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Physio 320 > Chapter 4,5,6 Vocab > Flashcards

Chapter 4,5,6 Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

Microelectrodes

A

Extremely fine recording electrodes, which are used for intracellular recording

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1
Q

Membrane Potential

A

The difference in electrical charge between the inside and the outside of a cell

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1
Q

Resting Potential

A

The steady membrane potential of a neuron at rest, usually about -70 mV

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1
Q

Ions

A

Positively or negatively charges particles

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1
Q

Random Motion

A

The first of the two homogenizing factors

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1
Q

Contrast X-Ray Techniques

A

inject into one compartment of the body a substance that absorbs x-rays either less than or more than the surrounding tissue. The substance then heightens the contrast between the compartment and the surrounding tissue during the X-ray photography.

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1
Q

Cerebral Angiography

A

X-ray technique that uses the infusion of a radio-opaque dye into a cerebral artery to visualize the cerebral circulatory system during X-ray photography.

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1
Q

Computed Tomography

A

A computer-assisted X-ray procedure that can be used to visualize the brain and the other internal structures of the living body.

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1
Q

Magnetic Resonance Imaging

A

Procedure in which high-resolution images are constructed from the measurement of waves that hydrogen atoms emit when they are activated by radio-frequency waves in a magnetic field. Provides clearer images than the CT.

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1
Q

Spatial Resolution

A

Ability to detect differences in spatial location

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2
Q

Concentration Gradients

A

A concentration gradient occurs where the concentration of something changes over a certain distance

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2
Q

Electrostatic Pressure

A

Positively charged ions (cat ions) and negatively charged ions (anions) attract each other but repel their own kind

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2
Q

Ion Channels

A

Ions pass through the neural membrane at specialized pores known as the Ion channels, each type of which is specialized for the passage of particular ions

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2
Q

Hodgkin and Huxley

A

Neurophysiologists whom provided the first evidence that an energy-consuming process is involved in the maintenance of the resting potential

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2
Q

Sodium-Potassium Pump

A

Active transport mechanisms that pump Na+ ions out of neurons and K+ ions in

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2
Q

Transporters

A

Mechanisms in the membrane of a cell that actively transport ions or molecules across the membrane

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2
Q

Depolarize

A

To decrease the resting membrane potential

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2
Q

Hyperpolarize

A

To increase the resting membrane potential

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2
Q

Excitatory Postsynaptic Potentials

A

Graded postsynaptic depolarizations, which increase the likelihood that an action potential will be generated

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2
Q

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials

A

Graded postsynaptic hyperpolarizations, which decrease the likelihood that an action potential will be generated

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2
Q

Graded Responses

A

Responses whose magnitude is indicative of the magnitude of the stimuli that will induce them

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2
Q

Axon Hillock

A

The conical structure at the junction between the axon and cell body

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2
Q

Positron Emission Tomography

A

Brain-imaging technique that has been widely used in biopsychological research because it provides images of brain activity rather than brain structure.

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2
Q

2-deoxyglucose

A

Injected into the patient?s carotid artery. Similar to glucose, so it is quickly taken up by active cells. However, it cannot be metabolized and therefore accumulates. Allowing to see what brain structures are active at certain times.

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2
Q

Functional MRI

A

Produce images of the increase in oxygen flow in the blood to active areas of the brain which allows inferring what brain structure is at work.

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2
Q

BOLD Signal

A

This is the signal that the functional MRI produces. (blood-oxygen-level- dependent signal)

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2
Q

Magnetoencephalography

A

Measures changes in magnetic fields on the surface of the scalp that are produced by changes in underlying patterns of neural activity.

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2
Q

Temporal Resolution

A

An advantage of Magnetoencephalography, the ability to detect differences in time

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2
Q

Electroencephalography

A

A technique for recording the gross electrical activity of the brain, commonly recorded through scalp electrodes

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2
Q

Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation

A

Technique for disrupting the activity in an area of the cortex by creating a magnetic field under a coil positioned next to the skull. Stimulation turns off part of the brain while the effects of the disruption on cognition and behavior are assessed.

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2
Q

Alpha Waves

A

Regular, 8 to 12 second, high amplitude waves that are associated with relaxed wakefulness.

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2
Q

Event Related Potentials

A

Waves that accompany certain psychological events.

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2
Q

Sensory Evoked Potential

A

A type of the event related potentials, the change in the cortical EEG signal that is elicited by the momentary presentation of a sensory stimulation.

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2
Q

Signal Averaging

A

A method used to reduce the noise of the background EEG

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3
Q

Threshold of Excitation

A

The level of depolarization necessary to generate an action potential, usually about -65 mV

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3
Q

Average Evoked Potentials

A

Focuses on the various waves in the averaged signal. When presented a stimulus, the average response time. Plotted then the background EEG is canceled.

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4
Q

Action Potential

A

A massive momentary reversal of a neurons membrane potential from about -70 mV to about +50 mV

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4
Q

P300 Wave

A

This wave occurs only if the stimulus has meaning for the subject. Ex: gets a reward

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5
Q

All-or-None Responses

A

Responses that are not graded, that either occur in their full extent or not at all

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5
Q

Far-Field Potentials

A

The portion of the evoked potential when the stimulus is not influenced by the meaning of the stimulus for the subject.

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6
Q

Integration

A

Adding or combing a number of individual signals into one overall signal

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6
Q

Electromyography

A

Usual procedure for the measuring muscle tension.

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7
Q

Spatial Summation

A

The integration of signals that occur at different sites on the neurons membrane

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7
Q

Electrooculography

A

Electrophysiological technique for recording eye movement

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8
Q

Temporal Summation

A

The integration of neural signals that occur at different times at the same synapse

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8
Q

Skin Conductance Level

A

One of the most common to assess the above. Measure of the background level of skin conductance that is associated with a particular situation

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9
Q

Voltage-Activated Ion Channels

A

Ion channels that open and close in response to changes in the level of the membrane potential

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9
Q

Skin Conductance Response

A

One of the electrodermal activity tests, is a measure of the transient changes in the skin conductance that are associated with discrete experiences.

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10
Q

Rising Phase

A

During the rising phase of an action potential, the membrane potential changes from negative to positive, a depolarization

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10
Q

Electrocardiogram

A

Recording of the heart beat by placing electrodes on the chest. Average is 70/min

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11
Q

Re-polarization

A

Re-polarization refers to the change in membrane potential that returns the membrane potential to a negative value after the depolarization phase of an action potential has just previously changed the membrane potential to a positive value

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11
Q

Hypertension

A

A chronic blood pressure of more than 140/90 mmHg.

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12
Q

Absolute Refractory Period

A

A brief period after the initiation of an action potential during which it is impossible to elicit another action potential in the same neuron

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12
Q

Sphygmamanometer

A

Device composed of a hollow cuff, a rubber bulb for inflating, and a pressure gauge. Measures blood pressure.

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13
Q

Relative Refractory Period

A

A period after the absolute refractory period during which a higher-than-normal amount of stimulation is necessary to make a neuron f ire

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13
Q

Stereotaxic surgery

A

Brain surgery using a stereotaxic apparatus to position an electrode or cannula in a specified position of the brain

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14
Q

Non-decremental

A

The conduction of action potentials along an axon

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14
Q

Plethysmography

A

The various techniques for measuring changes in the volume of blood in a particular part of the body

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15
Q

Antidromic Conduction

A

Axonal conduction opposite to the normal direction; conduction from axon terminals back toward the cell body

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15
Q

Stereotaxic Atlas

A

Used to locate brain structure in much the same way a geo atlas. The brain has three dimensions. All distances are measured in millimeters from a designated reference point

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16
Q

Orthodromic Conduction

A

Axonal conduction in the normal direction-from the cell body toward the terminal buttons

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16
Q

Bregma

A

A reference point on the stereotaxic atlas, on top of the skull where two of the major sutures intersect.

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17
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

The gaps between adjacent myelin segments on an axon

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17
Q

Stereotaxic Instrument

A

Has two parts: head holder and the electrode holder. Electrode holder allows to be moved in the three dimensions: anterior-posterior, dorsal-ventral, and lateral-medial.

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18
Q

Saltatory Conduction

A

Conduction of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next along a myelinated axon

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18
Q

Aspiration

A

The cortical tissue is drawn off by suction through a fine-tipped handleheld glass pipette.

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19
Q

Neurodegenerative Diseases

A

Diseases that damage the nervous system

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19
Q

Radio-Frequency Current

A

Small subcortical lesions are made by this technique when high frequency current is passed through the target tissue from the tip of an electrode.

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20
Q

Motor Neurons

A

Neurons that synapse on skeletal muscles

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20
Q

Knife Cuts

A

Used to eliminate conduction in a nerve or tract. Tiny cut can accomplish this without extensive damage to surrounding tissue.

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21
Q

Inter-neurons

A

Passive and decremental conduction

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21
Q

Cryogenic Blockade

A

When coolant is pumped through an implanted cryoprobe, neurons near the tip are cooled until they stop firing. No structural damage.

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22
Q

Hodgkin-Huxley Model

A

A mathematical model (a type of scientific model) that describes how action potentials in neurons are initiated and propagated. It is a set of nonlinear ordinary differential equations that approximates the electrical characteristics of excitable cells such as neurons and cardiac myocytes.

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22
Q

Cryoprobe

A

Probe in the cryogenic blockade technique

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23
Q

Dendritic spines

A

Tiny nodules of various shapes that are located on the surface of many dendrites and are the sites of most excitatory synapses in the mature mammalian brain

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23
Q

Unilateral Lesion

A

Lesions restricted to one half of the brain

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24
Q

Axosomatic Synapses

A

Synapses of each terminal buttons on somas

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24
Q

Bilateral Lesion

A

Lesions that involving both sides of the brain

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25
Q

Dendrodendritic synapses

A

Types of synapse that is capable of transmission in either direction

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25
Q

Bipolar Electrode

A

Stimulates the brain through two insulated wires wound tightly together and cut at the end.

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26
Q

Axoaxonic synapses

A

Types of synapse that helps mediate presynaptic facilitation and inhabitation

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26
Q

Intracellular Unit Recording

A

Provides a moment-by-moment record of the graded fluctuations in one neuron?s membrane potential

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27
Q

Presynaptic Facilitation

A

Axoaxonic synapses that increase effect on one neuron to another

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27
Q

Extracellular Unit Recording

A

Provides a record of firing of a neuron but no info about the neuron?s membrane potential.

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28
Q

Presynaptic Inhibition

A

Decreases effects of one neuron to another

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28
Q

Multiple-Unit Recording

A

Graph of the total number of recorded action potentials per unit of time

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29
Q

Directed Synapses

A

Synapses at which the site of neurotransmitter release the site of neurotransmitter reception are in close proximity

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29
Q

Invasive EEG Recording

A

EEG signals are recorded through large implanted electrodes rather than through scalp electrodes. Cortical EEG signals are frequently recorded through stainless steel skull screws whereas subcortical EEG signals are typically recorded through stereotaxically implanted wire electrodes.

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30
Q

Non directed Synapses

A

Synapses at which the site of neurotransmitter release and the site of neurotransmitter reception are not close together

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30
Q

Intraperitoneally

A

When drugs are injected hyperodermically into the peritoneal cavity of the abdomen.

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31
Q

String-of-Beads Synapses

A

String like shaped synapses

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31
Q

Intramuscularly

A

When drugs are injected into a large muscle

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32
Q

Neuropeptides

A

Short amino acid chains comprising between 3 and 36 amino acids; in effect they are short proteins

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32
Q

Subcutaneously

A

When drugs are injected fatty tissue beneath the skin

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33
Q

Synaptic Vesicles

A

Small spherical membranes that store neurotransmitter molecules and release them into the synaptic cleft

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33
Q

Intravenously

A

When drugs are injected into large veins

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34
Q

Golgi Complex

A

Structures in the air cell bodies and terminals buttons of neurons that package neurotransmitters and other molecules in vesicles

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34
Q

Cannula

A

A fine, hollow tube that has been stereotaxically implanted in the brain

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35
Q

Coexistence

A

The presence of more than one neurotransmitter in the same neuron

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35
Q

Neurotoxins

A

Neural poisons

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36
Q

Exocytosis

A

The process of releasing a neurotransmitter

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36
Q

Autoradiography

A

When slices of the brain are coated with a photographic emusion, stored in the dark for a few days and then developed much like film. High levels of 2-DG are black spots.

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37
Q

Voltage-Activated Calcium Channels

A

When stimulated by action potentials, these channels open, and Ca2+ ions enter the button

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37
Q

Cerebral Dialysis

A

Method of measuring the extracellular concentration of specific neurochemicals in behaving animals. Animal doesn?t need to be killed in this technique.

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38
Q

Receptors

A

Cells that are specialized to receive chemical, mechanical or radiant signals from the environment; also proteins that contain binding sites for particular neurotransmitters

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38
Q

Chromatograph

A

A device for measuring the chemical constituents of liquids or gases

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39
Q

Ligand

A

A molecule that binds to another molecule; neurotransmitters are ligands of their receptors

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39
Q

Antigens

A

Proteins on the surface cells that identify them as native or foreign

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40
Q

Receptor Subtypes

A

The different types of receptors to which a particular neurotransmitter can bind

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40
Q

Immunocytochemistry

A

Procedure for locating particular neuroproteins in the brain by labeling their antibodies with a dye or radioactive element then exposing the slices to the labeled antibodies.

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41
Q

Iontropic Receptors

A

Receptors that are associated with ligand activated ion channels

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41
Q

In Situ Hybridization

A

Another technique for locating peptides and other proteins in the brain; molecules that bind to the mRNA that directs synthesis of the target protein are synthesized and labeled, and the brain slices are exposed to them.

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42
Q

Metabotropic Receptors

A

Receptors that are associated with signal proteins and G protein

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42
Q

Gene Knockout Techniques

A

Procedures for creating organism that lack a particular gene under investigation

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43
Q

G Proteins

A

Protein that is attached to a protein of signal protein. Once neurotransmitters binds to meta receptors, sub unit of G protein breaks off or trigger synthesis of 2nd messenger

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43
Q

Antisense Drugs

A

Helps to circumvent the problems with gene knockout technique, allows for an organism to develop normally but then reaches into their brain and blocks expression of a particular gene.

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44
Q

Second Messenger

A

A chemical synthesized in a neuron in response to the binding of a neurotransmitter to a metabotropic receptor in its cell membrane

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44
Q

Gene Replacement Techniques

A

Procedures for creating organisms in which a particular gene has been replaced with another

45
Q

Autoreceptors

A

A type of metabotropic receptor located on the presynaptic membrane and sensitive to a neuron’s own neurotransmitter

45
Q

Green Florescent Protein

A

A protein composed of 238 amino acid residues that exhibit bright green fluorescence when exposed to light in the blue to ultraviolet range.

46
Q

Reuptake

A

The drawing back into the terminal button of neurotransmitter molecules after their release into the synapse; the more common of the two mechanisms for deactivating a released neurotransmitter

46
Q

Brainbow

A

The process by which individual neurons in the brain can be distinguished from neighboring neurons using fluorescent proteins.

47
Q

Enzymatic Degradation

A

The breakdown of chemicals by enzymes-one of two mechanisms for deactivating released neurotransmitters

47
Q

Transgenic Mice

A

When mice contain the genetic material of another species

48
Q

Enzymes

A

Proteins that stimulate or inhibit biochemical reactions without being affected by them

48
Q

Intelligence Quotient

A

An intelligence quotient, or IQ, is a score derived from one of several standardized tests designed to assess intelligence.

49
Q

Acetylcholine

A

A neurotransmitter that is created by the addition of an acetyl group to a choline molecule

49
Q

Behavioral Paradigm

A

Single set of procedures developed for the investigation of a particular behavioral phenomenon

50
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

The enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

50
Q

Single-Test Approach

A

Goal was to discriminate between patients with psychological problems resulting from structural brain damage and those with psychological problems resulting from functional rather than structural.

51
Q

Gap Junction

A

Narrow spaces between adjacent neurons that are bridged by fine tubular channels containing cytoplasm through which electrical signals and small molecules can pass readily

51
Q

Standardized-Test-Battery Approach

A

Goal to id brain-damaged patients but the testing involved standardized sets rather than a single test. Most common of this, Halstead-Reitan

52
Q

Amino Acid Neurotransmitters

A

A class of small-molecule neurotransmitters, which includes the amino acids glutamate and GABA

52
Q

Customized-Test-Battery Approach

A

Not just to id patients with brain damage but the objective is to characterize the nature of the psychological deficits of each brain-damaged patient. Use common battery tests then a custom set of tests.

53
Q

Glutamate

A

The brain’s most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter, whose excessive release causes much of the brain damage resulting from cerebral ischemia

53
Q

Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery

A

Most widely used Standarized-test-battery approach. Brain-damaged patients tend to perform poorly on this.

54
Q

Aspartate

A

An amino acid neurotransmitter that is a constituent of many of the proteins that we eat

54
Q

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

A

Helps neuropsychologists to infer later on other tests when they know the IQ. Published in 1955

55
Q

Glycine

A

An amino acid neurotransmitter that is a constituent of many of the proteins that we eat

55
Q

Digit Span

A

Most widely used test of short memory. Ids the longest sequence of random digits that a patient can repeat correctly 50% of the time. Most ppl have a 7 digit span

56
Q

Gamma-aminobutyric Acid

A

The amino acid neurotransmitter that is synthesized from glutamate; the most prevalent inhibitory neurotransmitter in the mammalian nervous system

56
Q

Token Test

A

20 tokens of 2 diff shapes, 2 sizes, and five colors. Examiners says to touch a certain, size, shape and color.

57
Q

Monoamine Neurotransmitters

A

Small molecule neurotransmitters that are synthesized from monoamines and comprise two classes: catecholamines and indolamines

57
Q

Sodium Amytal Test

A

Injecting the anethtic sodium amytal into either of the carotoid arteries in the neck. Temp anesthetizes the same-side hemisphere while leaving the other side unaffected. Several language tests are administered while this is happening.

58
Q

Dopamine

A

One of three catecholamine neurotransmitters; dopaminergic neurons are damaged in Parkinsons disease

58
Q

Dichotic Listening Test

A

Sequences of spoken digits are presented to subjects through stereo headphones. Three digits are presented to one ear and three diff to the other ear. Then they are asked to repeat as many of the six digits as they can. Report more that are connected to the language center, which was deteremined by the sodium amytal test.

59
Q

Epinephrine

A

One of the three catecholamine neurotransmitters

59
Q

Contralateral

A

Projecting from one side of the body to the other

60
Q

Norepinephrine

A

One of the three catecholamine neurotransmitters

60
Q

Ipsilateral

A

Situated or appearing on or affecting the same side of the body

61
Q

Serotonin

A

An indolamine neurotransmitter; the only member of this class of monoamine neurotransmitters found in the mammalian nervous system

61
Q

Short-Term Memory

A

Holds about seven items for less than 30 seconds without rehearsal; also called the working memory because it is the mental workspace for tasks being thought about at any given moment.

62
Q

Indolamines

A

The class of monoamine neurotransmitters that are synthesized from tryptophan; serotonin is the only member of this class found in the mammalian nervous system

62
Q

Long-Term Memory

A

Relatively permament memory system with virtually unlimited capacity.

62
Q

Anterograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memories for events that occurred after the amnesia

63
Q

Soluble-Gas Neurotransmitters

A

A class of unconventional neurotransmitters that include nitric oxide and carbon monoxide

63
Q

Retrograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memories for events that occurred prior to the amnesia

64
Q

Nitric Oxide

A

A soluble-gas neurotransmitter

64
Q

Semantic Memory

A

Part of the declarative memory that holds general knowledge

65
Q

Carbon Monoxide

A

A soluble-gas neurotransmitter

65
Q

Episodic Memory

A

Part of the declarative memory that contains memories of personally experienced events.

66
Q

Retrograde Transmission

A

At some synapses, they transmit feedback signals from postsynaptic neuron back to the presynaptic neuron

66
Q

Implicit Memory

A

Memory with a lack of conscience/awareness in the act of recollection

67
Q

Endocannabinoids

A

A class of unconventional neurotransmitters that are chemically similar to the active components of marijuana

67
Q

Explicit Memory

A

Opposite of implicit. Conscious remembering

68
Q

Anandamide

A

The first endogenous endocannabinoid to be discovered and characterized

68
Q

Repetition Priming Tests

A

A test that study the pattern that amnesic patients display severe deficits in explicit memory with no deficits at all in implicit memory.

69
Q

Pituitary Peptides

A

One of the five classes of neuropeptide transmitters; it consists of those first identified as hormones released by the pituitary

69
Q

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test

A

It is a customized test for people with an injury to the frontal lobe. Sorting cards either by color, number or symbol and the patients with frontal lobe damage sort by the way asked before.

70
Q

Hypothalamic Peptides

A

One of the five classes of neuropeptide transmitters; it consists of those first identified as hormones released by the hypothalamus

70
Q

Cognitive Neuroscience

A

Division of biopsychology that focuses on the use of functional brain imaging to study the neural bases of human cognition.

71
Q

Brain-Gut Peptides

A

One of the five classes of neuropeptide transmitters; consists of those first discovered in the gut

71
Q

Constituent Cognitive Processes

A

Each complex cognitive process results from the combined activity of simple cognitive processes.

72
Q

Opioid Peptides

A

One of the five classes of neuropeptide transmitters; it consists of those with a structure similar to the active ingredients of opium

72
Q

Paired-Image Subtraction Technique

A

The use of PET or fMRI to locate constituent processes in the brain by producing an image of the diff in the brain activity associated with two cognitive tasks that differ in terms of a single constituent process.

73
Q

Miscellaneous Peptides

A

One of the five classes of neuropeptide transmitters; it consists of those that don’t fit into the other four classes

73
Q

Species-Common Behaviors

A

Those that are displayed by virtually all members of a species

74
Q

Agonist

A

Drugs that facilitate the effects of a particular neurotransmitter

74
Q

Open-Field Test

A

Subject is placed in a large, barren chamber, and its activity is recorded.

75
Q

Receptor Blockers

A

Antagonistic drugs that bind to postsynaptic receptors without activating them and block the access of the usual neurotransmitter

75
Q

Thigmotaxic

A

The fact that rats rarely venture away from the walls of the test chamber and rarely engage in such activities as rearing or grooming. (fearful rats become this)

76
Q

Nicotine

A

The major psychoactive ingredient of tobacco

76
Q

Colony-Intruder Paradigm

A

Typical patterns of aggression and defensive behavior can be observed and measured during combative encounters between the dominant rat of an established colony and a smaller male intruder.

77
Q

Muscarine

A

A poisonous substance found in some mushrooms

77
Q

Elevated Plus Maze

A

Four armed, plus-sign shaped maze that is a test of defensiveness that is commonly used to study in rats anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing) effects of drugs. Two arms have sides and two do not.

78
Q

Atropine

A

A receptor blocker that exerts an antagonistic effect at muscarinic receptors

78
Q

Lordosis

A

Posture when a female is sexually receptive

79
Q

Curare

A

An extract of a certain class of woody vines

79
Q

Intromission

A

When a male rat inserts his penis

80
Q

Botox

A

Blocks the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions and is used cosmetically to treat wrinkles

80
Q

Ejaculates

A

Ejects his sperm

81
Q

Periaqueductal Gray

A

The gray matter around the cerebral aqueduct, which contains opiate receptors and activates a descending analgesia circuit

81
Q

Lordosis Quotient

A

Proportion of mounts that elicit lordosis

82
Q

Endogenous

A

Naturally occurring in the body

82
Q

Pavlovian Conditioning Paradigm

A

Experimenter pairs an initially neutral stimulus, conditional stimulus, with an unconditioned stimulus?a stimulus that elicits an unconditional response. As a result of these pairings, the conditioned stimulus can elicit a conditional response

83
Q

Enkephalins

A

The first class of endogenous opiods to be discovered

83
Q

Operant Conditioning Paradigm

A

The rate at which a particular voluntary response is emitted is increased by reinforcement or decreased by punishment.

84
Q

Endorphins

A

A class of endogenous opiods

84
Q

Self-Stimulation Paradigm

A

Animals press a lever to deliver electrical stimulation to particular sites in their own brains

85
Q

Pleasure Centers

A

Parts of the brain that support self-stimulation

86
Q

Conditioned Taste Aversion

A

Avoidance response that develops to tastes of food whose consumption has been followed by illness

87
Q

Neophobia

A

Afraid of new things

88
Q

Temporal Contiguity

A

A term that indicates the closeness in time of two or more events. The temporal contiguity of events is important in learning.

89
Q

Principle of Equipotentiality

A

The view that conditioning proceeds in basically the same manner regardless of the particular stimuli and responses under investigation.

90
Q

Radial Arm Maze

A

An array of arms, usually eight arms, radiating from a central starting area. At the end of each arm is a food cup, which may or may not be baited(have food), depending on the purpose of the study.

91
Q

Morris Water Maze

A

Rats are placed in a circular, featureless pool of cool, milky water, in which they must swim until they discover the escape platform. The rats learn to swim directly to the platform by using spatial cues.

92
Q

Conditioned Defensive Burying

A

When rats receive a single aversive object mounted on the wall and the rats respond by flinging bedding material at it.

93
Q

Nanometers

A

Billionths of a meter

94
Q

Infrared Waves

A

Too long for humans to see

95
Q

Wavelength

A

Plays an important role in the perception of color

96
Q

Intensity

A

Plays an important role in the perception of brightness

97
Q

Brightness

A

intensity

98
Q

Sensitivity

A

The ability to detect the presence of dimly lit objects

99
Q

Acuity

A

The ability to see the details of objects

100
Q

Retina

A

Part of the eye where the image falls on (upside down)

101
Q

Pupil

A

Light enters through here- the hole in the iris

Iris and the muscles that gives our eye the color

102
Q

Ciliary Muscles

A

The tension in the ligaments holding each lens in place

103
Q

Accommodation

A

The process of adjusting the configuration of the lenses to bring images into focus on the retina

104
Q

Converge

A

Eyes that turn slightly inward; Greatest when you are inspecting things that are close

105
Q

Binocular Disparity

A

The difference in the position of the same image on two retinas; Can construct 3 dimensional perception

106
Q

Receptors

A

One of the five layers composing the retina; Specialized to receive chemical, mechanical, or radiant signals from the environment

107
Q

Horizontal Cells

A

Type of retinal neurons whose specialized function is lateral communication

108
Q

Bipolar Cells

A

Form the middle layer of the retina

109
Q

Amacrine Cells

A

Type of retinal neurons whose specialized function is lateral communication

110
Q

Blind Spot

A

The gap in the receptor layer for the bundle of retinal ganglion cell axons to leave the eye

111
Q

Fovea

A

Indentation, about .33 centimeters, at the center of the retina

112
Q

Completion

A

Filling in; The visual system uses information provided by the receptors around the blind spot to fill in the gaps in your retinal image

113
Q

Surface Interpolation

A

The process by which we perceive surfaces; The visual system extracts information about edges and from it infers the appearance of large surfaces

114
Q

Cones

A

Visual receptors in the retina that mediate high acuity (ability to see details) color vision in good lighting

115
Q

Rods

A

Visual receptors in the retina that mediate achromatic, low acuity vision under dim light

116
Q

Duplexity Theory

A

Theory that cones and rods mediate different kinds of vision

117
Q

Photopic Vision

A

Gone mediate vision; Predominates in good lighting and provided high-acuity colored perceptions of the world

118
Q

Scotopic Vision

A

dim illumination—there is not enough light to reliably excite the cones; more sensitive than photopic & lacks detail and color; rod mediated

119
Q

Nasal Hemiretina

A

The half of each retina next to the nose

120
Q

Temporal Hemiretina

A

The half next to the temples

121
Q

Spectral Sensitivity Curve

A

Graph of the relative brightness of lights of the same intensity presented at different wavelength

122
Q

Photopic Spectral Sensitivity Curve

A

Photopic spectral sensitivity of humans can be determined by having subjects judge the relative brightness of different wavelengths of light shone on the fovea; A light at 500 nm would have to be much more intense that one at 560 nm to be equally bright

123
Q

Scotopic Spectral Sensitivity Curve

A

Can be determined by asking subjects to judge the relative brightness of different wavelengths of light shone on the periphery of the retina at an intensity too low to activate the few peripheral cones that are located there

124
Q

Purkinje Effect

A

In intense light, red and yellow wavelengths look brighter than blue or green wavelengths of equal intensity; in dim light, blue and green wavelengths look brighter than red and yellow wavelengths of equal intensity

125
Q

Fixational Eye Movements

A

Our eyes continuously moving

126
Q

Saccades

A

Small jerky movements or flicks of the eye

127
Q

Transduction

A

Conversion of one form of energy to the other visual transduction is the conversion of light to neural signals by the visual receptors

128
Q

Pigment

A

Any substance that absorbs light

129
Q

Rhodopsin

A

The photopigment of rods; Absorbs light and bleaches when exposed to intense light; G-Protein that responds to light

130
Q

Bleaching

A

Lose its color

131
Q

Absorption Spectrum

A

A graph of the ability of a substance to absorb light of different wavelengths

132
Q

Retina

A

Geniculate-Striate Pathways - Conduct signals from each retina to the primary visual cortex via the lateral geniculate nuclei

133
Q

Primary Visual Cortex

A

Striate cortex

134
Q

Lateral Geniculate Nuclei

A

The six-layered thalamic structures that receive input from the retinas and transmit their output to the primary visual cortex

135
Q

Retintopic

A

Each level of the retina-geniculate-striate system is organized like a map of the retina

136
Q

Parvocellular Layers

A

Layers composed of neurons with small cell bodies- run through the top four layers through each lateral geniculate nucleus

137
Q

Magnocellular Layers

A

Composed of neurons with large cell bodies—bottom two layers of lateral geniculate nucleus

138
Q

Mach Bands

A

Nonexistent stripes of brightness and darkness running adjacent to the edges –they enhance the contrast at each edge and make it easier to see

139
Q

Contrast Enhancement

A

Every edge we look at is highlighted for us by contrast-enhancing mechanisms of our nervous system; Intensification of the perception of edges

140
Q

Lateral Inhibition

A

When a receptor fires, it inhibits its neighbors via the lateral neural network it spreads laterally across the array of receptors

141
Q

Receptive Field

A

The area of the visual field within which it is possible for a visual stimulus to influence the firing of that neuron

142
Q

Monocular

A

Each neuron had a receptive filed in one eye, but not the other

143
Q

On-Center Cells

A

Respond to lights shone in the central region of their receptive fields with “on” firing and to lights shone in the periphery of their receptive fields with inhibition, followed by “off” firing when the light is turned off

144
Q

Off-Center Cells

A

They respond with inhibition and “off” firing in response to lights in the center of their receptive fields and with “on” firing to lights in the periphery of their receptive fields

145
Q

Simple Cells

A 
Receptive fields (on and off regions) unresponsive to diffuse light; monocular; are straight lines rather than circles
Respond best to bars of light in a dark field, dark bars in a light field, or single straight edges between dark and light areas; Each simple cell preferred straight-edge stimulus is in a particular position and in a particular orientation
146
Q

Complex Cells

A

More numerous than simple cells; Rectangular receptive fields and respond best to straight-line stimuli; Larger receptive fields; Not possible to divide the fields of complex cells into static on or off regions

147
Q

Binocular

A

Responds to stimulation of either eye

148
Q

Ocular Dominance

A

Respond more robustly to stimulation of one eye than they do to the same stimulation of the other (monkeys)

149
Q

Retinal Disparity

A

Some binocular cells fire best when the preferred stimulus is presented to both eyes at the same time, but in slightly different positions on the two retinas; Depth perception

150
Q

Component Theory (trichromatic)

A

There are three different kinds of color receptors, each with a different spectral sensitivity; Mixing together three different wavelengths of light in different proportions (for visual color); The color of any one of them cannot be matched by a mixing of the other two

151
Q

Opponent Process Theory

A

Ewald Hering in 1878; Two different classes of cells in the visual system for encoding color and another class for encoding brightness; Each of the three classes of cells encoded two complementary colors of perception

152
Q

Complementary Colors

A

Pairs of colors that produce white or gray when combined in equal measure (green light and red light)

153
Q

Catecholamines

A

The three neurotransmitter that are synthesized from the amino acid tryrosine dopamine, epinerphrine, and norepinephrine

154
Q

Trichromats

A

Possessing three color vision photo pigments
Color Constancy - the fact that the perceived color of an object is not a simple function of the wavelengths reflected by it ; wavelengths by colored shirt changed, color of shirt did not

155
Q

Retinex Theory

A

the color of an object is determined by its reflectance (proportion of light of different wavelength that a surface reflects)

156
Q

Dual-Opponent Color Cells

A

Monkey visual cortex ; Responds with vigorous on firing when the center of their circular receptive field is illuminated with one wavelength (such as green) and the surround is simultaneously illuminated with another wavelength (red)

157
Q

Cytochrome Oxidase

A

Mitochondrial enzyme- their distribution in the primary visual cortex can be visualized if one stains slices of tissue with stains that have an affinity for this enzyme

158
Q

Blobs

A

Peglike, cytochrome oxidase-rich, dual-opponent color columns

159
Q

Secondary Visual Cortex

A

Those that receive most of their input from the primary visual cortex

160
Q

Visual Association Cortex

A

Those that receive input from areas of secondary visual cortex as well as from the secondary areas of other sensory systems

161
Q

Prestriate Cortex

A

Band of tissue in the occipital lobe that surrounds the primary visual cortex

162
Q

Inferotemporal Cortex

A

Cortex of the inferior temporal lobe

163
Q

Posterior Parietal Cortex

A

Areas of association cortex that receive visual input that is located in several parts of the cerebral cortex

164
Q

Scotoma

A

An area of blindness that occurs from damage to an area of the primary visual cortex

165
Q

Perimetry Test

A

Patient’s head is held motionless on a chin rest, the patient stares with one eye at a fixation point on the screen—press a button when the dot is seen

166
Q

Hemianopsic

’

A

Having a scotoma covering half of the visual field; May see an entire face when they focus on the persons nose, even when the side of the face in the scotoma has been covered by a blank card

167
Q

Conscious Awareness

A

you assume that if a person sees something, he or she will be consciously aware of seeing it

168
Q

Blindsight

A

Ability of such patients to respond to visual stimuli in their scotomas even though they have no conscious awareness of the stimuli

169
Q

Dorsal Stream

A

Flows from the primary visual cortex to the dorsal prestriate cortex to the posterior parietal cortex; Responds to spatial stimuli—location of objects and their direction of movement’

170
Q

Ventral Stream

A

Flows from the primary visual cortex to the ventral prestriate cortex to the inferotemporal cortex; Responds to the characteristics of objects—color and shape, for example

171
Q

“Where” vs. “What” Theory

A

damage to some areas of the cortex may abolish certain aspects of vision while leaving others unaffected—come from the comparison of the specific effects of damage to the dorsal and ventral streams; dorsal stream is involved in the “where” and ventral is involved in the “what”

172
Q

“Control of Behavior” versus “Conscious

A

Perception” Theory - the function of the dorsal stream is to direct behavioral interactions with objects, whereas the function of the ventral stream is to mediate the conscious perception of the objects

173
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Visual agnosia for faces

174
Q

Agnosia

A

Failure of recognition that is not attributable to a sensory deficit or to verbal or intellectual impairment

175
Q

Visual Agnosia

A

A specific agnosia for visual stimuli; Can see visual stimuli, but do not know what they are

176
Q

Movement Agnosia

A

Difficulties in recognizing movement

177
Q

Object Agnosia

A

Difficulties in recognizing objects

178
Q

Color Agnosia

A

Difficulties in recognizing colors
Fusiform Face Area - Damage to the ventral stream in the area of the boundary between the occipital and temporal lobes; Parts of this area are selectively activated by human faces

179
Q

Akinetopsia

A

Deficiency in the ability to see movement progress in a normal smooth fashion
Triggered by high doses of certain antidepressants

Physio 320 (11 decks)

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