Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physio 320 > Chapter 7,13,14 vocab > Flashcards

Chapter 7,13,14 vocab Flashcards

1
Q

Exteroceptive Sensory Systems

A
  • Auditory, somatosensory, olfactory and gustatory systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Primary Sensory Cortex

A
  • The area of sensory cortex that receives most of its input directly from the thalamic relay nuclei of that system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Secondary Sensory Cortex

A
  • Comprises the areas of the sensory cortex that receive most of their input from the primary sensory cortex of that system or from other areas of the secondary sensory cortex of the same system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Association Cortex

A
  • Any area of the cortex that receives input from more than one sensory system
    Most input comes from areas of secondary sensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sensation

A
  • Process of detecting the presence of a stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Perception

A
  • Higher-order process of integrating, recognizing, and interpreting complete patterns of sensations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Functional Segregation

A
  • Organization into different areas, each of which performs a different functionDifferent areas of secondary and association cortex analyze different aspects of the same sensory stimulus (in sensory systems)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Parallel Systems

A
  • Systems in which information flows through the components over multiple pathways
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Parallel Processing

A
  • In a parallel system—the simultaneous analysis of a signal in different ways by the multiple parallel pathways of a neural network
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Binding Problem

A
  • Multiple specialized areas, at multiple levels, are interconnected by multiple parallel pathways
    Example: Each area of the visual system is specialized for perceiving specific aspects of visual system, yet complex stimuli are normally perceived as integrated wholes, not as combinations of independent attributes
    The brains way of combining individual sensory attributes to produce integrated perceptions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Amplitude

A
  • Loudness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Frequency

A
  • Pitch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complexity

A
  • Timbre
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fourier Analysis

A
  • Mathematical procedure for breaking down complex waves into their component sine waves (pure tones).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fundamental frequency

A
  • Related to pitch of sounds; The highest frequency of which the various component frequencies of a sound are multiples; A sound that is a mixture of 100, 200, 300 Hz—100 Hz is the highest frequency of which the three components are multiples
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Missing Fundamental

A
  • Pitch of a complex sound may not be directly related to the frequency of any of the sound’s components; Mixture of pure tones with frequencies of 200, 300, & 400 Hz would be perceived as having the same pitch as a pure tone of 100 Hz.—because 100 Hz is the fundamental frequency of those three frequencies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tympanic Membrane -

A

Ear drum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ossicles

A
  • Small bones of the middle ear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Malleus

A
  • The mallet (an ossicle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Incus

A

-The anvil (an ossicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stapes

A
  • A stirrup (an ossicle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Oval Window

A
  • The membrane that transfers vibrations from the ossicles to the fluid of the cochlea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cochlea

A
  • Long, coiled tube with an internal membrane running almost to its tip
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Organ of Corti

A
  • Internal membrane in the cochlea—auditory receptor organ
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hair Cells

A
  • Auditory receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Basilar Membrane

A
  • The membrane of the organ of Corti in which the hair cell receptors are embedded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tectorial Membrane

A
  • Rests on the hair cells (part of the organ of Corti)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Auditory Nerve

A
  • A branch in the cranial nerve VIII—the auditory-vestibular nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Reitinotopic

A
  • Organization of the visual system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tonotopic

A
  • Organization of the auditory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Semicircular Canals

A
  • The receptive organs of the vestibular system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vestibular System

A
  • Carries information about the direction and intensity of head movements, which helps maintain balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cochlear Nuclei

A
  • Axons of each auditory nerve synapse in the ipsilateral cochlear nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Superior Olives

A
  • Medullary nuclei that play a role in sound localization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lateral Lemniscus

A
  • Axons of the olivary neurons project from the lateral lemniscus to the inferior colliculi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Inferior Colliculi

A
  • The structures of the tectum that receive auditory input from the superior olives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Medial Geniculate Nuclei

A
  • The auditory thalamic nuclei that receive input from the inferior colliculi and project to primary auditory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Primary Auditory Cortex

A

– receives most information from medial geniculate nucleus and is hidden from view in the lateral fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Medial Superior Olives

A
  • Some neurons respond to slight differences in the time of arrival of signals from the two ears; Localization of sound in space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lateral Superior Olives

A
  • Respond to slight differences in the amplitude of sounds from the two ears
    Localization of sound in space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Core Region

A
  • The part of the primary auditory cortex that receives input from the medial geniculate nucleus (located into temporal lobe and hidden from view within the lateral fissure); Adjacent to the primary area in each hemisphere are two other areas.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Belt

A
  • Surrounding the core region—areas of secondary auditory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Parabelt Areas

A
  • Areas of secondary auditory cortex outside the belt; 10 separate areas of secondary auditory cortex in primates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Anterior Auditory Pathway

A
  • Association cortex; Identifying sounds- the what
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Conductive Deafness

A
  • Damage to the ossicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Somatosensation

A
  • Sensations from your body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Exteroceptive System

A
  • Senses external stimuli that are applied to the skin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Proprioceptive system

A
  • Monitors information about the position of the body that comes from receptors in the muscles, joints, and organs of balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Interoceptive System

A
  • Provides general information about conditions within the body (temperature and blood pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mechanical Stimuli

A
  • Touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Thermal Stimuli

A
  • Temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nociceptive Stimuli

A
  • Pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Free Nerve Endings

A
  • Neuron endings with no specialized structures on them; Simple cutaneous receptors (skin receptors); Sensitive to temperature change and pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Pacinian Corpsucles -

A

Largest and deepest cutaneous receptors—onionlike; Adapt rapidly; Respond to sudden displacements of the skin but not to constant pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Merkel’s Disks

A
  • Adapt slowly and respond to gradual skin indentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ruffini Endings

A
  • Adapt slowly and respond to skin stretch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Stereognosis

A
  • Identification of objects by touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Dermatome

A
  • The area of the body that is innervated by the left and right dorsal roots of a given segment of the spinal cord; Neural fibers that carry information from cutaneous receptors and other somatosensory receptors gather together in nerves and enter the spinal cord via the dorsal routes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Dorsal-Column Medial-Lateral-Lemniscus System;

A

Carry information about touch and proprioception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Anterolateral System

A
  • Carries information about pain and temperature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Dorsal Columns

A
  • The somatosensory tracts that ascend in the dorsal portion of the spinal cord white matter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Dorsal Column Nuclei

A
  • Where the sensory neurons of the dorsal-column medial-lateral lemniscus system synapse
    Located in the medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Decussate

A
  • Cross over to the other side of the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Medial Lemniscus

A
  • The somatosensory pathway between the dorsal column nuclei and the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Ventral Posterior Nucleus

A
  • A thalamic relay nucleus in both the somatosensory and gustatory systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pimary Somatosensory Cortex

A
  • Most neurons of the ventral posterior nucleus project here

Sends information from the contralateral areas of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Secondary Somatosensory Cortex

A
  • Some neurons project here from the contralateral areas of the face
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Spinothalamic Tract pecifics

A
  • Projects to the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus—anteriolateral system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Spinoreticular Tract

A
  • Projects to the reticular formation—anteriolateral system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Reticular formation

A
    • Projects to the parafascicular nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Parafascicular nuclei -

A
  • Located in the thalamus; Gets information from the reticular formation
    Spinotectal Tract—anteriolateral system; Projects to the tectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tecum

A
  • Colluculi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Poscentral Gyrus

A

The gyrus located just posterior to the central fissure; function is primarily somatosensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Somatotopic

A

Organized according to a map of the body surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Somatosensory Homunculus

A
  • Somatotopic Map that corresponds to the primary somatosensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Posterior Parietal Lobe

A
  • Area of association cortex that receives input from the visual, auditory, and somatosensory systems and is involved in the perception of spatial location and guidance of voluntary behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Bimodal Neurons

A
  • Neurons that respond to activation of two different sensory systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Hemianopsia

A
  • A condition in which a scotoma covers half of the visual field
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Astereognosia

A
  • The inability to recognize objects by touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Asomatognosia

A
  • The failure to recognize parts of ones own body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Anosognosia

A
  • The failure of neuropsychological patients to recognize their own symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Contralateral Neglect

A
  • The tendency not to respond to stimuli that are contralateral to a right-hemisphere injury; Common component of asomatognosia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Hemispherctomized

A
  • Those with one cerebral hemisphere removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Anterior Cingulate Cortex

A
  • The cortex of the anterior cingulated gyrus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Gate-Control Theory

A
  • Melzack and Wall; They theorized that signals descending from the brain can activate neural gating circuits in the spinal cord to block incoming pain signals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Periaqueductal Gray

A
  • Electrical stimulation has analgesic effects (pain-blocking)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Endorphins

A
  • Internally produced opiate analgesic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Raphe Nuclei

A
  • A cluster of seretonergic nuclei in the core of the medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Neuropathic Pain

A
  • Severe chronic pain in the absence of a recognizable pain stimulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Olfaction

A
  • Smell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Gustation

A
  • Taste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Flavor

A
  • When molecules of food excite both smell and taste receptors and produce an integrated sensory impression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Pheromones

A
  • Chemicals that influence the physiology and behavior of conspecifics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Olfactory Mucosa

A
  • Olfactory receptor cells are located in the upper part of the nose, embedded in a layer of mucus-covered tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Cribiform Plate

A
  • Porous portion of the skull in which the dendrites located in the nasal passes axons pass through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Olfactory Glomeruli

A
  • Olfactory receptor axons terminate in the discrete clusters of neurons near the surface of the olfactory bulbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Piriform Cortex

A
  • An area of medial temporal cortex adjacent to the amygdyla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Medial Dorsal Nuclei

A
  • The thalamic relay nuclei of the olfactory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Orbitofrontal Cortex

A
  • The cortex of the inferior frontal lobe, adjacent to the orbits, which receives olfactory input from the thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Taste Buds

A
  • Taste receptors found on the tongue and in parts of the oral cavity—clusters of about 50
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Umami

A
  • Meaty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Facial Nerve

A
  • Sensory and motor; Taste from anterior two-thirds of tongue, facial expression, secretion of tears, salivation, cranial blood vessel dilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Glossopharyngeal Nerve

A
  • Sensory and motor; Taste from posterior third of tongue, salivation, swallowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Vagus Nerve

A
  • Sensory and motor; Sensations from abdominal and thoracic organs; Control over abdominal and thoracic organs and muscles of the throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Solitary Nucleus

A
  • Where neurons terminate in the medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Ventral Posterior Nucleus

A
  • Fibers synapse on neurons that project here- in the thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Primary Gustatory Cortex

A
  • Where gustatory axons of the ventral posterior nucleus project to; Near the face area of the somatosensory homunculus, on the superior lip of the lateral fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Secondary Gustatory Cortex

A
  • Hidden from view in the lateral fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Anosmia

A
  • Inability to smell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Ageusia

A
  • The inability to taste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Selective Attention

A
  • Perceive only a small subset of the many stimuli that excite our sensory organs at any one time and largely ignore the rest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Vagus Nerve

A
  • Sensory and motor; Sensations from abdominal and thoracic organs; Control over abdominal and thoracic organs and muscles of the throat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Solitary Nucleus

A
  • Where neurons terminate in the medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Ventral Posterior Nucleus

A
  • Fibers synapse on neurons that project here- in the thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Primary Gustatory Cortex

A
  • Where gustatory axons of the ventral posterior nucleus project to; Near the face area of the somatosensory homunculus, on the superior lip of the lateral fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Secondary Gustatory Cortex

A
  • Hidden from view in the lateral fissure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Selective Attention

A
  • Perceive only a small subset of the many stimuli that excite our sensory organs at any one time and largely ignore the rest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Endogenous Attention

A
  • Mediated by top-down neural mechanisms; Internal cognitive process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Exogenous Attention

A
  • External events; Mediated by bottom-up neural mechanisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Cocktail-Party Phenomenon

A
  • Even when you are focusing so intently on one conversation that you are totally unaware of the content of other conversations going on around you, the mention of your name in one of the other conversations will immediately gain access to your consciousness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Change Blindness

A
  • a subject is shown a photographic image on a computer screen and is asked to report any change in the image as soon as it is noticed; image is composed of two images that alternate with a delay of less than .1 second between them—identical except for one gross feature
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Simultanagnosia

A
  • When you can identify objects in any part of your visual field if they are presented individually, but only one when presented together.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Endocrine Glands

A
  • ductless glands that releases chemicals called hormones directly into the circulatory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Exocrine Glands

A
  • glands that release chemical into ducts that carry them to targets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Hormones

A
  • Chemicals released by the endocrine system directly into the circulatory system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gonads

A
  • males testes and female ovaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Testes

A
  • males gonads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Ovaries

A
  • female gonads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Copulation

A
  • sexual intercourse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Sperm Cells

A
  • reproductive cells of the male testes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Ova

A
  • reproductive cells of the females ovaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Zygote

A
  • a combined sperm and ova cell; contains all the information necessary for the normal growth of an adult organism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Sex Chromosome

A
  • pair of chromosome that contain genetic programs that direct sexual development
134
Q

X Chromosome

A
  • one of two sex chromosomes; two X chromosomes makes a female
135
Q

Y Chromosome

A

one of two sex chromosomes; 1 Y & 1 X chromosomes makes a male

136
Q

Amino Acid Derivative Hormones

A
  • hormones that are synthesized in a few simple steps from an amino acid; example is epinephrine
137
Q

Peptide Hormones

A
  • hormones that are short chains of amino acids
138
Q

Protein Hormones

A
  • hormones that are long chains of amino acids
139
Q

Steroid Hormone

A
  • hormones that are synthesized from cholesterol, a type of fat molecule
140
Q

Androgens

A
  • the class of steroid hormones that include testosterone
141
Q

Estrogens

A
  • the class of steroid hormones that are released in large amounts by the ovaries; an example is estradoil
142
Q

Testosterone

A
  • the most common androgen
143
Q

Estradiol

A
  • the most common estrogen
144
Q

Progestins

A
  • a third class of steroid hormones released by the testes and ovaries
145
Q

Progesterone

A
  • most common progestins; prepares the woman’s uterus and breast for pregnancy
146
Q

Adrenal Cortex

A
  • outer layer of adrenal glands; primarily function is the regulation off glucose and salt levels in the blood
147
Q

Master Gland

A
  • pituitary gland
148
Q

Tropic Hormones

A
  • hormones whose primary function is to influence the release of hormones from other glands
149
Q

Gonadotropin

A
  • pituitary tropic hormone that travels through the circulatory system to the gonads, where it stimulates the release of gonadal hormones
150
Q

Posterior Pituitary

A
  • the part of the pituitary gland that contains the terminal of hypothalamic neurons
151
Q

Pituitary Stalk

A
  • the structure connecting the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland
152
Q

Anterior Pituitary

A
  • begins as part of the same embryonic tissue that eventually develops into the roof of the mouth
153
Q

Menstrual Cycle

A
  • the hormone-regulated cycle in women off follicle growth, egg release, buildup of uterus lining, and menstruation
154
Q

Vasopressin

A
  • One of the two major peptide hormones of the posterior pituitary; it facilitates reabsorption of water by kidneys and is thus also called antidiuretic hormone
155
Q

Oxytocin

A
  • One of the two major peptide hormones of the posterior pituitary, which in females stimulates contracting of uterus during labor and the ejection of milk during suckling
156
Q

Paraventricular Nuclei

A
  • hypothalamic nuclei that play a role in eating and synthesizes hormones released by the posterior pituitary
157
Q

Supraoptic Nuclei

A
  • hypothalamic nuclei in which the hormones of the posterior pituitary are synthesized
158
Q

Neurosecretory Cells

A

neurons that release hormones into general circulation

159
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone

A
  • another name for vasopressin
160
Q

Hypothalamopituitary Portal System

A
  • the vascular network that carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary
161
Q

Portal Vein

A
  • a vein that connects one capillary network to another
162
Q

Releasing Hormones

A
  • hypothalamic hormones that are thought to stimulate the release of an anterior pituitary hormone
163
Q

Release-inhibiting factors

A
  • hypothalamic hormones that are thought to inhibit the release of an anterior pituitary hormone
164
Q

Thyrotropin-Relasing Hormones

A
  • the hypothalamic hormone that stimulates the release of thyyrontropin from the anterior pituitary
165
Q

Thyrotropin

A
  • the anteriour pituitary hormone that stimulates the release of hormones from the thyroid gland
166
Q

Thyroid Gland

A
  • gland that is stimulated by thyrotropin
167
Q

Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone

A
  • the hypothalamic hormone that stimulates the release of both of the anterior pituitary’s gonadotropins; Follicle-Releasing Hormone & Luteinizing Hormone
168
Q

Follicle-Releasing Hormone

A
  • the gonadotropic hormone that stimulates the development of ovarian follicles
169
Q

Luteinizing Hormone

A
  • the gonadotropic hormone that causes the developing ovum to be released from its follicle
170
Q

Pancreas -

A

releases insulin which in turn reduces blood glucose levels

171
Q

Pulsatile Hormone Release

A
  • the typical pattern of hormone release, which occurs in large surges several times a day
172
Q

Dimorphic

A
  • two standard models for humans: male and female
173
Q

Primordial Gonads

A
  • pair of gonadal structures that every fetus has around 6 weeks after fertilization regardless of its genetic sex
174
Q

Sry Gene

A
  • A gene on the Y chromosome that triggers sry protein, which in turn stimulates the development of the testes
175
Q

Sry Protein

A
  • A protein that causes the medulla of each primordial gonad to develop into a testis
176
Q

Wolffian System

A
  • The embryonic precursor of the male reproductive duct
177
Q

Mullerian System

A
  • The embryonic precursor of the female reproductive duct
178
Q

Seminal Vesicles

A
  • holds the fluid in which sperm cells are ejaculated
179
Q

Van Deferens

A
  • used for sperm cells to travel to seminal vesicles
180
Q

Uterus

A
  • female reproductive created by the Mullerian System
181
Q

Fallopian Tubes

A
  • tubes ova travels through from the ovaries to the uterus where they can be fertilize
182
Q

Mullerian-Inhibiting Substance

A
  • causes mullerian system to degenerate and testes descend into scrrotum
183
Q

Scrotum

A
  • the sac that holds the testes outside the body cavity
184
Q

Ovariectomy

A
  • removal of ovaries
185
Q

Orchidectomy

A
  • removal of testes
186
Q

Gonadectomy -

A

surgical removal of gonads - ovaries or testes

187
Q

Castration

A
  • another name for gonadectomy
188
Q

Genitals

A
  • external reproductive organ
189
Q

Biopotential Precursor

A
  • fetal structure in both genetically male and female fetus that will form the genitals
190
Q

Glans

A
  • grows into either the head of the penis in males or the clitoris in females
191
Q

Penis

A
  • male genitals; formed from the glans
192
Q

Clitoris

A
  • female genitals; formed from the glans
193
Q

Urethral Folds

A
  • either fused into the male or creates the female’s labia minora
194
Q

Labia Minora

A
  • formed by the urethral fold
195
Q

Lateral Bodies

A
  • forms either the shaft of the penis for males or hood of clitoris for females
196
Q

Labioscrotal Swellings

A
  • form either the scrotum in males or the labia majora in females
197
Q

Labia Majora

A
  • formed by the labioscrotal swellings
198
Q

Puberty

A
  • the transitional period between childhood and adulthood during which fertility is achieved, the adolescent growth spurt occurs, and secondary sex characteristics develop
199
Q

Secondary Sex Characteristics

A
  • features other than the reproductive organs that distinguish sexually mature men and women
200
Q

Growth Hormone

A
  • only anterior pituitary hormone that does not have a gland as its primary target; acts directly on bones and tissue to produce the pubertal growth spurt
201
Q

Androstenedione

A
  • androgen released by the adrenal that is normally responsible for the growth of pubic hair and axillary hair in females
202
Q

Axillary Hair

A
  • underarm hair
203
Q

Sexual Dimorphism

A
  • male/female structural differences
204
Q

Perinatal

A
  • around the time of birth
205
Q

Aromatase

A
  • an enzyme that converts testosterone into estradoil
206
Q

Aromatization

A
  • the process of converting testosterone into estradoil
207
Q

Aromatization Hypothesis

A
  • the hypothesis that the brain is masculinized by estradoil that is produced from perinatal testosterone from aromatization
208
Q

Alpha Fetoprotein

A
  • a protein that is present in the blood of many mamals during the perinatal period and that deactivates circulating estradoil by binding to it
209
Q

Masculinizes

A
  • enhances or promotes male characteristics
210
Q

Defeminizes

A
  • suppress or disrupts female characteristics
211
Q

Lordosis

A
  • sex position of female rat; back arched and tail at the side
212
Q

Intromission

A
  • penis insertion
213
Q

Ejaculation

A
  • ejection of sperm
214
Q

Proceptive Behaviors

A
  • solicitation of behavior
215
Q

Androgenic Insensitivity Syndrome

A
  • syndrome in genetic males caused by a mutation to the androgen receptor gene that renders androgen reposes totally unresponsive that results in the development of a female body
216
Q

Adrenogenital Syndrome

A
  • a sexual development disorder in which high levels of adrenal androgens, resulting from congenital adrenal hyperplasia, masculinize the body of genetic females
217
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

A
  • a congenital deficiency in the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex, which leads to excessive release of adrenal androgen
218
Q

Replacement Injections

A
  • injections of a hormone whose natural release has been curtailed by the removal of the gland that normally releases it
219
Q

Impotent

A
  • unable to achieve a penile erection
220
Q

Sterility

A
  • inability to reproduce
221
Q

Dihydrotestosterone

A
  • a nonaromatizable androgen that restored copulatory behaviors in castrated male primates
222
Q

Estrus

A
  • a period of 12 to 18 hours in which a female rodent is fertile, receptive and proceptive
223
Q

Estrus Cycle

A
  • the cycle of sexual receptivity
224
Q

Anabolic Steroids

A
  • steriod drugs that are similar to testosterone and have powerful anabolic (growth-promoting) effects
225
Q

Testicular Atrophy

A
  • wasting away of testes
226
Q

Gynecomastia

A
  • breast growth in men
227
Q

Hirsutism

A
  • excessive growth of body hair
228
Q

Medial Preoptic Area

A
  • the areas of hypothalamus that includes the sexually dimorphic nuclei and that plays a key role in the of male sexual behavior
229
Q

Dimorphic Nucleus

A
  • the nucleus in the medial preoptic area of rats that is larger in males than in females
230
Q

Lateral Tegmental Field

A
  • area of the midbrain used by medial preoptic area to control male sexual behavior
231
Q

Ventromedial Nucleus

A
  • contains circuits that appear to be critical for female sexual behavior
232
Q

Progesterone Receptors

A
  • appears in the VMN and surrounding areas after an injection of estradoil
233
Q

Periaqeductal Gray

A
  • site where it appears female sexual behavior is mediated to by a tract
234
Q

Homosexual

A
  • sexually attracted to members of same sex
235
Q

Bisexual

A
  • sexually attracted to both members
236
Q

Sexual Identity

A
  • the sex, male or female, that a person believes himself/herself to be
237
Q

Fraternal Birth Order Effect

A
  • the finding probability of a man’s being homosexual increases as a function of the number of older brothers he has
238
Q

Maternal Immune Hypothesis

A
  • hypothesis that some mothers become progressively more immune to masculinizing hormones and a mother’s immune system might deactivate masculinizing hormones in her younger sons
239
Q

Transsexualism

A
  • a condition of sexual identity in which an individual believes that he or she is trapped in a body of the other sex
240
Q

Surgical Sexual Reassignment

A
  • surgery to change their sex
241
Q

Electroencephalogram

A
  • a recording of electrical activity along the scalp
242
Q

Electromyogram

A
  • a reading of the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles
243
Q

Alpha waves

A
  • waxing and waning bursts of 8- to 12- Hz EEG waves
244
Q

Sleep spindle

A

a burst of oscillatory brain activity visible on an EEG that occurs during stage 2 sleep
Initial stage 1 EEG- is not marked by any striking electromyographic

245
Q

Electrooculogram

A
  • measurement of the resting potential of the retina

First night phenomenon- the disturbance of sleep observed during the first night in a sleep laboratory

246
Q

K complex

A
  • a single large negative wave (upward deflection) followed immediately by a single large positive wave (downward deflection)
247
Q

Delta waves

A
  • largest and slowest of the EEG waves

Emergent stage 1 EEG- are accompanied by REMs and by a loss of tone in the muscles of the body core

248
Q

Rem sleep-

A

rapid eye movement sleep associated with stage 1 EEG

249
Q

Slow-wave sleep

A

stages 3 and 4 of EEG during sleep, named after the delta waves that characterize them

250
Q

Activation-synthesis theory

A
  • information supplied to the cortex during REM sleep is largely random and that the resulting dream is the cortex’s effort to make sense of these random signals
251
Q

Homeostasis

A

– internal physiological stability

252
Q

Executive function

A
  • cognitive abilities that appear to depend on the prefrontal cortex
253
Q

Nrem sleep

A
  • all other stages of sleep other than stage 1. Only about 7% of nrem sleep leads to dream recall
254
Q

Somnambulism

A

otherwise known as sleep walking is when a person walks or performs another activity while asleep

255
Q

Recuperation theories of sleep

A
  • being awake disrupts our homeostasis of the body in some way and sleep is required to restore it
256
Q

Micro sleeps

A
  • brief periods of sleep typically lasting 2 or 3 seconds where the eyelids droop and the subjects become less responsive to external stimuli
257
Q

Carousel apparatus

A
  • used to deprive rats of sleep; an experimental rat and its yoked control are in spate chambers of the apparatus. Each time the EEG activity of the experimental rat indicates its sleeping the floor will begin to rotate, if the sleeping rat does not move it will be knocked off the floor into the water below
258
Q

Default theory

A

it is difficult to stay continuosly in NREM sleep, so the brain periodically switches to one of two other states. If there is any immediate bodily need to take care of the brain switches to wakefulness; if there are no immediate needs, it switches to the default REM sleep

259
Q

Nocturnal animals

A
  • animals that sleep primarily during the day and take care of biological needs at night
260
Q

Zeitgebers

A

environmental cues such as the light-dark daily cycle that can entrain circadian rhythms

261
Q

Free-running period

A
  • the duration of free running rhythms
262
Q

Adaptation theories of sleep-

A

sleep is the result of a 24 hour timing mechanism that is we are programmed to sleep at night despite what happens to us during the day

263
Q

Yoked control

A
  • done to an animal in an experiment so that it is unable to function normally usually unable to move or do anything, the animal has no control.
264
Q

Circadian rhythms

A
  • a cycle lasting 24 hours, humans follow this cycle by sleeping during the night and taking care of biological needs during the day
265
Q

Entrain

A
  • to control the timing of something
266
Q

Free- running rhythms-

A

circadian rhythms in constant environments

267
Q

Biological clock

A
  • internal timing mechanism used to regulate sleep
268
Q

Internal Desynchronization

A
  • the cycling on different schedules of the free running circadian rhythms of 2 different processes
269
Q

Jet Lag

A
  • occurs when the zeitgebers that control the phases of various circadian rhythms are accelerated during east bound flights or decelerated during west bound flights
270
Q

Phase advance

A
  • east bound flights
271
Q

Phase delay

A
  • west bound flights
272
Q

Circadian clock

A
  • internal timing mechanism that’s capable of maintaining daily cycles of physiological functions, even when there are no temporal cues from the environment
273
Q

Suprachiasmatic Nuclei

A
  • nuclei of the medial hypothalamus that control the circadian cycles of various body functions
274
Q

Melanopsin

A
  • photopigment found in retinal cells that respond to changes in background illumination and play a role in synchronizing circadian rhythms
275
Q

Tau

A
  • the first circadian gene to be identified in mammals
276
Q

Cerveau Isole Preparation

A
  • an experimental preparation in which the forebrain is disconnected from the rest of the brain by a midcollicular transection
277
Q

Desynchronized EEG

A
  • low amplitude, high frequency EEG
278
Q

Encephale Isole Preparation

A
  • experimental preparation in which the brain is separated from the rest of the nervous system by a transection of the cadual brain stem
279
Q

Reticular Activating System

A
  • the hypothetical arousal system in the reticular formation
280
Q

Hypnotic Drugs

A

sleep promoting drugs

281
Q

Antihypnotic Drugs

A
  • sleep reducing drugs
282
Q

Melatonin

A
  • hormone that is synthesized from serotonin in the pineal gland and influences the circadian rhythm of sleep
283
Q

Benzodiazepines

A
  • class of GABA agonists with anxiolytic, sedative, and anticonvulsant properties; drugs such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and diazepam (Valium)
284
Q

Insomnia

A
  • disorders of initiating and maintaining sleep
    5-hydroxytryptophan- precursor of serotonin, 5-HTP but not serotonin readily passes through the blood brain barrier, reverse insomnia in cats and rats by the serotonin antagonist PCPA
285
Q

Pineal gland

A
  • endocrine gland that is the human body’s sole source of melatonin
286
Q

Chronobiotic

A

-substance that influences the timing of internal biological rhythms

287
Q

Hypersomnia

A
  • disorders characterized by excessive sleep or sleepiness
288
Q

Iatrogenic

A
  • Physician created
289
Q

Sleep Restriction Therapy

A
  • amount of time that an insomniac is allowed to spend in bed is substantially reduced, then the period of sleep restriction, the amount of time spent in bed is gradually increased in small increments, as long as sleep latency remains in the normal range
290
Q

Sleep apnea

A
  • condition in which sleep is repeatedly disturbed by momentary interruptions in breathing
291
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A
  • results from obstruction of the respiratory passages by muscle spasms or atonia
292
Q

Central Sleep Apnea

A
  • failure of central nervous system to stimulate respiration
293
Q

Periodic Limb Movement Disorder

A
  • recurrent involuntary movements of limbs during sleep, major cause of insomnia
294
Q

Restless Leg Syndrome

A
  • tension or uneasiness in legs that is particularly prevalent at bedtime and is a major cause of insomnia
295
Q

Narcolepsy

A
  • disorder in the hypersomnia category that is characterized by repeated, brief daytime sleep
296
Q

Cataplexy

A
  • disorder characterized by recurring losses of muscle tone during wakefulness and is often seen in cases of narcolepsy
297
Q

Sleep paralysis

A
  • sleep disorder characterized by the inability to move just as a person is falling asleep or waking up
298
Q

Hypnagogic Hallucination

A
  • Dreamlike experiences that occur during wakefulness
299
Q

Orexin

A
  • neuropeptide that has been implicated in narcolepsy in dogs and in knockout mice
300
Q

Nucleus Magnocellularis

A
  • the nucleus of the caudal reticular formation that promotes relaxation of the core muscles during REM sleep and during cataplectic attacks
301
Q

Polyphasic Sleep Cycles

A
  • sleep cycles that regularly involve more than one period of sleep per day
302
Q

Monophasic Sleep Cycles

A
  • sleep cycles that regularly involve one period of sleep per day typically at night
303
Q

Sleep inertia

A
  • the unpleasant feeling of grogginess that is sometimes experienced for a few minutes after awakening
304
Q

Electroencephalogram

A
  • a recording of electrical activity along the scalp
305
Q

Electromyogram

A
  • a reading of the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles
306
Q

Alpha waves

A
  • waxing and waning bursts of 8- to 12- Hz EEG waves
307
Q

Sleep spindle

A
  • a burst of oscillatory brain activity visible on an EEG that occurs during stage 2 sleep
308
Q

Initial stage 1 EEG

A
  • is not marked by any striking electromyographic
309
Q

Electrooculogram

A
  • measurement of the resting potential of the retina
310
Q

First night phenomenon

A
  • the disturbance of sleep observed during the first night in a sleep laboratory
311
Q

K complex

A
  • a single large negative wave (upward deflection) followed immediately by a single large positive wave (downward deflection)
312
Q

Delta waves

A
  • largest and slowest of the EEG waves
313
Q

Emergent stage 1 EEG

A
  • are accompanied by REMs and by a loss of tone in the muscles of the body core
314
Q

Rem sleep

A
  • rapid eye movement sleep associated with stage 1 EEG
315
Q

Slow-wave sleep

A
  • stages 3 and 4 of EEG during sleep, named after the delta waves that characterize them
316
Q

Activation-synthesis theory

A
  • information supplied to the cortex during REM sleep is largely random and that the resulting dream is the cortex’s effort to make sense of these random signals
317
Q

Homeostasis

A

– internal physiological stability

318
Q

Executive function

A
  • cognitive abilities that appear to depend on the prefrontal cortex
319
Q

Nrem sleep

A
  • all other stages of sleep other than stage 1. Only about 7% of nrem sleep leads to dream recall
320
Q

Somnambulism

A
  • otherwise known as sleep walking is when a person walks or performs another activity while asleep
321
Q

Recuperation theories of sleep

A
  • being awake disrupts our homeostasis of the body in some way and sleep is required to restore it
322
Q

Adaptation theories of sleep

A
  • sleep is the result of a 24 hour timing mechanism that is we are programmed to sleep at night despite what happens to us during the day
323
Q

Micro sleeps

A
  • brief periods of sleep typically lasting 2 or 3 seconds where the eyelids droop and the subjects become less responsive to external stimuli
324
Q

Carousel apparatus

A
  • used to deprive rats of sleep; an experimental rat and its yoked control are in spate chambers of the apparatus. Each time the EEG activity of the experimental rat indicates its sleeping the floor will begin to rotate, if the sleeping rat does not move it will be knocked off the floor into the water below
325
Q

Hierarchical Organization

A
  • Characterizes sensory system; System whose members can be assigned to specific levels or ranks in relation to one another
326
Q

Nerve Deafness

A
  • Damage to cochlea or auditory nerve
327
Q

Somatosensory System

A

System that mediates bodily sensations; Three separate interacting systems: exteroceptive, proprioceptive, interoceptive

328
Q

Posterior Auditory Pathway

A
  • Association cortex; Locating the sounds
329
Q

Olfactory Bulbs

A
  • The first cranial nerves, whose output goes primarily to the amygdala and piriform cortex
330
Q

Papillae

A
  • Small protuberances on the tongue—where taste buds are located

Physio 320 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions