where is it located?

A

A structure that gathers tears and passes them into the nasal cavity
Lacrimal fossa

69
Q

What are the 5 openings associated with each orbit?

A
  1. Optic foramen
  2. Superior orbital fissure
  3. Inferior orbital fissure
  4. Supraorbital foramen
  5. Lacrimal fossa
70
Q

What is a suture?

A

An immovable joint, holds skull bones together

71
Q

What are the 4 prominent sutures?

A
  1. Coronal suture - unites frontal and parietal bones
  2. Sagittal suture - unites the two parietal bones (top of the skull)
  3. Lambdoid suture - parietal bones to occipital bone
  4. Squamous suture - unite the parietal and temporal bones
72
Q

What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Produce mucus and serve as resonating chambers for vocalization

73
Q

What are fontanels?

A

Soft spots
Areas where unossified mesenchyme develops into dense connective tissue of the skull
Serve as spacers for growth

74
Q

What are the six main fontanels?

A
  1. Anterior fontanel
  2. Posterior fontanel
  3. Paired anterolateral fontanels
  4. Paired posterolateral fontanels
75
Q

What does the hyoid bone do?

A

Supports the tongue, providing attachment sites for some tongue muscles and for muscles of the neck and pharynx

76
Q

How is the vertebral column distributed?

A 
7 cervical vertebrae
12 thoracic vertebrae
5 lumbar vertebrae
1 sacrum
1 coccyx
77
Q

How many curves are in a normal adult spine? In a fetus?

A

4 in an adult

1 in a fetus

78
Q

What is special about the hyoid bone? How is it different?

A

Does not articulate with any other bone

It is suspended by ligaments and muscles

79
Q

Which normal curves are convex? Which are concave in an adult spine?

A

Cervical and lumbar are convex

Thoracic and sacral are concave

80
Q

What are the primary curves?

A

Thoracic and sacral curves b/c they retain their original curvature of the embryonic vertebral column

81
Q

What are the secondary curves?

A

Cervical and lumbar b/c they begin to form several months after birth

82
Q

What are the names of three abnormal curves of the spine?

A

Kyphosis
Lordosis
Scoliosis

83
Q

What are intervertebral discs?

A

Found between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae from the second cervical vertebrae to the sacrum

84
Q

What are the two parts of an intervertebral disc?

A
  1. Annulus fibrosus - outer fibrous ring consisting of fibrocartilage
  2. Nucleus pulposus - inner soft, pulpy, highly elastic substance
85
Q

What are the functions of the intervertebral discs?

A

Form strong joints, permit various movements, absorb vertical shock

86
Q

Why do we get shorter during the day?

A

During the course of the day, the discs compress and lose water in their cartilage
Sleeping, there is less compression and rehydration occurs

87
Q

Are intervertebral discs vascular or avascular?

A

Avascular - they rely on blood vessels from the bodies of the vertebrae

88
Q

What is the vertebral body?

A

The thick, disc-shaped anterior portion

Weight bearing portion

89
Q

What is on the anterior and lateral surfaces of the vertebral body?

A

Nutrient foramina, openings through which blood vessels deliver nutrients and remove wastes

90
Q

What is a vertebral arch?

A

Two short, thick processes (the pedicles) project posteriorly from the vertebral body and then unite with the flat laminae

91
Q

What does the vertebral foramen contain?

A

Spinal cord, adipose tissue, areolar connective tissue, blood vessels

92
Q

How many processes arise from the vertebral arch?

A

7

93
Q

Name the 7 processes of the vertebral arch.

A

Transverse process (x2) - where lamina and pedicle join
Spinous process - projects posteriorly from the junction of the laminae
Superior articular process (x2) - join with inferior articular processes
Inferior articular process (x2) - join with superior articular processes

94
Q

What are osteophytes?

A

Bony growths around intervertebral discs
Can lead to a narrowing of the vertebral canal
Happens as you age

95
Q

What are the three main parts of a typical vertebra?

A
  1. Vertebral body
  2. Vertebral arch
  3. 7 vertebral processes
96
Q

What is the thorax?

A

Refers to the entire chest region

97
Q

What makes up the thoracic cage?

A

Formed by the sternum, ribs, and their costal cartilage and the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae

98
Q

What does costal cartilage do?

A

Attach the ribs to the sternum

99
Q

What is the function of the thoracic cage?

A

Protects the organs in the thoracic and superior abdominal cavities
Provides support for the upper limbs
Plays a role in breathing

100
Q

Identify the location and surface features of the cervical vertebrae.

A

C1-C7
Smaller than all other vertebrae (except coccyx)
Vertebrae arches are larger
Have three foramina

101
Q

What is contained in the vertebral foramina and in the 2 transverse foramina?

A

Vertebral foramina - spinal cord

Transverse foramina - vertebral arteries and veins, and nerves

102
Q

What is the atlas?

A

C1
First cervical vertebra inferior to the skull
Lacks a body and spinous process

103
Q

What is the axis?

A

C2

Has a vertebral body

104
Q

What allows you to move your head to signify “no”?

A

The dens (a peglike process) makes a pivot on which the atlas and head rotate

105
Q

What is the usual cause of death in whiplash injuries?

A

The dens of the axis is driven into the medulla oblongata of the brain

106
Q

Identify the location and surface features of the thoracic vertebrae.

A

T1-T12
Larger and stronger than cervical vertebrae
Spinous processes on T1-T10 are long, laterally flattened and directed inferiorly

107
Q

How is the spinous process on T11 and T12 different?

A

Shorter, broader, and directed more posteriorly

108
Q

What are costal facets? Which vertebrae have them?

A 
Articular surfaces for the ribs
Thoracic vertebrae (except for T11 and T12)
109
Q

What is a facet?

A

Is formed when the head of a rib articulates with the body of one vertebra

110
Q

What is a demifacet?

A

Is formed when the head of a rib articulates with two adjacent vertebral bodies

111
Q

Identify the location and surface features of the lumbar vertebrae.

A

L1-L5
Largest and strongest of the unfused bones in the vertebral column
Projections are short and thick

112
Q

Describe the spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae

A

Quadrilateral in shape, thick and broad and project nearly straight posteriorly
Well adapted for the attachment of the large back muscles

113
Q

What is the sacrum?

A

A triangular bone formed by the Union of five sacral vertebrae
S1-S5

114
Q

When do the sacral vertebrae begin to fuse?

A

Between 16-18 years of age, completed by age 30

115
Q

What does the sacrum serve as?

A

A strong foundation for the pelvic girdle

Female - shorter, wider and more curved

116
Q

What is the sacral canal?

A

A continuation of the vertebral cavity

117
Q

What is the sacral hiatus?

A

When the 4th and 5th sacral vertebrae fail to meet, it leaves an inferior entrance to the vertebral canal

118
Q

What is the coccyx?

A

Triangular in shape
Formed by the fusion of 4 coccygeal vertebrae
Co1-Co4
Fuse between the ages of 20-30

119
Q

What is the sternum?

A

A flat, narrow bone located in the centre of the anterior thoracic wall
Consists of three parts

120
Q

What are the three parts of the sternum?

A
  1. Manubrium - superior part
  2. Body - middle and largest
  3. Xiphoid process - inferior, smallest
    Typically fuse by age 25
121
Q

Describe the xiphoid process in detail.

A

Does not completely ossify till age 40
No ribs are attached to it
Provides attachment for some abdominal muscles
Incorrect positioning during CPR, may fracture the xiphoid process

122
Q

With which ribs does the body of the sternum articulate?

A

Directly or indirectly with ribs 2-10

123
Q

How many ribs do we have?

A

Twelve pairs of ribs

124
Q

Describe the length of the ribs.

A

1-7 increase in length

8-12 decrease in length

125
Q

Which ribs have a direct anterior attachment to the sternum?

A

1-7
By a strip of hyaline cartilage called costal cartilage
Called TRUE ribs

126
Q

Why are some ribs called false ribs?

A

8-12
B/c their costal cartilage either attach indirectly to the sternum or do not attach to the sternum at all
Called vertebrochondral ribs

127
Q

Which are the floating ribs? Why?

A

11-12

B/c their costal cartilage at their anterior ends do not attach to the sternum at all

128
Q

How does a rib articulate with a thoracic vertebra?

A

The facet on the head of a rib fits into a facet on the body of a vertebra, and the articular part of the tubercle of a rib articulates with the fact of the transverse process of the vertebra

129
Q

What is a herniated disc?

A

Pressure that ruptures the surrounding fibrocartilage

The nucleus pulposus may protrude (herniate) posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies

130
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Most common
Lateral bending of the vertebral column
Usually in the thoracic region

131
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Increase in the thoracic curve
Hunchback
Common in females with osteoporosis

132
Q

What is lordosis?

A

Hollow back
Increase in the lumbar curve
From increased weight of pregnancy or extreme obesity

133
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Laminae of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and unite at the midline

Biology - Chapters 1 - 10 (10 decks)

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