Chapter 3 - Cellular Level Flashcards

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0
Q

What is cell division?

A

Where one cell divides into two identical cells

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1
Q

What is a cell?

A

Living structural and functional units enclosed by a membrane

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2
Q

What is the name of cell biology?

A

Cytology - study of cellular structure and function

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3
Q

What are the three main parts of a cell?

A
  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Nucleus
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4
Q

What is the plasma membrane?

A

The cell’s flexible outer surface, separating the cell’s internal environment from the external environment
A flexible, sturdy barrier that surrounds and contains the cytoplasm of a cell

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5
Q

What is cytoplasm?

A

All of the cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.

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6
Q

Cytoplasm is divided into what two parts?

A
  1. Cytosol - the fluid portion of cytoplasm

2. Organelles - “little organs”, each type has a characteristic shape and specific function

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7
Q

What is the nucleus of a cell?

A

A large organelle that houses most of the cell’s DNA

Contains chromosomes

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8
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

A single molecule of DNA associated with several proteins

Contains thousands of hereditary units called genes that control most aspects of cellular structure and function

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9
Q

What is a fluid mosaic model?

A

The molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles a continually moving sea of fluid lipids that contains a mosaic of many different proteins

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10
Q

What is the basic structural framework of the plasma membrane?

A

Lipid bilayer

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11
Q

What is the lipid bilayer made up of?

A

Back-to-back layers made up of:

  1. Phospholipids
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Glycolipids
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12
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

Lipids that contain phosphorus

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13
Q

What is a cholesterol molecule?

A

Steroid with an attached OH- group

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14
Q

What is a glycolipid?

A

Lipid with an attached carbohydrate group

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15
Q

What does amphipathic mean?

A

Both polar and nonpolar parts

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16
Q

What are integral proteins?

A

Proteins that extend into or through the lipid bilayer among the fatty acid tails and are firmly embedded in it

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17
Q

What are transmembrane proteins?

A

They span the entire lipid bilayer and protrude into both the cytosol and extracellular fluid

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18
Q

What are peripheral proteins?

A

Not as firmly embedded in the membrane

Attached to the polar heads of membrane lipids or to integral proteins at the inner or outer surface of the membrane

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19
Q

What are glycoproteins?

A

Proteins with carbohydrate groups attached to the ends that protrude into the extracellular fluid

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20
Q

What is the glycocalyx?

A

An extensive sugary coating on the extracellular surface of the plasma membrane. It is composed of the carbohydrate portions of the membrane, glycolipids and glycoproteins

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21
Q

What are the functions of the glycocalyx?

A
  • enables cells to recognize each other
  • enables cells to adhere to each other
  • protects cells from being digested by enzymes in the extracellular fluid
  • it is hydrophilic, attracts a film of fluid to the surface, makes it slippery
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22
Q

What are ion channels?

A

Pores or holes that specific ions (K+), can flow into and out of the cell
Most are selective, allow only one type of ion through

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23
Q

What is a carrier?

A

Transports specific substances across membrane by changing shape

Selectively moves a polar substance or ion from one side of the membrane to the other
Also known as transporters

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24
Q

What are receptors?

A

Recognizes specific ligand and alters cell’s function in some way

Serve as cellular recognition sites
Each type of receptor recognizes and binds a specific type of molecule

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25
Q

What is a ligand?

A

A specific molecule that binds to a receptor

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26
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

A catalyst to speed up specific chemical reactions inside or outside of the cell

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27
Q

What are linkers?

A

Anchor filaments inside and outside the plasma membrane
Provides structure, stability and shape
Link two cells together

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28
Q

What do cell-identity markers do?

A
  1. Recognize other cells of the same kind during tissue formation
  2. Recognize and respond to potentially dangerous foreign cells
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29
Q

What does a membranes fluidity depend on?

A

Number of double bonds in the fatty acid tails of the lipids that make up the bilayer and the amount of cholesterol present

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30
Q

Why is the membrane described as selectively permeable?

A

Allows some substances to pass more easily than others

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31
Q

What is the lipid bilayer permeable to?

A

To nonpolar, uncharged molecules
(Oxygen, carbon dioxide, steroids )
*impermeable to ions and large, uncharged polar molecules such as glucose
** slightly permeable to small uncharged polar molecules such as water, urea,

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32
Q

What is a concentration gradient?

A

The difference in the concentration of a chemical from one place to another (such as, inside to outside of a cell)

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33
Q

Give two examples of something that is more concentrated on the outside than inside of the cell.

A
Oxygen molecules
Sodium ions (Na+)
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34
Q

Give two examples of something that is more concentrated on the inside than outside of the cell.

A
Carbon dioxide
Potassium ions (K+)
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35
Q

Which surface of the membrane is more positively charged? Negatively?

A

Inner surface is more negatively charged

Outer surface is more positively charged

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36
Q

What is the electrical gradient?

A

The difference in electrical charges between two regions

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37
Q

What is the name for the electrical gradient across a plasma membrane?

A

Membrane potential

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38
Q

Why is the concentration gradient and electrical gradient important?

A

It helps move substances across the plasma membrane

A substance will move DOWN its concentration gradient

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39
Q

What is the term for the combined influence of the concentration gradient and the electrical gradient on movement of a particular ion?

A

Electrochemical gradient

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40
Q

What are passive processes?

A

A substance moves down its concentration/electrical gradient to cross the membrane using only its own kinetic energy
No input of energy from the cell is required
Example, diffusion

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41
Q

What are active processes?

A

Cellular energy is used to drive the substance “uphill” against its concentration/electrical gradient
Cellular energy is used (usually ATP)

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42
Q

What is diffusion?

A

The passive process in which the random mixing of particles in a solution occurs b/c of the particles kinetic energy.

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43
Q

What are some factors that influence the diffusion rate of substances across a plasma membrane?

A

Steepness of the concentration gradient, higher concentration - faster
Temperature, higher temp - faster
Mass, larger mass - slower
Surface area, more surface area - faster
Diffusion distance, greater distance - slower

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44
Q

What are the three different kinds of diffusion?

A

Simple, facilitated, osmosis

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45
Q

What is simple diffusion?

A

Passive process, which substances move freely through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane without the help of transport proteins
Nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules move across the lipid bilayer through the process of simple diffusion

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46
Q

What are some example of molecules that move by simple diffusion?

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, fatty acids, steroids, and fat soluble vitamins (nonpolar hydrophobic)
Water, urea, small alcohols (small uncharged polar)

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47
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

An integral membrane protein assists specific substances across the membrane
Can either be a membrane channel or carrier
This is for substances that are too polar or highly charged to move by simple diffusion

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48
Q

What is channel-mediated facilitated diffusion?

A

A solute moves down a concentration gradient across the lipid bilayer through a membrane channel
Most are ion channels
Generally slower than simple diffusion

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49
Q

What is carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion?

A

A carrier (transporter) moves a solute down a concentration gradient across the plasma membrane
Passive process
Solute binds to a specific carrier on one side of the membrane and is released on the other side

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50
Q

What is the transport maximum?

A

The rate at which facilitated diffusion can occur, depends on the number of carriers available in the plasma membrane

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51
Q

What are some examples of substances that move across the plasma membrane by carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion?

A

Glucose, fructose, galactose, some vitamins

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52
Q

Describe how glucose enters a plasma membrane.

A
  1. Glucose binds to a specific type of carrier protein called the glucose transporter on the outer surface
  2. Transporter changes shape, glucose passes through the membrane
  3. Transporter releases glucose on the inside of the membrane
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53
Q

How does insulin affect the diffusion of glucose?

A

Insulin promotes the insertion of many copies of glucose transporters into the plasma membrane, thus increasing the rate of glucose diffusion

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54
Q

What is the inability to produce insulin called?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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55
Q

What is osmosis?

A

A type of diffusion in which there is a net movement of a solvent through a selectively permeable membrane
Passive process
Solvent is water in living systems
Moves from higher WATER concentration to lower WATER concentration

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56
Q

During osmosis, what are the two ways that water molecules can pass through a plasma membrane?

A
  1. By moving between neighbouring phospholipid molecules in the lipid bilayer, by simple diffusion
  2. By moving through aquaporins, integral membrane proteins that function as water channels
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57
Q

When can osmosis only occur?

A

When a membrane is permeable to water but not permeable to certain solutes

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58
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by a fluid at equilibrium at a given point within the fluid, due to the force of gravity.

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59
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The minimum pressure which needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of water across a semipermeable membrane
(Amount of pressure needed to stop the movement of water from the left tube into the right tube)

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60
Q

What is a solutions tonicity?

A

A measure of the solutions ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content

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61
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

Any solution in which a cell maintains its normal shape and volume

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62
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

A solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than the cytosol in the red blood cells.
Water molecules enter the the cells faster than they leave, causing the RBCs to swell and eventually burst

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63
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

When red blood cells rupture b/c they are placed in a hypotonic solution

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64
Q

What is lysis?

A

The rupture of any other cells (other than red blood cells) due to being placed in a hypotonic solution

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65
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

A higher concentration of solutes than does the cytosol inside red blood cells
Water molecules move out of the cells faster than they enter, causing the cells to shrink

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66
Q

What is the name for when cells shrink in size due to a hypertonic solution?

A

Crenation

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67
Q

Is pure water a hypotonic or a hypertonic solution?

A

Very hypotonic and causes rapid hemolysis

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68
Q

What is active transport?

A

An active process where energy is required for carrier proteins to move solutes across the membrane against their concentration gradient

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69
Q

What are the two sources of energy that can be used to drive active transport?

A
  1. Energy obtain from hydrolysis of ATP is the source of primary active transport
  2. Energy stored in an ionic concentration gradient is the source in secondary active transport
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70
Q

What are some example of ions that are actively transported across the plasma membrane?

A

Na+, K+, H+, Ca+2, I-, Cl-, amino acids and monosaccharides

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71
Q

Describe how primary active transport works.

A

Energy derived from hydrolysis of ATP changes the shape of a carrier protein, which pumps a substance across a plasma membrane against its concentration gradient.
A typical body cell expends about 40% of its ATP it generates on primary active transport

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72
Q

What is the most prevalent primary active transport mechanism?

A

The sodium-potassium pump.

Expels sodium from the cells and brings in potassium

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73
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

Maintains a low concentration of sodium in the cytosol (against its concentration gradient) and maintains a high concentration of potassium in the cytosol (against its concentration gradient)
B/c sodium and potassium slowly leak through the membrane, the pumps must work continuously

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74
Q

What are the 4 steps of the sodium-potassium pump?

A
  1. Three sodium ions in the cytosol bind to the pump protein
  2. Binding of sodium ions triggers the hydrolysis of ATP into ADP (a reaction that attaches a phosphate group to the pump protein). This changes the shape of the protein, expelling 3 sodium ions into the ECF, now the shape favours binding of two potassium ions in the ECF to the pump protein
  3. Binding of potassium ions triggers the release of the phosphate group from the pump protein, this reaction again causes the pump to change shape
  4. As the pump reverts to its original shape, it’s releases potassium ions into the cytosol, pump is ready again to bind three sodium ions. Cycle repeats
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75
Q

Why is the sodium-potassium pump so important?

A

It is crucial for maintaining normal cell volume and for the ability of some cells to generate action potentials from electrical signals.
Helps to maintain normal tonicity on each side of the plasma membrane, ensures that cells don’t shrink or swell

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76
Q

What is secondary active transport?

A

The energy stored in a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is used to drive other substances cross the membrane against their own concentration gradient. B/c a Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is established by primary active transport, secondary active transport INDIRECTLY uses energy obtained from the hydrolysis of ATP.
Uses the potential energy of Na+, like water stored behind a dam.
If Na+ can leak back in, stored energy can be converted to kinetic energy and bring other substances across

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77
Q

What is a symporter?

A

A carrier protein that simultaneously bind to a sodium ion and another substance and then changes shape so that both substances cross the membrane at the same time, this transporter would be called a symporter

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78
Q

What is an antiporter?

A

When two substances move in opposite directions across the membrane

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79
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

A small spherical sac

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80
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

Materials move INTO a cell in a vesicle formed from the plasma membrane
Need energy supplied by ATP

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81
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Materials move OUT of a cell by the fusion of the vesicles formed inside the cell with the plasma membrane
Need energy supplied by ATP

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82
Q

What are three different kinds of endocytosis?

A
  1. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  2. Phagocytosis
  3. Bulk-phase endocytosis
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83
Q

What is Receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

A highly selective type of endocytosis by which cells take up specific ligands (ligands are molecules that bind to specific receptors)

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84
Q

Give a detailed explanation of how receptor-mediated endocytosis works.

A
  1. LDL particles that contain cholesterol bonds to a specific receptor in the plasma membrane to form a receptor-LDL complex. The receptors are integral membrane proteins that are concentrated in regions of the plasma membrane called the clathrin-coated pits. Here, a protein called clathrin attaches to the membrane on its cytoplasmic side. Many clathrin molecules come together, forming a basket like structure round the receptor-LDL complexes that causes the membrane to invaginate (fold inward).
  2. Vesicle formation - the invaginated edges of the membrane around the clathrin-coated pit fuse, and a small piece of the membrane pinches off. The resulting vesicle, known as a clathrin-coated vesicle contains the receptor-LDL complexes
  3. Uncoating - almost immediately the vesicle loses its clathrin coat to become an unchanged vesicle
  4. Fusion with endosome - the uncoated vesicle fuses with a vesicle known as an endosome. Within an endosome, the LDL particles separate from their receptors
  5. Recycling of receptors to plasma membrane - receptors accumulate in transport vesicles that return them to the plasma membrane
  6. Degradation in lysosomes - LDL particle vesicles fuse with lysosomes that contain digestive enzymes. They break down the large protein and lipid molecules of the LDL particle into amino acids, fatty acids and cholesterol. These small molecules then leave the lysosomes
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85
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

A form of endocytosis in which the cell engulfs large solid particles, such as worn-out cells, whole bacteria or viruses

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86
Q

What is the name of cells that are able to carry out phagocytosis?

A

Phagocytes

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87
Q

What are the two main types of phagocytes?

A

Macrophages - located in many body tissues

Neutrophils - a type of white blood cell

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88
Q

Describe in detail the process of phagocytosis.

A

Begins when a particle binds to the plasma membrane receptor on the phagocyte, causing it to extend pseudopods. Pseudopods surround the particle outside of the cell and the membranes fuse to form a vesicle called a phagosome, which enters the cytoplasm. The phagosome fuses with one or more lysosomes, and the lysosomal enzymes break down the ingested material. In most cases, any undigested materials in the phagosome remain indefinitely in a vesicle called a residual body.

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89
Q

What are pseudopods?

A

Projections of its plasma membrane and cytoplasm

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90
Q

What is contained in a residual body?

A

Any undigested material in a phagosome remain indefinitely in a vesicle called a residual body. The residual body is then either secreted by the cell via exocytosis or they remain stored in the cell as lipofuscin granules.

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91
Q

What is bulk-phase endocytosis?

A

A form of endocytosis in which tiny droplets of extracellular fluid are taken up. No receptor proteins are involved. All solutes dissolved in the ECF are brought into the cell.

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92
Q

Describe in detail how bulk-phase endocytosis works.

A

The plasma membrane folds inward and forms a vesicle containing a droplet of extracellular fluid. The vesicle pinches off from the plasma membrane and enters the cytosol. Within the cell, the vesicle fuses with a lysosome, where enzymes degrade the engulfed solutes. The resulting smaller molecules, such as amino acids and fatty acids leave the lysosome to be used elsewhere by the cell. Occurs in most cells, especially absorptive cells in the intestines and kidneys.

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93
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

Exocytosis releases materials from a cell.

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94
Q

Where is exocytosis especially important?

A
  1. Secretory cells that liberate digestive enzymes, hormones, mucus, and other secretions
  2. Nerve cells that release substances called neurotransmitters
    - in some cases, waste is also released by exocytosis
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95
Q

How does exocytosis work?

A

Membrane enclosed secretory vesicles called secretory vesicles, form inside the cell, fuse with the plasma membrane and release their contents into the ECF.

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96
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

Vesicles undergo endocytosis on one side of the cell and then undergo exocytosis on the other. As the vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane, the vesicular contents are released into the extracellular fluid.
Occurs most often across the endothelial cells that line blood vessels and is a means for materials to move between blood plasma and interstitial fluid.

97
Q

What is cytoplasm?

A

Consists of all the cellular contents between the plasma membrane and the nucleus, and has two components

  1. The cytosol
  2. Organelles (tiny structures that perform different functions in the cell)
98
Q

What is cytosol?

A

The fluid portion of the cytoplasm that surrounds the organelles

99
Q

What is the cytoskeleton?

A

A network of protein filaments that extends throughout the cytosol

100
Q

What three types of filamentous proteins contribute to the cytoskeleton’s structure as well as structure of the organelles?

A

Microfilaments
Intermediate filaments
Microtubules

101
Q

What are Microfilaments?

A

The thinnest element of the cytoskeleton
Composed of the proteins ACTIN AND MYOSIN
Most prevalent around the edge of the cell

102
Q

What are the two general functions of microfilaments?

A
Generate movement (muscle contraction, cell division, cell locomotion) and provide mechanical support (basic shape and strength of cells) 
They anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins in the plasma membrane
103
Q

What are microvilli?

A

Nonmotile, microscopic, fingerlike projections of the plasma membrane
Greatly increase the surface are of the cell, microvilli are abundant on cells involved in absorption (small intestine)

104
Q

What are intermediate filaments?

A

Thicker than microfilaments but thinner than microtubules
Exceptionally strong
Usually found in parts of cells subject to mechanical stress
Help stabilize the position of organelles such as the nucleus and help attach cells to one another

105
Q

What are microtubules?

A

The largest of the cytoskeletal components
Long, unbranched, hollow tubes composed mainly of the protein tubulin
Grow outward from the centrosome toward the periphery of the cell
Determine cell shape
Function in movement of organelles

106
Q

What are organelles?

A

Specialized structures within the cell that have characteristic shapes, and they perform specific functions in cellular growth, maintenance, and reproduction.
Often cooperate to maintain homeostasis

107
Q

What is a centrosome?

A

Located near the nucleus
Consists of two parts: a pair of centrioles and pericentriolar material
During cell division, centrosomes replicate so that succeeding generations of cells have the capacity for cell division

108
Q

Describe the two (pair) of centrioles.

A

Cylindrical structures, each composed of 9 clusters of 3 microtubules (triplets) arranged in a circular pattern
The long axis of one centriole is at a right angle to the long axis of the other

109
Q

What is the pericentriolar material?

A

Surrounding the centrioles
Contains hundreds of ring-shaped complexes composed of the protein tubulin
These tubulin are the organizing centres for growth of the mitotic spindle which plays a critical role in cell division and for microtubule formation of nondividing cells

110
Q

What are two motile projections of the cell surface?

A

Cilia and flagella

111
Q

What are cilia? (Cilium)

A

Numerous, hair-like projections that extend from the surface of the cell
Each cilium contains a core of 20 microtubules surrounded by plasma membrane
Each cilium is anchored to a basal body just below the surface of the plasma membrane
Causes the steady movement of fluid along the cell’s surface

112
Q

What are flagella? (Flagellum)

A

Much longer than cilia

Usually move an entire cell (like a sperm cell)

113
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

Are the sites for protein synthesis
Contains rRNA (ribosomal RNA)
Structurally contains two subunits (one twice the size of the other)

114
Q

What do ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum do?

A

Synthesize proteins destined for specific organelles, for insertion in the plasma membrane, or for export from the cell

115
Q

What do free ribosomes do?

A

Synthesize proteins used in the cytosol

Also located in mitochondria where they synthesize mitochondrial proteins

116
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

The “ER” is a network of membranes in the form of flattened sacs or tubules
Extends from the nuclear envelope throughout the cytoplasm

117
Q

What are the two different kinds of ER?

A
  1. Rough ER

2. Smooth ER

118
Q

What is rough ER?

A

Is continuous with the nuclear membrane and usually is folded into a series of flattened sacs
Studded with ribosomes, the sites of protein synthesis
Produces secretory proteins, membrane proteins and many organelle proteins

119
Q

What is smooth ER?

A

Extends from the rough ER to form a network of membrane tubules
Does not have ribosomes on the outer surface of its membrane
Contains unique enzymes that make it functionally more diverse than rough ER
Synthesizes fatty acids and steroids, helps release glucose, inactivates drugs and other potentially harmful substances

120
Q

What is the Golgi complex?

A

Consists of 3 to 20 cisternae
Small, flattened membranous sacs with bulging edges that resemble a stack of pita bread
Often curved

121
Q

What are the functions of the Golgi complex?

A
  1. Modifies, sorts, packages, and transports proteins received from the rough ER
  2. Forms secretory vesicles that discharge processed proteins via exocytosis into ECF ; forms membrane vesicles that ferry new molecules to the plasma membrane ; forms transport vesicles that carry molecules to other organelles
122
Q

What is the entry of the Golgi complex called? What does it face?

A

The Cis face

Faces the rough ER

123
Q

What is the exit of the Golgi complex called? What does it face?

A

Trans face

Faces the plasma membrane

124
Q

What does the entry face of the Golgi complex do?

A

Receives and modifies proteins produced by the rough ER

125
Q

What does the medial cisternae do?

A

Adds carbohydrates to proteins to form glycoproteins and lipids to proteins to form lipoproteins

126
Q

What does the exit face of the Golgi complex do?

A

Modifies the molecules further and then sorts and packages them for transport to their destinations

127
Q

What are the three general destinations for proteins that leave the Golgi complex?

A

Some proteins are secreted from the cell by exocytosis, some are incorporated into the plasma membrane, and some occupy storage vesicles that become lysosomes

128
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

Membrane enclosed vesicles that form from the Golgi complex

Contain as many as 60 kinds of powerful digestive and hydrolytic enzymes that can break down a wide variety of molecules

129
Q

How do lysosomes work best? Acidic or basic? How do they achieve this?

A

Acidic pH
Lysosomal membrane includes active transport pumps that import H+ ions
Interior pH of 5, 100 times more acidic than the pH of the cytosol
Membrane also includes transporters to move the final products of digestion into the cytosol (glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids)

130
Q

What are the 4 functions of lysosomes?

A
  1. Digest substances that enter a cell via endocytosis and transport final products of digestion into cytosol
  2. Carry out autophagy, the digestion of worn-out organelles
  3. Implement autolysis, the digestion of the entire cell
  4. Accomplish extracellular digestion
131
Q

What is autolysis?

A

The digestion of an entire cell

132
Q

What is autophagy?

A

Digestion of worn-out organelles

133
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

Contains enzymes that can oxidize various organic substances and catalase (decompose hydrogen-peroxide)
Can self-replicate

134
Q

What are proteasomes?

A

Tiny barrel shaped structures consisting of 4 stacked rings of proteins around a central core
Continuous destruction of unneeded, damaged, or faulty proteins
Contain enzymes that cut proteins into small peptides

135
Q

What are mitochondria?

A

Generate most of the ATP through aerobic respiration
Referred to as “powerhouse” of the cell
Self-replicate

136
Q

Mitochondria consist of what two kinds of membrane?

A
  1. Outer mitochondrial membrane

2. Inner mitochondrial membrane - contains a series of folds called mitochondrial cristae

137
Q

What are the 2 functions of the mitochondria?

A
  1. Generate ATP through reactions of aerobic cellular respiration
  2. Play an important early role in apoptosis
138
Q

What is the mitochondrial matrix?

A

Central fluid filled cavity if a mitochondrion

139
Q

Why are the mitochondrial cristae so important?

A

Elaborate folds provide high surface area for the chemical reactions that are part of cellular respiration and contain some of the enzymes needed for ATP production

140
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Genetically programmed death of a cell

141
Q

What is different about mitochondrial DNA?

A

It is inherited only from your mother

Can be used to trace maternal lineage

142
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

A spherical or oval-shaped structure that usually the most prominent feature of a cell
Most cells usually only have one nucleus

143
Q

What kind of cell doesn’t have a nucleus?

A

Mature red blood cells

144
Q

What kind of cell have multiple nuclei?

A

Skeletal muscle cells

145
Q

What separates the nucleus from the cytoplasm?

A

A double membrane called the nuclear envelope

146
Q

How is the outer layer different from the inner layer of the nuclear envelope?

A

Outer layer is continuous with rough ER

147
Q

What are nuclear pores?

A

Openings that extend through the nuclear envelope

148
Q

What do nuclear pores do?

A

Control the movement of substances between the nucleus and the cytoplasm
Small molecules and ions move passively through by diffusion
Most large molecules cannot pass passively and must be moved actively

149
Q

What are nucleoli? (Nucleolus, singular)

A

Inside the the nucleus, one or more spherical bodies that function in producing ribosomes
Simply a cluster of protein, DNA and RNA, not enclosed by a membrane
Sites of synthesis for rRNA, assembly of rRNA and proteins of ribosomal subunits

150
Q

What are genes?

A

The cells hereditary units, which control cellular structure and direct cellular activities

151
Q

How are genes arranged?

A

In chromosomes

152
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

Each chromosome is a long molecule of DNA that is coiled together with several proteins
Human body cells have 46 chromosomes
(23 from each parent)
Has a pair of chromatids

153
Q

What are the functions of the nucleus?

A
  1. Controls cellular structure
  2. Directs cellular activity
  3. Produces ribosomes in nucleoli
154
Q

What is chromatin?

A

The complex of DNA, proteins and some RNA

Has a beads-on-a-string like structure

155
Q

What is the genome?

A

The total genetic information carried in a cell or an organism

156
Q

What is a nucleosome?

A

Each bead in a chromatin string

Consists of a double stranded DNA wrapped twice around a core of eight proteins called histones.

157
Q

What are histones?

A

A core of 8 proteins found in chromatin, which help to organize the coiling and folding of DNA

158
Q

What is linker DNA?

A

The string between the beads of nucleosomes, holds them together

159
Q

What is a chromatin fiber?

A

In cells that are not dividing, another histone promotes coiling of nucleosomes into larger-diameter chromatin-fibre, which then folds into large loops

160
Q

What is the proteome?

A

Refers to all of an organisms proteins.

161
Q

What is gene expression?

A

A gene’s DNA is used as a template for synthesis of a specific protein

162
Q

What are the two processes of gene expression?

A
  1. Transcription - the information encoded in a specific region of DNA is transcribed (copied) to produce a specific molecule of RNA
  2. Translation - the RNA attaches to a ribosome, where the information contained in the RNA is translated into a corresponding sequence of amino acids to form a new protein molecule
163
Q

What is a base triplet?

A

A sequence of three nucleotides

164
Q

What is a codon?

A

Each DNA base triplet is transcribed as a complementary sequence of three nucleotides called a codon
A given codon specifies a specific amino acid

165
Q

What is the genetic code?

A

Is the set of rules that relate the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA and the amino acids they specify

166
Q

What are the three types of RNA?

A
  1. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
  2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
  3. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
167
Q

What does mRNA do?

A

Directs the synthesis of a protein

168
Q

What does rRNA do?

A

Joins with ribosomal proteins to make ribosomes

169
Q

What does tRNA do?

A

Bonds to amino acids and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is incorporated into a protein during translation
One end carries a specific amino acid and the opposite end consists of a triplet of nucleotides called an anticodon

170
Q

What is RNA polymerase?

A

An enzyme that catalyzes transcription of DNA

171
Q

Where does transcription begin?

A

At the promoter, located near the beginning of the gene, where RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA

172
Q

In RNA what does each base pair with?

A

A - U
T - A
G - C
C - G

173
Q

What is a terminator?

A

Where transcription of DNA ends, specifies the end of a gene

174
Q

What are introns?

A

Regions within the gene that DO NOT code for parts of proteins

175
Q

What are exons?

A

DO code for segments of a protein

176
Q

What is pre-mRNA?

A

Immediately after transcription, the transcript includes information from both introns and exons

177
Q

What do small nuclear ribonucleoproteins do?

A

Remove the introns

They are enzymes that cut out the introns and splice together the exons

178
Q

What happens after the small nuclear ribonucleoproteins snip off the introns?

A

The resulting product is a functional mRNA molecule that passes through a pore in the nuclear envelope to reach the cytoplasm, where translation takes place

179
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

A process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs

180
Q

What is translation?

A

The nucleotide sequence in an mRNA molecule specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein
Ribosomes in the cytoplasm carry out the translation

181
Q

Where is the binding site for mRNA?

A

On the small subunit of the ribosome

182
Q

What is on the large subunit of ribosomes?

A

Two binding sites for tRNA

A “P” site and an “A” site

183
Q

Describe how translation occurs.

A
  1. Initiator tRNA attaches to a start codon
  2. Large and small ribosomal subunits join to form a functional ribosome and initiator tRNA fits into position on the ribosome at the P site
  3. Anticodon of incoming tRNA pairs with next mRNA codon beside initiator tRNA at site A
  4. Amino acid on initiator tRNA forms a peptide bond with amino acid beside it
  5. tRNA leaves the ribosome; ribosome shifts by one codon; tRNA binds to newly exposed codon; repeat steps 3-5
  6. Protein synthesis stops when the ribosome reaches a stop codon on mRNA
184
Q

What is always the first amino acid in a growing polypeptide?

A

Methionine - binds with the initiator tRNA (UAC) to mRNA (AUG)
AUG is the start codon

185
Q

What roles do the P and A sites serve?

A

P site - holds the tRNA attached to the growing polypeptide

A site - holds the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added to the growing polypeptide

186
Q

What is cell division?

A

The process by which cells reproduce themselves

187
Q

What are the two types of cellular division?

A

Somatic cell division

Reproductive cell division

188
Q

What is a somatic cell?

A

Any cell of the body other than a germ cell

189
Q

What is a germ cell?

A

A gamete (sperm or oocyte) or any precursor cell destined to become a gamete

190
Q

What is somatic cell division?

A

A cell undergoes nuclear division called mitosis and a cytoplasmic division called cytokinesis
Produces two genetically identical cells, each with the same number and kind of chromosomes as the original cell
Replaces dead or injured cells, tissue growth

191
Q

What is reproductive cellular division?

A

The mechanism that produces gametes
Process consists of a special two step division called meiosis, in which the number of chromosomes in the nucleus is reduced by half

192
Q

What is mitosis?

A

Produces two genetically identical cells

Part of somatic cell division

193
Q

What is meiosis?

A

Cell division where the number of chromosomes is reduced by half
Occurs in reproductive cell division

194
Q

What is the cell cycle?

A

Orderly sequence of events in which a somatic cell duplicates and divides in two

195
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A

The two chromosomes that make up each pair are called homologous chromosomes
Contain SIMILAR genes arranged in the same (or almost the same) order

196
Q

What are the sex chromosomes?

A
Females = two large X chromosomes 
Males = one X and a smaller Y chromosome
197
Q

What are diploid cells?

A

Somatic cells contain two sets of chromosomes so they are called diploid (di=2)

198
Q

What are the two major phases of cellular division?

A

Interphase - when a cell is NOT dividing

Mitotic - when a cell IS dividing

199
Q

What are the three phases of interphase?

A

G1 phase
S
G2 phase

200
Q

What is the G1 phase?

A

The interval between the mitotic phase and the S phase
The cell is metabolically active, replicates most of its organelles and cytosolic components but NOT its DNA
Replication of centrosomes begins

201
Q

How long does G1 last?

A

8-10 hours, if the total cell time is 24 hours

202
Q

What is the G0 phase?

A

Cells that remain in G1 for a very long time, perhaps never to divide again
Most nerve cells

203
Q

What is the S phase?

A

The interval between G1 and G2

DNA replication occurs

204
Q

How long does the S phase last for?

A

About 8 hours

205
Q

What is the G2 phase?

A

Interval between S and mitotic phase
Cell growth continues
Enzymes and other proteins are synthesized in preparation for cell division
Replication of centrosomes is complete

206
Q

Why must DNA replication occur before cytokinesis in somatic cell division?

A

So that each of the new cells will have a complete genome

207
Q

How does replication of DNA occur in the S phase?

A

It’s helical structure partially uncoils, and the two strands separate at the points where hydrogen bonds connect base pairs
Each exposed base pairs with a new complementary base, DNA strand takes shape as chemical bonds form between neighbouring nucleotides
2 old DNA strands –> old & new DNA + old & new DNA

208
Q

What are the 4 stages of mitosis?

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Telophase
209
Q

What happens in prophase?

A

Chromatin fibres condense and shorten into chromosomes
Each prophase chromosome consists of a pair of identical strands called chromatids (replicated during S phase)
Mitotic spindles form, that push the centrosomes to the poles of the cell
Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope breaks down

210
Q

What is a centromere?

A

A constricted region that holds a chromatid pair together

211
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

Microtubules of the mitotic spindles align the centromeres of the chromatid pairs at the exact centre of the mitotic spindle

212
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

Centromeres split, separating the two members of each chromatid pair, which move to opposite poles of the cell
Cytokinesis starts in late anaphase

213
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

Begins after chromosomes stop moving
Identical sets of chromosomes, now at opposite ends of the cells, uncoil and revert to the threadlike chromatin form
Nuclear envelope forms
Mitotic spindles break up

214
Q

When does cytokinesis occur?

A

(Division of cells organelles and cytoplasm)
Begins in late anaphase, with the formation of a cleavage furrow (a slight indentation in the plasma membrane)
It is completed after telophase

215
Q

What are the three cell destinies?

A
  1. Remain alive and functioning without dividing
  2. Grow and divide
  3. Die
216
Q

What are Cdk’s?

A

Cyclin-dependant protein kinases
Enzymes that can transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein to activate the protein; other enzymes can remove the phosphate group which deactivates it
Crucial in the initiation and regulation of DNA replication, mitosis and cytokinesis

217
Q

What are cyclins?

A

Switching on and off Cdk’s

Rise and fall with cell cycle

218
Q

What is necrosis?

A

A pathological cell death that results from tissue injury
Many adjacent cell swell, burst and spill their cytoplasm into the interstitial fluid
Debris stimulates an inflammatory response by the immune system

219
Q

What is a haploid cell?

A

A single set of chromosomes, 23

Gametes

220
Q

What are the two stages of meiosis?

A

Meiosis I
Meiosis II
*during the interphase before meiosis I, chromosomes of the diploid cell start to replicate - results in two genetically identical chromatids

221
Q

What are the stages of Meiosis I?

A

Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I

222
Q

What happens during prophase I?

A

Chromosomes shorten and thicken
Nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear
Mitotic spindle forms
2 sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off, (called synapis)
Parts of the chromatids of two homologous chromosomes may be exchanged

223
Q

What is synasis?

A

Two sister chromatids of each pair of homologous chromosomes pair off

224
Q

What is a tetrad?

A

The resulting 4 chromatids from the synopsis

225
Q

What is crossing-over?

A

When the parts of two homologous chromosomes may be exchanged with one another
Permits an exchange of genes between chromatids of homologous chromosomes
Resulting cells are genetically UNLIKE each other
Genetically UNLIKE the starting cell that produced them

226
Q

What happens in metaphase I?

A

The tetrads formed by homologous pairs of chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate

227
Q

What happens during anaphase I?

A

The members of each homologous pair of chromosomes separate as they as pulled to opposite poles of the cell

228
Q

What is the net effect of meiosis I?

A

Each resulting cell contain the haploid number of chromosomes because it contains only one member of each pair of the homologous chromosomes present in the starting cell

229
Q

Summarize meiosis I and meiosis II.

A

Meiosis I begins with a diploid starting cell and ends with two cells, each with a haploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis II, each of the haploid cells formed in meiosis I divides, net result is 4 gametes that are genetically different from the original starting diploid cell

230
Q

How does anaphase I of meiosis differ from anaphase of mitosis?

A

During anaphase I of meiosis, the paired chromatids are held together by a centromere and do not separate. During anaphase of mitosis, the paired chromatids separate and the centromeres spilt

231
Q

What is geriatrics?

A

Branch of medicine that deals with the medical problems and care of elderly persons

232
Q

What are telomeres?

A

Specific DNA sequences found only at the tips of each chromosome
Prevent them from sticking together, protect the chromosomes
With each division, the telomeres shorten

233
Q

What is progeria?

A

Rapid aging, death normally occurs around age 13

234
Q

What is cancer?

A

A group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled or abnormal cell division
Oncology - study of cancer

235
Q

What is a malignant tumor?

A

Ability to spread to other parts of the body

236
Q

What is a benign tumor?

A

Does not metastasis

237
Q

What is melanomas?

A

Cancerous growths of skin epithelial cells that produce melanin

238
Q

What is sarcoma?

A

Any cancer arising from muscle cells or connective tissues

239
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

Cancer of blood-forming organs

240
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Malignant disease of lymphatic tissue