Chapter 17 and 18 Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

James-Lange Theory-

A

The theory that emotional experience results from the brains perception of the pattern of autonomic and somatic nervous system responses elicited by emotion inducing sensory stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory-

A

The theory that emotional experience and emotional expression are parallel processes that have no direct causal relation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Decorticate-

A

Lacking a cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sham rage-

A

The exaggerated poorly directed aggressive response of decorticate animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Limbic system-

A

A collection of interconnected nuclei and tracts that borders the thalamus and is widely assumed to play a role in emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome-

A

The syndrome of behavioral changes that is induced in primates by bilateral damage to the anterior temporal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amygdala-

A

A structure in the anterior temporal lobe just anterior to the hippocampus; plays role in emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Polygraphy-

A

A pattern of mate bonding in which one male bondÕs with more than one female; the most prevalent pattern of mate bonding in mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Control-question technique-

A

A lie detection interrogation method in which the polygrapher compares the physiological responses to target questions with the response to control questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Guilty-Knowledge technique-

A

A lie detection method in which the polygrapher records autonomic nervous system responses to a list of control and crime relate information known only to the guilty person and the examiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Facial feedback hypothesis-

A

The hypothesis that our facial expressions can influence how we feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Microexpressions-

A

a brief, involuntary facial expression shown on the face of humans according to emotions experienced. They usually occur in high-stakes situations, where people have something to lose or gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Orbicualris Oculi-

A

facial muscle that is contracted during genuine smiles; encircles the eye and pulls the skin from the cheeks and forehead toward the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Zygomaticus major-

A

facial muscle that is contracted during genuine smiles; controlled voluntarily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Duchenne smile-

A

A genuine smile one that includes contraction of the facial muscles called the orbicularis oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fear-

A

The emotional reaction that is normally elicited by the presences or expectations of threatening stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Defensive behaviors-

A

Behaviors whose primary function is protection from threat or harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aggressive behaviors-

A

Behaviors whose primary function is to threaten or harm other organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Alpha male-

A

The dominant male of a colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Target-site concept-

A

The idea that aggressive and defensive behaviors of an animal are often designed to attack specific sites on the body of another animal while protecting specific sites on its own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Septal aggression/rage

A

The behavior of lesioned rats (they are more aggressive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fear conditioning-

A

Establishing fear of a previously neutral conditional stimulus by pairing it with an aversive unconditioned stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medial geniculate nucleus-

A

The auditory thalamic nuclei that receive input from the inferior colliculi and project to primary auditory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Contextual fear conditioning-

A

The process by which situations come to elicit fear through their association with fear inducing stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hippocampus

A

Affected by stress, plays a role in spacial location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Amygdala complex

A

plays a role in emotion and fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Lateral nucleus of the amygdala

A

The nucleus of the amygdala that plays a role in the acquisition, storage, and expression of conditioned fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prefrontal cortex-

A

The areas of the frontal cortex that are anterior to the frontal motor areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Stress-

A

The physiological response to physical or psychological threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Stressors-

A

Experiences that induce the stress response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-

A

The anterior pituitary hormone that triggers the release of gonadal and adrenal hormones from the adrenal cortices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Glucocorticoids-

A

Steroid hormones that are released from the adrenal cortex in response to stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Adrenal cortex-

A

The outer layer of the adrenal glands which releases glucocorticoids in response to stressors as well as steroid hormones in small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adrenal medulla-

A

The core of each adrenal gland which releases epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cytokines-

A

A group of peptide hormones that are released by many cells and participate in a variety of physiological and immunological responses causing inflammation and a fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Conspecifics-

A

Members of the same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Subordination stress-

A

Stress experienced by animals typically males that are continually attacked by higher ranking conspecifics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dominance hierarchies-

A

members of a social group interact, often aggressively, to create a ranking system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Psychosomatic disorders-

A

Any physical disorder that can be caused or exacerbated by stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gastric ulcers-

A

Painful lesions to the lining of the stomach or duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Psychoneuroimmunology-

A

The study of interactions among psychological factors the nervous system and the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Immune system-

A

The system that protects the body against infectious micro-organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Antigens-

A

Proteins on the surface of cells that identify them as native or foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Innate Immune system-

A

The immune systems first line of defense; it acts near entry points to the body and attacks generic classes of molecules produced by a variety of pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pathogens-

A

Disease-causing agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Adaptive immune system-

A

The division of the immune system that mounts targeted attacks on foreign pathogens by binding to antigens in their cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Vaccination-

A

Administering a weakened form of a virus so that if the virus later invades the adaptive immune system is prepared to deal with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Immunization-

A

The process of creating immunity through vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Toll-like receptors-

A

Receptors found in the cell membranes of many cells of the innate immune system; they trigger phagocytosis and inflammatory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Phagocytes-

A

Cells such as macrophages and microglia that destroy and ingest pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Macrophage-

A

A large phagocyte that plays a role in cell-mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Phagocytosis-

A

The destruction and ingestion of foreign matter by cells in the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lymphocytes-

A

Specialized white blood cells that are produced in bone marrow and play important roles in the bodyÕs immune reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cell-mediated immunity-

A

Directed by T cells, begins when microphage ingest foreign microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T cells-

A

T lymphocytes that bind to foreign micro-organisms and cells that contain them and in doing so destroy them

56
Q

Antibody-Mediated immunity-

A

The immune reaction by which B cells destroy invading micro-organisms that contains an appropriate receptor

57
Q

B cells-

A

B lymphocytes that manufacture antibodies against antigens they encounter

58
Q

Antibodies-

A

Proteins on the surface of cells that identify them as native or foreign

59
Q

T-Reg cells-

A

are a component of the immune system that suppress immune responses of other cells

60
Q

Autoimmune diseases-

A

Diseases that arise when the immune system begins to attack healthy body cells as if they were foreign pathogens (Multiple sclerosis)

61
Q

Epigenetic-

A

Not of the genes; refers to non-genetic means by which traits are passed from parents to offspring

62
Q

Corticosterone-

A

The predominant glucocorticoid in humans

63
Q

Adrenalectomy-

A

surgical removal of the adrenal glands

64
Q

Mirror neurons-

A

Neurons that fire both when a person makes a particular movement and when the person observes somebody else making the same movement

65
Q

Mirror-like system-

A

Areas of the cortex that are active both when a person performs a particular response and when the person perceives somebody else performing the same response

66
Q

Urbach-Wiethe disease-

A

A genetic disorder that often results in the calcification of the amygdala and surrounding brain structures

67
Q

Suppression paradigms

A
  • An experimental method for studying emotion; subjects are asked to inhibit their emotional reactions to unpleasant films or photos while their brain activity is recorded
68
Q

Reappraisal paradigms-

A

An experimental method for studying emotions; subjects are asked to reinterpret a film or photo to change their emotional reaction to it while their brain activity is recorded

69
Q

Psychiatric Disorders- A

A

disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist

70
Q

DSM-IV-TR-

A

The current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, produced by the American Psychiatric Association

71
Q

Schizophrenia-

A

The splitting of psychic functions

72
Q

Positive Symptoms-

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia that are assumed to be caused by increased neural activity (incoherence, hallucinations, and delusions)

73
Q

Negative Symptoms-

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia that are assumed to be caused by brain damage (lack of affect, cognitive deficits, and poverty of speech)

74
Q

Delusions-

A

Delusions of being controlled, delusions of persecution, delusions of grandeur

75
Q

Hallucinations-

A

Imaginary voices telling the person what to do or commenting negatively on the person’s behavior

76
Q

Inappropriate Affect-

A

Failure to react with an appropriate level emotionality to positive or negative events

77
Q

Incoherent Speech or Thought-

A

Illogical thinking, peculiar associations among ideas or belief in supernatural forces

78
Q

Odd Behavior-

A

Long periods with no movement, a lack of personal hygiene, talking in rhymes, avoiding social interaction, echolalia

79
Q

Affective Flattening-

A

Blunted affect is the scientific term describing a lack of emotional

80
Q

Alogia-

A

impairment in speech

81
Q

Avolition-

A

lack of drive and motivation

82
Q

Reserpine-

A

The first monoamine antagonist to be used in the treatment of schizophrenia; the active ingredient of the snakeroot plant

83
Q

Dopamine Theory of Schizophrenia-

A

The theory that schizophrenia is caused by too much dopamine and conversely, that antischizophrenic drugs exert their effects by decreasing dopamine levels

84
Q

Haloperidol-

A

A butyrophenone that was used as an antischizophrenic drug

85
Q

Phenothiazines-

A

A class of antischizophrenic drugs that bind effectively to both D1 and D2 receptors

86
Q

Butyrophenones-

A

A class of antischizophrenic drugs that bind primarily to D2 receptors

87
Q

Neuroleptics-

A

Drugs that alleviate schizophrenia sysmptoms

88
Q

Clozapine-

A

An atypical neuroleptic that is used to treat schizophrenia does not produce Parkisonian side effects and does not have a high affinity for D2 receptors

89
Q

Anhedonia-

A

The inability to experience pleasure

90
Q

Clinical depression-

A

A normal reaction to grievous loss; when depression is excessive, disruptive, and recurring, it is classified as a psychiatric disorder

91
Q

Major Depressive Disorder-

A

Amental disordercharacterized by episodes of all-encompassinglow moodaccompanied by lowself-esteemandloss of interest or pleasurein normally enjoyable activities.

92
Q

Affective Disorder-

A

Psychotic disorder of emotion

93
Q

Mania-

A

An affective disorder in which the patient is overconfident, impulsive, distractible, and highly energetic

94
Q

Mood disorders-

A

elevation or lowering of a person’s mood, such as depression or bipolar disorder.

95
Q

Bipolar Affective Disorder-

A

A disorder of emotion in which the patient experiences periods of mania interspersed with periods of depression

96
Q

Unipolar Affective Disorder-

A

A disorder of emotion in which patient experiences depression but no periods of mania

97
Q

Reactive Depression-

A

Depression triggered by a negative experience

98
Q

Endogenous Depression-

A

Depression with no apparent cause

99
Q

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder-

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder is a type of anxiety disorder. It can occur after you’ve seen or experienced a traumatic event that involved the threat of injury or death.

100
Q

Seasonal Affective Disorder-

A

Type of affective disorder in which attacks of depression and lethargy typically occur every winter, presumably triggered by the reduction in sunlight

101
Q

Postpartum Depression-

A

depression suffered by a mother following childbirth, typically arising from the combination of hormonal changes,

102
Q

MAO Inhibitors-

A

Antidepressant drugs that increase the level of monoamine neurotransmitters by inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidase

103
Q

Cheese Effect-

A

The surges in blood pressure that occur when individuals taking MAO inhibitors consume tyramine-rich foods such as disease

104
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressants-

A

Drugs with an antidepressant action and a three ring molecular structure; they selectively suppress REM sleep

105
Q

Imipramine-

A

the first tricyclic antidepressant drug

106
Q

Prozac- Selective Serotonin-Reuptake Inhibitors-

A

Class of drugs that exert agonistic effects by blocking the reuptake of serotonin from synapses; used to treat depression

107
Q

Prozac-

A

The trade name of fluoxetine, the first selective SSRI developed for treating depression

108
Q

Selective Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors-

A

Reboxetine have been proven to be as effective as the SSRI’s in the treatment of depression

109
Q

Mood Stabilizers-

A

A mood stabilizer is a psychiatric medication used to treat mood disorders characterized by intense and sustained mood shifts

110
Q

Lithium

A

used to treat the manic episodes of manic depression

111
Q

Monoamine Theory of Depression-

A

holds that depression is associated with under activity at serotonergic and adrenergic symptoms

112
Q

Up-Regulation-

A

An increase in the number of receptors for a neurotransmitter in response to decreased release of that neurotransmitter

113
Q

Diathesis-stress model of depression-

A

Some people inherit a diathesis (genetic susceptibility) which is incapable of initiating the disorder itself

114
Q

Anxiety Disorder-

A

Anxiety that is so extreme and so pervasive that it disrupts normal functioning

115
Q

Generalized Anxiety Disorders-

A

Anxiety disorders that are not precipitated by any obvious event

116
Q

Phobic Anxiety Disorders-

A

Anxiety disorders characterized by extreme largely irrational fears of specific objects or situations

117
Q

Agoraphobia-

A

Pathological fear of public places and open spaces

118
Q

Panic Disorders-

A

Anxiety disorders characterized by reoccurring rapid onset attacks of extreme fear and severe symptoms of stress

119
Q

OCD-

A

Anxiety disorders characterized by recurring uncontrollable, anxiety-producing thoughts and impulses

120
Q

Benzodiazepines-

A

GABA agonists with anxiolytic sedative and anticonvulsant properties; drugs such as Librium and Valium

121
Q

Comorbidity-

A

The tendency for two or more diseases to occur together in the same individual

122
Q

Anxiolytic Drugs-

A

Anti-anxiety drugs

123
Q

Elevated-Plus Maze Test-

A

An animal model of anxiety; anxious rats tend to stay in the enclosed arms of the maze rather than venturing onto the open arms

124
Q

Defensive-Burying Test-

A

An animal model of anxiety; anxious rats bury objects that generate anxiety

125
Q

Risk-Assessment Test-

A

An animal of anxiety; anxious rats carefully observe an open environment before venturing into it

126
Q

Tourette Syndrome-

A

disorder of tics

127
Q

Tics-

A

Involuntary, repetitive, stereotyped movements or vocalization

128
Q

Coprolalia-

A

Uttering obscenities

129
Q

Echolalia-

A

Repetition of another’s words

130
Q

Palilalia-

A

Repetition of one’s own words

131
Q

ADHD-

A

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, difficulty focusing on schoolwork

132
Q

Translational Research-

A

Research designed to translate basic scientific discoveries into effective applications

133
Q

Clinical Trials-

A

Studies conducted on human subjects to assess the therapeutic efficacy of an untested drug or other treatment

134
Q

Orphan Drugs-

A

Drugs for which the market is too small for the necessary developmental research to be profitable

135
Q

Translational Bottleneck-

A

A barrier keeping promising ideas and treatments from becoming the focus of translational research; largely created by massive cost of such research