Chapter 63: Seizures Flashcards

1
Q

A 34-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden onset of involuntary movements, sensory phenomena, and confusion. She has a history of recurring seizures. The nurse suspects seizure disorder. What is the most accurate definition of seizure disorder (epilepsy)?

A) A seizure that results from a metabolic imbalance and resolves once the imbalance is corrected.

B) A group of neurologic diseases marked by recurring seizures with no underlying cause.

C) A sudden abnormal discharge of neurons in the brain that happens only once.

D) A disorder marked by uncontrolled seizures that only occur during sleep.

A

B) A group of neurologic diseases marked by recurring seizures with no underlying cause.

Rationale: Seizure disorder (epilepsy) is defined as a group of neurologic diseases characterized by recurring seizures without an apparent underlying cause. Seizures from systemic or metabolic problems are not considered seizure disorder if they stop once the underlying issue is corrected, as stated in the provided text.

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2
Q

A nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with seizure disorder about the frequency and causes of seizures. The nurse explains that seizures may occur with underlying disorders, but they do not qualify as seizure disorder unless certain criteria are met. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of this concept?

A) “I will always have seizures even if my underlying problem is treated.”

B) “Seizures from fever are always considered seizure disorder.”

C) “Seizure disorder is diagnosed after one seizure event.”

D) “Seizures related to metabolic problems do not qualify as seizure disorder if they stop after treatment.”

A

D) “Seizures related to metabolic problems do not qualify as seizure disorder if they stop after treatment.”

Rationale: The text specifies that seizures resulting from systemic or metabolic problems are not classified as seizure disorder if they stop when the underlying problem is corrected. This statement demonstrates a clear understanding of the difference between seizures related to conditions and true seizure disorder.

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3
Q

A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with seizure disorder after experiencing two unprovoked seizures more than 24 hours apart. Which of the following statements best explains the diagnosis criteria for seizure disorder?

A) Seizure disorder is diagnosed after experiencing one unprovoked seizure.
B) Seizure disorder is confirmed only if the seizures are caused by an underlying condition.
C) Seizure disorder is diagnosed after two or more seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart, with no underlying cause.
D) Seizure disorder can be diagnosed if seizures occur only during the day.

A

C) Seizure disorder is diagnosed after two or more seizures that occur more than 24 hours apart, with no underlying cause.

Rationale: As mentioned in the text, the diagnostic criteria for seizure disorder include having two or more seizures that are more than 24 hours apart and not attributable to an underlying cause. This distinguishes seizure disorder from other types of seizures that may result from a reversible condition.

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4
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient experiencing a generalized-onset seizure. The patient exhibits bilateral, synchronous neural discharges and impaired consciousness for several minutes. Which of the following best describes this type of seizure?

A) A seizure that starts in both sides of the brain and is characterized by bilateral motor or nonmotor movements.
B) A seizure originating in one hemisphere of the brain, leading to unilateral motor movements.
C) A seizure limited to nonmotor movements, such as loss of sensation or emotional disturbances.
D) A seizure that only affects the motor functions of one side of the body.

A

A) A seizure that starts in both sides of the brain and is characterized by bilateral motor or nonmotor movements.

Rationale: Generalized-onset seizures start over wide areas of both sides of the brain and are characterized by bilateral, synchronous neural discharges. These seizures can involve motor or nonmotor movements, and they typically cause impaired consciousness for a few seconds to several minutes. This description aligns with the provided text.

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5
Q

A nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with generalized-onset seizures about the nature of the condition. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates an accurate understanding of generalized-onset seizures?

A) “Generalized-onset seizures are always caused by an underlying metabolic disorder.”

B) “I will experience seizures that begin in one hemisphere of my brain and affect only one side of my body.”

C) “Generalized-onset seizures involve both sides of the brain and can cause motor or nonmotor movements.”

D) “I will only experience motor seizures that involve one side of my body during a generalized-onset seizure.”

A

C) “Generalized-onset seizures involve both sides of the brain and can cause motor or nonmotor movements.”

Rationale: Generalized-onset seizures begin in both sides of the brain, as the text explains, and can involve motor or nonmotor movements. The other options are incorrect as generalized seizures involve both hemispheres and may have either motor or nonmotor manifestations.

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6
Q

A 28-year-old patient with a history of generalized-onset seizures reports a seizure episode characterized by bilateral, jerking movements and a loss of consciousness lasting for several minutes. Based on the description, which type of seizure is most likely occurring?

A) Focal-onset seizure with impaired awareness
B) Generalized-onset nonmotor seizure
C) Generalized-onset motor seizure
D) Focal-onset seizure with retained awareness

A

C) Generalized-onset motor seizure

Rationale: The description of bilateral, jerking movements and impaired consciousness lasting for several minutes indicates a generalized-onset motor seizure. Generalized motor seizures involve bilateral movements, and the loss of consciousness is a hallmark feature of these types of seizures, as outlined in the text.

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7
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient who is recovering from a tonic-clonic seizure. The patient reports feeling extremely tired and sore after the seizure and mentions that they do not remember the event. Which phase of the seizure is the patient most likely experiencing?

A) Ictal phase
B) Postictal phase
C) Preictal phase
D) Aura phase

A

B) Postictal phase

Rationale: The postictal phase occurs after the seizure ends and is characterized by muscle soreness, fatigue, and sometimes confusion or a prolonged period of sleep. The patient’s lack of memory of the seizure is also a hallmark of the postictal phase. The other phases (ictal, preictal, and aura) occur before or during the seizure itself.

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8
Q

A nurse is educating a patient’s family members about the signs and symptoms of a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following should the nurse include as a common manifestation during the tonic phase?

A) Jerking movements of the extremities
B) Loss of consciousness and falling to the ground
C) Muscle stiffness lasting for 10 to 20 seconds
D) Excessive salivation and incontinence

A

C) Muscle stiffness lasting for 10 to 20 seconds

Rationale: During the tonic phase of a tonic-clonic seizure, the patient experiences muscle stiffness, which lasts for 10 to 20 seconds. This is followed by the clonic phase, characterized by jerking movements. The other symptoms (jerking movements, loss of consciousness, salivation, and incontinence) occur later in the seizure process.

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9
Q

A 40-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital following a tonic-clonic seizure. The nurse notes that the patient is cyanotic, has excessive salivation, and is unable to recall the seizure. What is the most likely explanation for the patient’s cyanosis?

A) Decreased oxygenation due to muscle stiffening and respiratory difficulty during the seizure
B) An allergic reaction to medications taken during the postictal phase
C) A side effect of the seizure medication causing respiratory depression
D) Dehydration resulting in poor circulation

A

A) Decreased oxygenation due to muscle stiffening and respiratory difficulty during the seizure

Rationale: Cyanosis during a tonic-clonic seizure is typically caused by decreased oxygenation, which occurs due to muscle stiffening (tonic phase) and respiratory difficulty. The body may have difficulty breathing normally during the seizure, leading to oxygen deprivation. The other options are less likely to be related to the cause of cyanosis in this context.

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who has just experienced a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize immediately following the seizure?

A) Offer the patient food and drink to prevent dehydration.
B) Ensure the patient’s airway is clear and assess for breathing.
C) Administer the prescribed antiepileptic medication.
D) Provide education about avoiding triggers for seizures.

A

B) Ensure the patient’s airway is clear and assess for breathing.

Rationale: After a tonic-clonic seizure, it is crucial to ensure the patient’s airway is clear and to assess for breathing, as the patient may experience respiratory difficulties during and immediately following the seizure. This is the highest priority intervention to prevent airway obstruction or other respiratory complications. The other actions (administering medications, offering food, or providing education) are important but should not take precedence over ensuring airway patency.

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11
Q

A 60-year-old male patient with a history of tonic-clonic seizures presents to the clinic for follow-up care. He asks the nurse about the duration of his postictal phase. Which of the following statements by the nurse is most accurate based on the text provided?

A) “You will likely feel tired and sore, but this phase usually only lasts a few minutes.”
B) “The postictal phase can last for several hours, and you may feel tired or confused for days.”
C) “The postictal phase is very brief, typically lasting less than 30 minutes.”
D) “You should not experience any symptoms after the seizure ends.”

A

B) “The postictal phase can last for several hours, and you may feel tired or confused for days.”

Rationale: The postictal phase can last for several hours, with the patient often feeling tired, sore, and confused. In some cases, patients do not feel normal for several days after a tonic-clonic seizure. This phase is marked by fatigue and muscle soreness, as well as a lack of memory of the seizure.

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12
Q

A nurse is educating a family member about the possible complications of tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following should the nurse include as a potential complication during a tonic-clonic seizure?

A) Dehydration from excessive sweating
B) Decreased blood pressure during the clonic phase
C) Increased heart rate during the tonic phase
D) Tongue or cheek biting

A

D) Tongue or cheek biting

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, patients may experience tongue or cheek biting due to involuntary muscle contractions and jaw clenching. The other complications listed (dehydration, blood pressure changes, and increased heart rate) are not commonly associated with the tonic-clonic seizure phases as described in the provided text.

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13
Q

A 32-year-old patient is diagnosed with tonic seizures, which are described as causing sudden stiff movements in the body. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of tonic seizures?

A) The seizure usually occurs while the patient is awake and involves rhythmic limb jerking.

B) The patient remains aware during the seizure, and the seizure typically lasts less than 20 seconds.

C) The seizure causes loss of consciousness followed by clonic movements of the extremities.

D) The seizure involves a sudden loss of muscle tone and may cause the patient to fall.

A

B) The patient remains aware during the seizure, and the seizure typically lasts less than 20 seconds.

Rationale: Tonic seizures are characterized by sudden stiffening movements due to increased tone in the extensor muscles, and they usually last less than 20 seconds. Patients typically remain aware during the seizure, and the seizure most often occurs during sleep. The other options do not accurately describe tonic seizures as they focus on other seizure types.

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14
Q

A nurse is educating a family member about clonic seizures. Which of the following characteristics should the nurse include in the teaching?

A) Clonic seizures cause rhythmic limb jerking and may or may not be symmetric.
B) Clonic seizures begin with increased muscle tone and cause stiffening of the body.
C) Clonic seizures cause a sudden loss of muscle tone and typically last for several minutes.
D) Clonic seizures cause patients to remain aware and fully conscious during the episode.

A

A) Clonic seizures cause rhythmic limb jerking and may or may not be symmetric.

Rationale: Clonic seizures are characterized by rhythmic limb jerking that may or may not be symmetric. These seizures begin with a loss of awareness and are distinct from tonic seizures, which involve stiffening, and atonic seizures, which cause loss of tone. The other options do not accurately describe clonic seizures.

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15
Q

A 45-year-old patient with generalized-onset motor seizures reports experiencing episodes where they suddenly lose muscle tone and fall to the ground, but the seizures are brief and last only a few seconds. The patient is also confused for a brief time afterward. Which of the following types of seizures does this describe?

A) Tonic seizure
B) Clonic seizure
C) Atonic seizure
D) Myoclonic seizure

A

C) Atonic seizure

Rationale: Atonic seizures, also known as drop attacks, are characterized by a sudden and brief loss of muscle tone, which can result in the patient falling to the ground. These seizures last only a few seconds, and there is brief postictal confusion. Atonic seizures often require protective helmets due to the risk of head injury. The other seizure types do not match the characteristics described.

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16
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with generalized-onset tonic seizures that occur during sleep. The nurse understands that the patient is at risk for which of the following complications due to the nature of the seizures?

A) Dehydration due to excessive sweating during seizures
B) Falling and injury if the patient is standing at the time of the seizure
C) Respiratory arrest due to tonic muscle contraction
D) Prolonged postictal confusion leading to coma

A

B) Falling and injury if the patient is standing at the time of the seizure

Rationale: Tonic seizures cause sudden stiffening of the body, and since they most often occur during sleep, the patient may fall if standing at the time of the seizure. The other options do not align with the characteristics of tonic seizures as described in the text.

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17
Q

A nurse is preparing to educate a patient diagnosed with atonic seizures about the need for safety precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

A) “You will need to avoid high-impact activities to prevent fractures.”
B) “You will need to wear a protective helmet to minimize the risk of head injury.”
C) “You should engage in regular aerobic exercise to strengthen your muscles.”
D) “There is no need for special precautions because the seizures are brief.”

A

B) “You will need to wear a protective helmet to minimize the risk of head injury.”

Rationale: Atonic seizures (drop attacks) involve a sudden loss of muscle tone, which increases the risk of falling and head injury. To prevent injury, it is recommended that patients wear protective helmets. The other options are not specifically relevant to preventing injury in patients with atonic seizures.

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18
Q

A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents for evaluation of episodes of staring and unresponsiveness. The episodes last for about 10 seconds and occur multiple times a day. The child does not respond when spoken to during the episodes but recovers quickly afterward. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Tonic-clonic seizure
B) Atonic seizure
C) Absence seizure
D) Complex partial seizure

A

C) Absence seizure

Rationale: The child’s presentation of brief staring spells, lack of response to verbal stimuli, and quick recovery is characteristic of absence seizures, which are most common in children and last less than 20 seconds. These seizures are often unnoticed due to their brief duration. The other seizure types (tonic-clonic, atonic, and complex partial) present with different characteristics and symptoms.

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19
Q

A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with atypical absence seizures. The parents are concerned because they have noticed the child engaging in repetitive finger movements and eye blinking during the episodes. Which of the following is true regarding atypical absence seizures?

A) Atypical absence seizures usually last less than 10 seconds.

B) Atypical absence seizures begin and end abruptly, with no gradual changes in the seizure activity.

C) Atypical absence seizures often last up to 30 seconds and may be associated with automatisms.

D) Atypical absence seizures are not associated with cognitive problems or behavioral changes.

A

C) Atypical absence seizures often last up to 30 seconds and may be associated with automatism.

Rationale: Atypical absence seizures typically last longer than typical absence seizures, up to 30 seconds, and can involve automatisms such as eye blinking, jerking movements of the lips, or repetitive finger movements. These seizures may have a gradual onset and end, and if the patient has existing cognitive problems, the seizure activity may be difficult to distinguish from usual behavior.

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20
Q

A 7-year-old girl is experiencing absence seizures that often go unnoticed because of their brief duration and the subtle nature of the symptoms. What is the most likely reason why these seizures might not be detected?

A) The child remains conscious during the seizure.
B) The child does not show any physical signs of the seizure.
C) The seizures last for less than 10 to 20 seconds.
D) The child only experiences the seizure during sleep.

A

C) The seizures last for less than 10 to 20 seconds.

Rationale: Absence seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 10 to 20 seconds, and often go unnoticed because of their subtle nature. The child remains conscious but unresponsive, which makes it easy to mistake the seizure for daydreaming. The brief duration and lack of physical signs also contribute to the difficulty in detecting the seizure.

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21
Q

A nurse is educating the parents of a 5-year-old child diagnosed with absence seizures. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the potential course of absence seizures?

A) Absence seizures will always resolve by the time the child reaches adolescence.

B) Absence seizures are more common in boys and usually start between ages 10 and 12.

C) Absence seizures typically begin between the ages of 4 and 8 and may stop as the child matures.

D) Absence seizures are most likely to evolve into tonic-clonic seizures as the child grows older.

A

C) Absence seizures typically begin between the ages of 4 and 8 and may stop as the child matures.

Rationale: Absence seizures typically begin between ages 4 and 8 and are more common in girls. In many cases, these seizures may stop as the child matures. However, some children may experience these seizures into adulthood or may transition into another type of seizure. The other options are inaccurate based on the typical course of absence seizures.

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22
Q

An 8-year-old child with a history of atypical absence seizures is being evaluated for cognitive problems. The nurse should consider that the child’s cognitive difficulties may make it difficult to distinguish seizure activity from what?

A) Daydreaming or normal behavior
B) Tonic-clonic seizures
C) Sleep disturbances
D) Hyperactivity and impulsiveness

A

A) Daydreaming or normal behavior

Rationale: Atypical absence seizures may be difficult to differentiate from daydreaming or normal behavior, especially in children with existing cognitive problems. The child may appear to be engaging in normal activities or behavior, which can make the seizure activity go unnoticed. The other options do not fit the scenario as described.

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23
Q

A 12-year-old child with atypical absence seizures continues to experience episodes into adolescence. Which of the following is a characteristic of atypical absence seizures that may persist into adulthood?

A) The seizures always resolve by adolescence.
B) The seizures typically stop suddenly without warning.
C) The seizures may evolve into generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
D) The seizures often include additional symptoms like automatisms, such as lip jerking or finger movements.

A

D) The seizures often include additional symptoms like automatisms, such as lip jerking or finger movements.

Rationale: Atypical absence seizures often include additional symptoms such as automatisms, including lip jerking, eye blinking, or repetitive finger movements. These seizures may continue into adulthood and have a more gradual onset and end compared to typical absence seizures. The other options are not consistent with the characteristics of atypical absence seizures.

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24
Q

A 40-year-old patient is experiencing a focal-onset seizure characterized by sudden, unexplainable feelings of joy and seeing things that are not real. The patient remains conscious and aware throughout the episode. Which of the following terms best describes this type of seizure?

A) Focal impaired awareness seizure
B) Focal awareness seizure
C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
D) Atonic seizure

A

B) Focal awareness seizure

Rationale: A focal awareness seizure is characterized by the patient being conscious and alert but experiencing unusual feelings or sensations, such as joy or hallucinations. The patient is aware of their surroundings but may perceive things that are not real. The other options do not fit the description of the seizure type.

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25
Q

A patient experiences rhythmic jerking of the limbs as a result of a focal-onset seizure. The neurologist suspects the discharging focus is in the motor cortex. Which of the following types of motor focal seizures is most likely occurring?

A) Atonic seizure
B) Clonic seizure
C) Myoclonic seizure
D) Tonic seizure

A

B) Clonic seizure

Rationale: Clonic seizures are characterized by rhythmic jerking movements, typically in the limbs. These seizures result from discharges in the motor cortex. Atonic seizures involve loss of muscle tone, tonic seizures involve sustained stiffening, and myoclonic seizures involve rapid, irregular jerking.

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26
Q

A patient experiences a focal-onset seizure with a sudden loss of awareness and engages in repetitive, purposeless actions, such as lip smacking and picking at clothes. The patient’s eyes are open, but they cannot interact with others. After the seizure, they cannot recall their actions. Which of the following is the most likely type of seizure?

A) Focal impaired awareness seizure
B) Focal awareness seizure
C) Absence seizure
D) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure

A

A) Focal impaired awareness seizure

Rationale: Focal impaired awareness seizures are characterized by a loss of consciousness or a change in awareness, leading to a dreamlike state. The patient may engage in repetitive, purposeless actions, such as lip smacking or picking at clothes, and they will not remember these actions afterward.

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27
Q

A 25-year-old woman experiences focal-onset seizures involving a sensation of nausea and a feeling of sudden sadness, but she is fully conscious and alert throughout the episode. Which of the following types of seizures best describes her condition?

A) Focal awareness seizure
B) Focal impaired awareness seizure
C) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
D) Atonic seizure

A

A) Focal awareness seizure

Rationale: Focal awareness seizures are characterized by unusual feelings or sensations while the patient remains conscious and alert. The patient may experience emotions like sadness or physical sensations, such as nausea, but they maintain full awareness during the episode.

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28
Q

A patient with a focal-onset seizure experiences brief, irregular jerking movements in their arm and leg. This type of seizure is most likely caused by abnormal electrical discharges in which area of the brain?

A) Temporal lobe
B) Occipital lobe
C) Motor cortex
D) Parietal lobe

A

C) Motor cortex

Rationale: Motor seizures, such as those involving rhythmic jerking or brief, irregular movements, are typically caused by abnormal electrical discharges in the motor cortex. The motor cortex controls voluntary movements of the limbs, so discharges in this area can lead to motor manifestations like jerking.

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29
Q

A 35-year-old patient experiences focal-onset seizures that result in emotional manifestations, including sudden feelings of anger and fear. The patient is aware during the seizure but cannot explain the intensity of the emotions. Which of the following would be the most likely underlying cause of these seizures?

A) Temporal lobe dysfunction
B) Occipital lobe dysfunction
C) Parietal lobe dysfunction
D) Frontal lobe dysfunction

A

A) Temporal lobe dysfunction

Rationale: The temporal lobe is often involved in seizures that cause emotional manifestations, such as sudden feelings of anger, fear, or other intense emotions. These emotional disturbances are commonly seen in focal seizures originating from the temporal lobe, especially in cases of focal awareness seizures.

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30
Q

A patient with focal-onset seizures exhibits strange, purposeless behavior, such as repeatedly rubbing their hands together and picking at their clothes. What is the medical term for these types of actions during a seizure?

A) Automatisms
B) Myoclonus
C) Ataxia
D) Dysphagia

A

A) Automatisms

Rationale: Automatisms are repetitive, purposeless actions, such as lip smacking, hand rubbing, or picking at clothes, that may occur during a focal-onset seizure. These behaviors are often associated with focal seizures, particularly those with impaired awareness.

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31
Q

A nurse is educating a family about the possible behaviors exhibited during a focal impaired awareness seizure. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

A) The patient remains fully aware and can interact with others.
B) The patient will be unresponsive and may lose consciousness.
C) The patient may perform purposeful activities, such as counting coins, but will have no memory of the activity afterward.
D) The patient’s body will stiffen and remain rigid throughout the seizure.

A

C) The patient may perform purposeful activities, such as counting coins, but will have no memory of the activity afterward.

Rationale: In focal impaired awareness seizures, the patient may appear to perform purposeful activities, like counting coins or picking up items, but they are not consciously aware of their actions. They typically do not remember the activities performed during the seizure once it ends.

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32
Q

A 30-year-old patient is experiencing focal-onset seizures that involve strange, intense emotional feelings, such as sudden joy or anger, accompanied by localized twitching in the hand. Which of the following brain regions is most likely the origin of the seizure activity?

A) Occipital lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Frontal lobe
D) Parietal lobe

A

B) Temporal lobe

Rationale: The temporal lobe is responsible for emotional processing, and seizures originating from this area can cause strange emotional manifestations, such as sudden feelings of joy or anger. The localized twitching in the hand may also indicate motor involvement related to the temporal lobe’s motor pathways.

33
Q

A 28-year-old patient experiences a focal-onset seizure and afterward reports feeling confused and tired. They are unable to return to normal activities for several hours. Which phase of the seizure process does this represent?

A) Aura
B) Ictal phase
C) Postictal phase
D) Preictal phase

A

C) Postictal phase

Rationale: The postictal phase occurs after the seizure, during which the patient may experience confusion, tiredness, and difficulty returning to normal activity. This phase can last from minutes to hours, depending on the individual and the seizure’s intensity. The other phases (aura, ictal, and preictal) refer to different times in the seizure process.

34
Q

A patient is experiencing a seizure that lasts for 6 minutes, during which they do not regain consciousness between episodes. Which of the following conditions best describes this situation?

A) Convulsive status epilepticus
B) Subclinical status epilepticus
C) Nonconvulsive status epilepticus
D) Status epilepticus

A

D) Status epilepticus

Rationale: Status epilepticus (SE) is defined as a seizure lasting longer than 5 minutes or occurring so close together that the patient cannot recover between them. This situation fits the definition of SE. Convulsive SE specifically refers to prolonged tonic-clonic seizures, while nonconvulsive and subclinical SE involve different manifestations.

35
Q

A 65-year-old patient is admitted with status epilepticus following a stroke. The patient has not had a history of seizures. What is the most likely contributing factor to this patient’s SE?

A) Stroke
B) History of seizures
C) Low therapeutic levels of seizure medications
D) Metabolic disorders

A

A) Stroke

Rationale: Stroke is one of the most common causes of status epilepticus (SE) in adults. SE can occur with any type of seizure, but in this case, the patient’s stroke is the most likely contributing factor. Low therapeutic levels of seizure medications and metabolic disorders can also contribute but are less specific to this case.

36
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient in status epilepticus. Which of the following is the primary goal of therapy in this condition?

A) Prevent respiratory insufficiency
B) Rapidly end clinical and electrical seizure activity
C) Ensure adequate sedation
D) Monitor for hypoxemia

A

B) Rapidly end clinical and electrical seizure activity

Rationale: The primary goal of therapy in status epilepticus (SE) is to rapidly end both clinical and electrical seizure activity to prevent neuronal damage. While respiratory insufficiency, hypoxemia, and sedation are important considerations, the main objective is to stop the seizures quickly.

37
Q

A patient with convulsive status epilepticus (CSE) has been seizing for 8 minutes. Which of the following complications is the patient most at risk for if treatment is not initiated promptly?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Metabolic alkalosis
C) Respiratory insufficiency and systemic acidosis
D) Electrolyte imbalance only

A

C) Respiratory insufficiency and systemic acidosis

Rationale: If treatment is not initiated promptly in convulsive status epilepticus (CSE), the patient is at risk for complications such as respiratory insufficiency, hypoxemia, dysrhythmias, hyperthermia, and systemic acidosis due to prolonged seizure activity. These complications can result from the body’s inability to supply enough energy to meet the brain’s demands during continuous seizure activity.

38
Q

A 45-year-old patient with nonconvulsive status epilepticus (NCSE) is exhibiting subtle symptoms that are difficult to differentiate from recovery signs. Which of the following is the most likely manifestation of NCSE?

A) Rhythmic jerking of the limbs
B) Sudden loss of consciousness with tonic-clonic movements
C) Long or repeated focal impaired awareness seizures
D) Complete loss of motor function

A

C) Long or repeated focal impaired awareness seizures

Rationale: Nonconvulsive status epilepticus (NCSE) involves long or repeated focal impaired awareness seizures, which may present with subtle symptoms that are hard to distinguish from recovery signs. This makes it difficult to recognize seizure activity in NCSE, unlike more overt motor manifestations like rhythmic jerking or tonic-clonic movements.

39
Q

A 50-year-old patient continues to experience continuous seizure activity despite receiving both first- and second-line therapies. Which condition is most likely occurring?

A) Subclinical status epilepticus
B) Refractory status epilepticus
C) Status epilepticus
D) Super refractory status epilepticus

A

B) Refractory status epilepticus

Rationale: Refractory status epilepticus (RSE) is defined as continuous seizure activity despite administration of first- and second-line therapies. It has a high risk of mortality and neurologic damage. Super refractory SE refers to seizures that persist despite anesthesia treatment, and subclinical SE refers to seizures without external signs in sedated patients.

40
Q

A patient who underwent surgery is sedated and placed on a ventilator in the ICU. The medical team suspects the patient may be experiencing subclinical seizures. Which of the following best describes subclinical status epilepticus?

A) Seizures with visible motor activity despite sedation
B) Continuous tonic-clonic seizures without a recovery phase
C) Seizures accompanied by loss of consciousness but no physical signs
D) Seizures without external signs due to sedative use

A

D) Seizures without external signs due to sedative use

Rationale: Subclinical status epilepticus refers to seizures that occur in sedated patients and do not exhibit external signs of seizure activity because of the sedative’s effects. This type of SE is often missed in patients receiving sedation, such as those on a ventilator in the ICU.

41
Q

A patient is being treated for status epilepticus. The nurse is aware that without effective and prompt treatment, prolonged seizures can lead to which of the following outcomes?

A) Permanent brain damage
B) Increased cerebral blood flow
C) Enhanced neuronal function
D) Improved recovery time

A

A) Permanent brain damage

Rationale: Without effective and prompt treatment, prolonged seizure activity can lead to neuronal exhaustion and permanent brain damage. The longer a seizure lasts, the less likely it is to stop without drug therapy, and this can have lasting negative effects on the brain’s function.

42
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be prescribed as the first-line treatment for this type of seizure?

A) Ethosuximide (Zarontin)
B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
C) Levetiracetam (Keppra)
D) Clonazepam (Klonopin)

A

B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Rationale: Phenytoin is one of the first-line drugs used to treat tonic-clonic seizures. It stabilizes nerve cell membranes to prevent the spread of epileptic discharge. The other drugs listed are used for other types of seizures, such as absence or myoclonic seizures.

43
Q

A patient with generalized onset nonmotor seizures has been prescribed ethosuximide (Zarontin). What is the primary reason for this medication choice?

A) It treats tonic-clonic seizures.
B) It is most effective for focal-onset seizures.
C) It is the drug of choice for generalized onset nonmotor seizures.
D) It provides rapid control of status epilepticus.

A

C) It is the drug of choice for generalized onset nonmotor seizures.

Rationale: Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for generalized onset nonmotor seizures, such as absence seizures. It works by stabilizing the nerve cell membranes to prevent epileptic discharge. The other drugs listed are used for different types of seizures.

44
Q

A patient with seizure disorder is started on carbamazepine (Tegretol). The nurse teaches the patient about the importance of maintaining a therapeutic drug level. What is the purpose of monitoring this drug level?

A) To ensure the drug is in the therapeutic range for seizure control
B) To identify if the drug is causing renal toxicity
C) To assess for liver function disturbances
D) To evaluate the effectiveness of seizure control

A

A) To ensure the drug is in the therapeutic range for seizure control

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) has a specific therapeutic range. It is important to monitor the drug level to ensure it is within this range to prevent seizures while avoiding toxic side effects. Drug levels outside the therapeutic range may cause poor seizure control or toxicity.

45
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with medically refractory epilepsy. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient’s condition?

A) Seizures are usually well-controlled with a single drug.
B) The patient will likely be prescribed multiple drugs to achieve seizure control.
C) The patient’s seizures will resolve without medication.
D) The patient should be managed with long-term use of a single antiseizure medication.

A

B) The patient will likely be prescribed multiple drugs to achieve seizure control.

Rationale: Approximately one-third of patients with epilepsy do not respond to a single antiseizure drug. These patients often require combination therapy to control seizures effectively. Medically refractory epilepsy is characterized by the lack of seizure control with monotherapy.

46
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who requires rapid seizure control in a case of status epilepticus. Which medication would the nurse expect to be administered first?

A) Lorazepam IV
B) Fosphenytoin
C) Phenytoin
D) Midazolam buccal

A

A) Lorazepam IV

Rationale: Lorazepam is a first-line treatment for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action. It is preferred for IV administration during seizures. After lorazepam, a long-acting drug like fosphenytoin is typically administered to maintain seizure control.

47
Q

A nurse is educating a patient with seizure disorder about the side effects of antiseizure drugs. Which of the following side effects is most commonly associated with the use of these medications?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Vision changes and ataxia
C) Hypertension
D) Respiratory depression

A

B) Vision changes and ataxia

Rationale: Antiseizure drugs often cause central nervous system (CNS) side effects such as vision changes, drowsiness, ataxia, and mental slowness. These side effects are commonly seen with drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproate.

48
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient on carbamazepine (Tegretol) therapy for focal seizures. Which of the following actions is essential for monitoring the patient for potential side effects of this medication?

A) Checking the patient’s blood glucose levels regularly
B) Checking the patient’s serum calcium levels
C) Monitoring for nystagmus and evaluating gait coordination
D) Assessing for changes in the patient’s vision

A

C) Monitoring for nystagmus and evaluating gait coordination

Rationale: For patients on carbamazepine therapy, it is important to monitor for dose-related toxicity, which may include nystagmus (rapid eye movements), gait coordination issues, and other CNS effects like ataxia. This helps ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range.

49
Q

A nurse is teaching a patient with focal seizures about their prescribed medication regimen. The patient is taking pregabalin (Lyrica) for focal aware or impaired awareness seizures. Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan?

A) “You may experience drowsiness or dizziness; avoid activities that require alertness.”
B) “Take your medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.”
C) “This medication is curative for your seizures, and you can stop it once you feel better.”
D) “This medication has no significant side effects and can be safely increased as needed.”

A

A) “You may experience drowsiness or dizziness; avoid activities that require alertness.”

Rationale: Pregabalin (Lyrica) is an anticonvulsant that can cause CNS side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Patients should be cautioned about performing activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the drug affects them.

50
Q

A patient with seizure disorder has been prescribed a combination of anticonvulsant drugs. Which of the following is the most important nursing consideration when administering multiple seizure medications?

A) Ensuring the patient’s adherence to the drug regimen
B) Monitoring the patient’s blood glucose levels
C) Restricting the patient’s fluid intake
D) Monitoring the patient’s liver function tests

A

A) Ensuring the patient’s adherence to the drug regimen

Rationale: Patients on combination therapy for seizure disorders need to adhere strictly to their medication regimen to ensure adequate seizure control. Monitoring for drug interactions, side effects, and adherence is key to successful treatment.

51
Q

Which of the following medications is typically used to treat generalized onset myoclonic seizures?

A) Phenytoin
B) Lamotrigine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Clonazepam

A

D) Clonazepam

Rationale: Clonazepam is commonly used for the treatment of generalized onset myoclonic seizures. It is effective in controlling the sudden jerking movements characteristic of myoclonic seizures.

52
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient with status epilepticus. After administering lorazepam IV, the nurse anticipates the next step in therapy will involve which of the following medications?

A) Lorazepam IV
B) Midazolam intranasal
C) Fosphenytoin IV
D) Phenytoin oral

A

C) Fosphenytoin IV

Rationale: After administering lorazepam for rapid seizure control in status epilepticus, a long-acting drug like fosphenytoin is often given to maintain seizure control. Fosphenytoin has a longer duration of action than lorazepam.

53
Q

A nurse is teaching a patient who is newly diagnosed with seizure disorder about medication therapy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding the use of antiseizure drugs?

A) “You should take your medication only when you feel a seizure coming on.”
B) “Your medication will cure your seizures, and you can stop it once you’re feeling better.”
C) “Take your medication exactly as prescribed, even if you don’t experience seizures regularly.”
D) “You can skip a dose if you’re feeling well.”

A

C) “Take your medication exactly as prescribed, even if you don’t experience seizures regularly.”

Rationale: It is essential that patients with seizure disorders take their medication exactly as prescribed, even if they do not experience seizures regularly. This helps prevent breakthrough seizures and ensures consistent drug levels for effective seizure control.

54
Q

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse monitors for potential toxic side effects of this drug. Which of the following findings is most likely to indicate a toxic effect of phenytoin?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Nystagmus and ataxia
C) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping
D) Weight gain and edema

A

B) Nystagmus and ataxia

Rationale: Nystagmus (rapid eye movements) and ataxia (lack of coordination) are common signs of phenytoin toxicity. These are CNS-related side effects that are dose-dependent and indicate the need for dose adjustments. Nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal symptoms are also common side effects but are not specifically indicative of toxicity.

55
Q

A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving long-term anticonvulsant therapy. Which of the following assessments is most important for monitoring the effects of these medications?

A) Checking for signs of liver or renal dysfunction
B) Monitoring for signs of GI bleeding
C) Assessing for respiratory depression
D) Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia

A

A) Checking for signs of liver or renal dysfunction

Rationale: Long-term use of anticonvulsant medications, such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproate, can affect liver and renal function. Regular monitoring of liver and kidney function tests is essential to detect any potential toxicity or dysfunction caused by these drugs.

56
Q

A patient with a seizure disorder is being discharged. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to prevent seizures?

A) Encourage the patient to restrict fluid intake
B) Suggest avoiding excess alcohol use and fatigue
C) Recommend frequent naps throughout the day
D) Advise the patient to eat large meals to prevent hypoglycemia

A

B) Suggest avoiding excess alcohol use and fatigue

Rationale: Avoiding excess alcohol use and fatigue is essential for seizure management as these factors can increase the risk of seizures. Proper rest and hydration are important, but large meals and restricting fluid intake are not directly related to seizure prevention.

57
Q

Which of the following is the most important aspect of assessment during a seizure episode?

A) Checking for a pulse deficit
B) Recording the time the seizure begins and ends
C) Noting the patient’s blood pressure during the seizure
D) Assessing the patient’s nutritional intake

A

B) Recording the time the seizure begins and ends

Rationale: Recording the duration of a seizure is critical for assessing the severity and determining if it requires intervention. Other factors, such as blood pressure, are secondary to the timing and nature of the seizure.

58
Q

A patient with a history of seizure disorder is admitted after a prolonged seizure. Which of the following clinical problems is most likely to occur during the postictal phase?

A) Impaired respiratory function
B) Risk for dehydration
C) Increased risk of infection
D) Difficulty swallowing

A

A) Impaired respiratory function

Rationale: During the postictal phase, patients may experience respiratory dysfunction due to the effects of the seizure on breathing patterns, such as altered or shallow breathing.

59
Q

When observing a seizure, the nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?

A) Maintaining patient privacy
B) Administering pain medication
C) Ensuring the patient’s safety
D) Recording the patient’s vital signs every minute

A

C) Ensuring the patient’s safety

Rationale: The immediate priority during a seizure is patient safety. This includes preventing injury and protecting the airway. Administering pain medication is not a priority during the seizure itself.

60
Q

Which of the following is the nurse’s priority when a patient experiences a seizure?

A) Place the patient in a prone position
B) Hold the patient’s tongue to prevent biting
C) Protect the patient from injury
D) Give the patient fluids to prevent dehydration

A

C) Protect the patient from injury

Rationale: The priority during a seizure is to prevent injury. This involves moving objects out of the way and ensuring the patient’s head and body are supported. The tongue should never be held, and fluids should not be given until the patient is conscious and able to swallow.

61
Q

A patient with seizure disorder is having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Which phase of the seizure should the nurse observe for incontinence, excessive salivation, or cyanosis?

A) Aura phase
B) Ictal phase
C) Postictal phase
D) Prodromal phase

A

B) Ictal phase

Rationale: During the ictal phase, which is the active phase of the seizure, patients may experience symptoms like incontinence, excessive salivation, and cyanosis due to altered muscle control and breathing patterns.

62
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had several seizures. What is the most important factor in determining the appropriate antiseizure medication for the patient?

A) The frequency and type of seizures
B) The patient’s age
C) The presence of comorbidities
D) The patient’s gender

A

A) The frequency and type of seizures

Rationale: The type and frequency of seizures are critical in determining the appropriate medication. While age and comorbidities may also influence drug choice, seizure type and frequency are the primary considerations.

63
Q

A patient is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure, and the nurse is providing care. Which action should the nurse take first?

A) Note the time the seizure started
B) Protect the patient’s airway
C) Administer the prescribed seizure medication
D) Attempt to restrain the patient to prevent injury

A

A) Note the time the seizure started

Rationale: Timing the seizure is essential for determining the need for further interventions. While protecting the airway and administering medication are important, timing the seizure ensures appropriate action is taken.

64
Q

What is a key health promotion strategy for a patient with a seizure disorder?

A) Encourage the use of dietary supplements
B) Recommend high-protein diets to avoid seizures
C) Promote regular physical activity and healthy weight management
D) Advise the patient to reduce fluid intake

A

C) Promote regular physical activity and healthy weight management

Rationale: Engaging in regular physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight are beneficial strategies in managing seizures and overall health. There is no evidence to support dietary supplements or high-protein diets as effective for seizure control.

65
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient in the postictal phase after a seizure. Which of the following should be monitored closely?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Decreased level of consciousness
C) Blood sugar levels
D) Oxygen saturation

A

B) Decreased level of consciousness

Rationale: In the postictal phase, patients often experience confusion or a decreased level of consciousness. Monitoring for this change is important to ensure the patient regains full awareness and orientation.

66
Q

What is an appropriate intervention for a patient who has a seizure disorder and reports experiencing frequent stress?

A) Encourage the use of alcohol to relax
B) Teach relaxation techniques and stress management
C) Recommend avoidance of all physical activity
D) Advise the patient to take sedatives for stress relief

A

B) Teach relaxation techniques and stress management

Rationale: Stress management is a key aspect of seizure control. Teaching relaxation techniques helps patients manage stress in a healthy way, rather than resorting to alcohol or sedatives, which may trigger seizures.

67
Q

A patient with a seizure disorder is prescribed an antiseizure medication. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect?

A) Increased appetite and weight gain
B) Insomnia and restlessness
C) Drowsiness and dizziness
D) Hypotension and tachycardia

A

C) Drowsiness and dizziness

Rationale: Drowsiness and dizziness are common side effects of many antiseizure medications, which can affect a patient’s ability to perform daily activities safely.

68
Q

When a patient is in the postictal phase after a seizure, which of the following should the nurse assess for?

A) Signs of dehydration
B) Presence of auras
C) Inability to speak clearly
D) Difficulty swallowing

A

D) Difficulty swallowing

Rationale: After a seizure, patients may have difficulty swallowing due to muscle weakness or altered neurological function. It’s important to assess for any signs of aspiration risk.

69
Q

Which of the following is a common risk factor for developing a seizure disorder in a patient?

A) Smoking
B) Obesity
C) Stroke
D) Hypertension

A

C) Stroke

Rationale: Stroke is a known risk factor for the development of seizures, as it can cause damage to the brain tissue. Other conditions, such as hypertension and obesity, are not directly associated with seizure disorders.

70
Q

A nurse is providing education to a patient with a seizure disorder about seizure triggers. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

A) The patient should avoid sunlight and bright lights
B) The patient should increase daily caffeine intake
C) The patient should reduce the intake of vitamin C
D) The patient should limit daily water consumption

A

A) The patient should avoid sunlight and bright lights

Rationale: Bright lights and sunlight are common seizure triggers, especially in patients with photosensitive epilepsy. Limiting caffeine and water intake is not generally recommended as part of seizure management.

71
Q

The rapid response team is called to the cafeteria. They find a 22-year-old with a known seizure disorder having a tonic-clonic seizure. What actions will be taken during the seizure? (select all that apply)

a. Establish IV access.
b. Insert an oral airway.
c. Gently hold the arms to prevent injury.
d. Administer the patient’s intranasal midazolam.
e. Turn the person to their side and pad their head

A

a. Establish IV access.
d. Administer the patient’s intranasal midazolam.
e. Turn the person to their side and pad their head

72
Q

While the nurse is transporting a patient on a stretcher to the radiology department, the patient begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action would the nurse take?

a. Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway.

b. Restrain the patient‘s arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure.

c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state.

d. Avoid touching the patient to prevent further nervous system stimulation.

A

c. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state.

Rationale: Because the diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the description of the seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important. Insertion of an oral airway and restraining the patient during the seizure are contraindicated. The nurse may need to move the patient to decrease the risk of injury during the seizure.

73
Q

A high school teacher who has been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a generalized tonic-clonic seizure tells the nurse, “I cannot teach any more. It will be too upsetting if I have a seizure at work.” How would the nurse respond to specifically address the patient‘s concern?

a. “You might benefit from some psychologic counseling.”

b. “Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications.”

c. “You will want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance.”

d. “The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining.”

A

b. “Epilepsy usually can be well controlled with medications.”

Rationale: The nurse should inform the patient that most seizure disorders are controlled with medication. The other information may be necessary if seizures persist after treatment with antiseizure medications is implemented.

74
Q

A patient has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for 2 years. Which action would the nurse take when evaluating possible adverse effects of the medication?

a. Inspect the oral mucosa.

b. Listen to the lung sounds.

c. Auscultate the bowel sounds.

d. Check pupil reaction to light.

A

a. Inspect the oral mucosa.

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, but does not affect bowel sounds, lung sounds, or pupil reaction to light.

75
Q

A patient reports feeling numbness and tingling of the left arm before experiencing a seizure.
Which type of seizure would the nurse suspect?

a. Focal-onset

b. Atonic

c. Absence

d. Myoclonic

A

a. Focal-onset

Rationale: The initial symptoms of a focal-onset seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized to a particular part of the body or brain; patients may have unusual feelings or sensations. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the patient loses muscle tone and (typically) falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or extremities.

76
Q

The nurse observes a patient ambulating in the hospital hall. The patient‘s arms and legs suddenly jerk and the patient falls to the floor. Which action would the nurse take first?

a. Give the scheduled divalproex (Depakote).

b. Document the timing and description of the seizure.

c. Check the environment for sources of potential injury.

d. Notify the patient‘s health care provider about the seizure.

A

c. Check the environment for sources of potential injury.

Rationale: The patient who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for additional injury from contacting objects in the environment; assuring a safe area is a priority. Documentation of the seizure, notification of the health care provider, and administration of antiseizure medications may also be appropriate actions, but the initial action would be assessment for injury.

77
Q

Which prescribed intervention would the emergency department nurse implement first for a patient who is experiencing continuous tonic-clonic seizures?

a. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg IV.

b. Monitor level of consciousness (LOC).

c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg IV.

d. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.

A

d. Obtain computed tomography (CT) scan.

Rationale: To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse would administer rapidly acting antiseizure medications such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but cannot be done while the patient is seizing. Phenytoin will also be administered, but it is not rapidly acting. Patients who are experiencing tonic-clonic seizures are nonresponsive, although the nurse would assess LOC after the seizure.

78
Q

Which information about a patient who has a new prescription for phenytoin (Dilantin) indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before administering the medication?

a. Patient has tonic-clonic seizures.

b. Patient experiences an aura before seizures.

c. Patient‘s most recent blood pressure is 156/92 mm Hg.

d. Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results.

A

d. Patient has slight elevations in liver function test results.

Rationale: Patients with compromised liver function may not be able to metabolize phenytoin. The health care provider may need to choose another antiseizure medication. Phenytoin is an appropriate medication for patients with tonic-clonic seizures, with or without an aura. Hypertension is not a contraindication for phenytoin therapy.

79
Q

A patient who has been treated for status epilepticus in the emergency department will be transferred to the medical nursing unit. Which equipment would the nurse have available in the patient‘s assigned room? (Select all that apply.)

a. Side rail pads
b. Tongue blade
c. Oxygen mask
d. Suction tubing
e. Urinary catheter
f. Nasogastric tube

A

a. Side rail pads
c. Oxygen mask
d. Suction tubing

Rationale: The patient is at risk for further seizures, and O 2 and suctioning may be needed after any seizures to clear the airway and maximize oxygenation. The bed‘s side rails would be padded to minimize the risk for patient injury during a seizure. Use of tongue blades during a seizure is contraindicated. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) tube is not indicated because the airway problem is not caused by vomiting or abdominal distention. A urinary catheter is not required unless there is urinary retention.