Chapter 30: Pulmonary Embolism Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the most common source of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) from the deep veins of the legs
B) Fat embolism from fractured long bones
C) Air embolism from improperly administered IV therapy
D) Amniotic fluid embolism

A

A) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) from the deep veins of the legs

Rationale: The majority of pulmonary embolisms originate from deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the deep veins of the legs. Other sources are less common.

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2
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for pulmonary embolism (PE)? (Select all that apply)

A) History of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B) Pregnancy
C) Recent hip surgery
D) Use of oral contraceptives
E) Smoking

A

all of the choices are correct

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3
Q

What is a “saddle embolus”?

A) A large thrombus lodged at the arterial bifurcation
B) A small thrombus located in the pulmonary veins
C) A fat embolism from a fractured long bone
D) An air embolism from improper IV therapy

A

A) A large thrombus lodged at the arterial bifurcation

Rationale: A saddle embolus refers to a large thrombus that becomes lodged at the bifurcation of a pulmonary artery, potentially obstructing blood flow to both lungs.

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4
Q

Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Increased blood flow to the alveoli
B) Obstruction of perfusion to the alveoli
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Elevated blood pressure in the lungs

A

B) Obstruction of perfusion to the alveoli

Rationale: A pulmonary embolism causes a blockage of pulmonary arteries, obstructing the blood flow to the alveoli and impairing oxygen exchange.

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5
Q

A patient with a history of pelvic surgery presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

A) Auscultate lung sounds

B) Check for signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

C) Administer pain medication

D) Assess for signs of a stroke

A

A) Auscultate lung sounds

Rationale: A patient presenting with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath may have a pulmonary embolism. Auscultation of lung sounds is a priority to assess for abnormal lung sounds like crackles or decreased breath sounds.

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6
Q

Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) A thrombus forms in the pulmonary veins and blocks gas exchange

B) An embolus travels through the left side of the heart and obstructs systemic circulation

C) An embolus travels through the pulmonary arteries and obstructs alveolar perfusion

D) Fat cells from fractured long bones enter the lungs and obstruct airflow

A

C) An embolus travels through the pulmonary arteries and obstructs alveolar perfusion

Rationale: The embolus travels through the venous system to the pulmonary circulation, where it lodges in a pulmonary artery, blocking perfusion to the alveoli.

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7
Q

Which of the following is considered a less common cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

B) Fat embolism

C) Pregnancy

D) Oral contraceptive use

A

B) Fat embolism

Rationale: While DVT, pregnancy, and oral contraceptive use are common risk factors, fat embolism from fractured long bones is considered a less common cause of PE.

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8
Q

A patient with a central venous catheter is at increased risk for which of the following?

A) Upper extremity deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
B) Pulmonary embolism (PE)
C) Pneumothorax
D) Systemic infection

A

A) Upper extremity deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Rationale: Central venous catheters are associated with an increased risk of upper extremity DVT, which can lead to PE if the thrombus embolizes.

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9
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for a patient suspected of having a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Encourage deep breathing exercises
B) Provide high-flow oxygen therapy
C) Start IV fluids at a rapid rate
D) Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed

A

D) Administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed

Rationale: Anticoagulant therapy is a primary intervention to prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications from a PE.

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10
Q

Which part of the lungs is most commonly affected by a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Upper lobes

B) Middle lobes

C) Lower lobes

D) All lobes equally

A

C) Lower lobes

Rationale: The lower lobes of the lungs are most commonly affected by pulmonary embolism due to gravity and blood flow dynamics.

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11
Q

A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) presents with sudden onset of dyspnea, tachypnea, and chest pain. What is the priority assessment for this patient?

A) Measure oxygen saturation

B) Administer pain medication

C) Auscultate lung sounds

D) Check for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

A

A) Measure oxygen saturation

Rationale: Dyspnea, tachypnea, and chest pain are classic symptoms of PE. Measuring oxygen saturation is the priority assessment to evaluate hypoxemia and guide oxygen therapy.

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12
Q

Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Hemoptysis
B) Tachycardia
C) Dyspnea
D) Syncope

A

C) Dyspnea

Rationale: Dyspnea (shortness of breath) is the most common presenting symptom in patients with pulmonary embolism.

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13
Q

A patient with a massive pulmonary embolism (PE) is exhibiting hypotension, confusion, and a feeling of impending doom. What is the priority nursing action?

A) Reassure the patient and allow them to rest
B) Administer analgesics to relieve pain
C) Prepare the patient for a chest x-ray
D) Administer oxygen and monitor vital signs

A

D) Administer oxygen and monitor vital signs

Rationale: In the case of a massive PE, the priority is to stabilize the patient by administering oxygen to correct hypoxemia and monitoring vital signs for any further deterioration.

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14
Q

Which of the following symptoms is most likely to occur in a patient with a large pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Mild cough and wheezing
B) Chest pain, tachypnea, and hemoptysis
C) Low-grade fever and crackles
D) Syncope, hypotension, and change in mental status

A

D) Syncope, hypotension, and change in mental status

Rationale: Massive PE can cause a sudden change in mental status, hypotension, and syncope due to decreased blood flow and oxygenation.

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15
Q

A patient with pulmonary embolism (PE) is found to have hemoptysis. What does this symptom indicate?

A) Pulmonary congestion due to heart failure

B) Rupture of alveolar capillaries from the embolus

C) Infection or pneumonia in the lungs

D) Severe pain from the pleural lining irritation

A

B) Rupture of alveolar capillaries from the embolus

Rationale: Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) in the context of PE is often due to the rupture of alveolar capillaries as a result of increased pressure from the embolus blocking blood flow to the lungs.

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16
Q

A patient is admitted with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) and presents with tachycardia and crackles on auscultation. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?

A) Initiate IV fluids to prevent dehydration

B) Prepare for possible intubation and mechanical ventilation

C) Administer oxygen therapy and monitor vital signs

D) Encourage the patient to deep breathe and cough

A

C) Administer oxygen therapy and monitor vital signs

Rationale: Tachycardia and crackles are signs of possible PE and associated hypoxemia. The priority is to administer oxygen to improve oxygenation and closely monitor vital signs.

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17
Q

A patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) is experiencing mild to moderate hypoxemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

A) Administer IV fluids rapidly to increase blood volume

B) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

C) Start continuous oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation

D) Encourage the patient to drink fluids to increase circulation

A

C) Start continuous oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation

Rationale: For patients with hypoxemia, oxygen therapy is the primary intervention to maintain adequate oxygen saturation and prevent further complications.

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18
Q

Which of the following is the most common complication of pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Pulmonary infarction
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D) Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension

A

A) Pulmonary infarction

Rationale: Pulmonary infarction, or the death of lung tissue, is a common complication of PE, especially when there is occlusion of a large pulmonary vessel or insufficient collateral circulation.

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19
Q

A patient with a massive pulmonary embolism (PE) has sudden hypotension and shock. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A) Pulmonary infarction
B) Pulmonary hypertension
C) Decreased blood flow to the left ventricle
D) Right ventricular failure due to increased pulmonary resistance

A

D) Right ventricular failure due to increased pulmonary resistance

Rationale: Massive PE increases resistance in the pulmonary arteries, leading to right ventricular failure, which causes hypotension and shock.

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20
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur if a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) develops pulmonary infarction?

A) Decreased alveolar necrosis
B) Development of an abscess in necrotic tissue
C) Increased oxygenation in the affected lung area
D) Increased production of pleural fluid

A

B) Development of an abscess in necrotic tissue

Rationale: Pulmonary infarction causes alveolar necrosis and hemorrhage, which can become infected, leading to the formation of a pulmonary abscess.

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21
Q

*What is the primary factor in the development of pulmonary hypertension following a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

B) Chronic thromboembolic obstruction of pulmonary arteries

C) Decreased blood flow to the left ventricle

D) Overuse of anticoagulant therapy

A

B) Chronic thromboembolic obstruction of pulmonary arteries

Rationale: Pulmonary hypertension after PE typically results from chronic thromboembolic obstruction and recurrent PEs, which gradually reduce capillary bed blood flow over time.

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22
Q

Which of the following increases a patient’s risk for developing chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH) after a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Early anticoagulant therapy
B) Complete resolution of the PE
C) Recurrent pulmonary embolism
D) Acute right ventricular failure

A

C) Recurrent pulmonary embolism

Rationale: Recurrent PEs that do not completely resolve can gradually cause persistent obstruction and lead to chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension.

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23
Q

A patient diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE) develops pleural effusion. What is the most likely cause of this complication?

A) Lung tissue infection
B) Pulmonary infarction and hemorrhage
C) Right-sided heart failure
D) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

B) Pulmonary infarction and hemorrhage

Rationale: Pleural effusions are common in patients with PE and are typically caused by pulmonary infarction and subsequent hemorrhage.

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24
Q

Which of the following would most likely result in an increased risk of death within the first hour of a massive pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Immediate initiation of anticoagulant therapy
B) Pre-existing lung disease
C) Mild to moderate hypoxemia
D) Occlusion of a large or medium-sized pulmonary vessel

A

D) Occlusion of a large or medium-sized pulmonary vessel

Rationale: Massive PE, particularly when it involves occlusion of a large pulmonary vessel, can cause immediate and severe cardiovascular collapse, leading to death within the first hour.

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25
Q

Which of the following is the most commonly used diagnostic test for confirming pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Chest x-ray
B) Echocardiogram
C) Spiral CT scan (CT angiography)
D) D-dimer test

A

C) Spiral CT scan (CT angiography)

Rationale: The spiral CT scan, or CT angiography, is the most common and accurate diagnostic test for confirming pulmonary embolism.

26
Q

*A patient presents with symptoms of pulmonary embolism (PE). Which diagnostic test is typically used if the patient cannot receive contrast media for a spiral CT scan?

A) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
B) Chest x-ray
C) Pulmonary angiography
D) Serum troponin test

A

A) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

Rationale: If a patient cannot receive contrast media for a CT scan, a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is used to diagnose PE by assessing lung ventilation and blood flow.

27
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of using the D-dimer test for diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) It is highly specific for PE.
B) It may be falsely negative in patients with large PE.
C) It is not sensitive enough to detect a small PE.
D) It is not useful in patients with cancer.

A

C) It is not sensitive enough to detect a small PE.

Rationale: D-dimer is not sensitive enough to detect small PEs, as up to 50% of patients with small PE may have a normal D-dimer result.

28
Q

In a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a D-dimer test is elevated but the venous ultrasound is normal. What is the next step in the diagnostic process?

A) Chest x-ray
B) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
C) Serum troponin level testing
D) Immediate spiral CT scan (CTA)

A

D) Immediate spiral CT scan (CTA)

Rationale: In a patient with an elevated D-dimer but normal venous ultrasound, the next step is typically a spiral CT scan (CTA) to confirm or rule out PE.

29
Q

What does an elevated serum troponin level in a patient with pulmonary embolism (PE) typically indicate?

A) Renal insufficiency
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Right ventricular strain or injury
D) Pulmonary hypertension

A

C) Right ventricular strain or injury

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels in a patient with PE indicate right ventricular strain or injury due to increased pressure from the obstruction in the pulmonary circulation.

30
Q

A patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) has a chest x-ray showing atelectasis and pleural effusion. What is the clinical significance of these findings?

A) They are highly specific for PE.
B) They are common findings but not diagnostic for PE.
C) They confirm the presence of PE.
D) They suggest the patient has a pneumonia.

A

B) They are common findings but not diagnostic for PE.

Rationale: Chest x-ray findings such as atelectasis and pleural effusion are common in PE but are not diagnostic for the condition.

31
Q

Which of the following is the primary purpose of using a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) To confirm the presence of an embolus in the pulmonary circulation

B) To assess lung tissue damage

C) To evaluate pulmonary blood flow and ventilation distribution

D) To identify pre-existing lung disease

A

C) To evaluate pulmonary blood flow and ventilation distribution

Rationale: A V/Q scan evaluates both the blood flow (perfusion) and ventilation in the lungs to help identify areas of mismatch, which may indicate a PE.

32
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using a D-dimer test to diagnose pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) It is not sensitive to PE in critically ill patients.

B) It cannot detect the presence of a PE if the patient is pregnant.

C) It requires special preparation and fasting.

D) It is neither specific nor sensitive for PE, as it can be elevated in many other conditions.

A

D) It is neither specific nor sensitive for PE, as it can be elevated in many other conditions.

Rationale: The D-dimer test is not specific to PE and can be elevated in many other conditions, which limits its diagnostic accuracy for PE.

33
Q

In the context of diagnosing pulmonary embolism (PE), what is the role of an ECG?

A) It is used to confirm the presence of PE.

B) It is highly sensitive for detecting PE.

C) It is used to assess nonspecific ST segment and T-wave changes.

D) It is the first diagnostic tool used to confirm PE.

A

C) It is used to assess nonspecific ST segment and T-wave changes.

Rationale: The ECG may show nonspecific ST segment and T-wave changes in patients with PE but is not diagnostic for the condition.

34
Q

A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is being assessed. Which of the following findings is most likely to be seen on a chest x-ray?

A) Hemoptysis
B) Atelectasis or pleural effusion
C) Enlargement of the heart
D) Pulmonary consolidation

A

B) Atelectasis or pleural effusion

Rationale: Chest x-rays may show atelectasis or pleural effusion, but these findings are not diagnostic for PE and may be seen in a variety of other conditions.

35
Q

A patient undergoing a spiral CT scan (CTA) for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is unable to receive contrast media due to kidney impairment. What is the next diagnostic test to consider?

A) Serum troponin testing
B) Chest x-ray
C) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
D) D-dimer testing

A

C) Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan

Rationale: If contrast media cannot be used for a CT scan, a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is an alternative diagnostic tool for evaluating PE.

36
Q

A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) presents with hypoxemia. What is the immediate priority for treatment?

A) Administer oxygen by mask or cannula
B) Start anticoagulation therapy
C) Perform a spiral CT scan (CTA)
D) Administer diuretics

A

A) Administer oxygen by mask or cannula

Rationale: Oxygen should be administered immediately to improve oxygenation in patients with PE and hypoxemia, as part of the initial treatment.

37
Q

A patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE) is experiencing pain from pleural irritation. Which medication should be administered to manage this pain?

A) Acetaminophen
B) Opioids
C) Anticoagulants
D) Aspirin

A

B) Opioids

Rationale: Opioids are used to manage pain associated with pleural irritation or reduced coronary blood flow in patients with PE.

38
Q

n a patient with pulmonary embolism (PE) and heart failure, which of the following medications is most appropriate for managing fluid retention?

A) Anticoagulants
B) Diuretics
C) Beta-blockers
D) Vasopressors

A

B) Diuretics

Rationale: Diuretics are used to manage fluid retention and alleviate the symptoms of heart failure in patients with PE and heart failure.

39
Q

A patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is showing signs of shock. What is the most appropriate action to support circulation immediately?

A) Administer oxygen therapy
B) Start heparin therapy
C) Provide mechanical ventilation
D) Administer IV fluids and vasopressor agents

A

D) Administer IV fluids and vasopressor agents

Rationale: In the presence of shock, IV fluids and vasopressors are used to support circulation and stabilize the patient’s hemodynamic status.

40
Q

What is the goal of interprofessional care when treating a patient with a pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) To reduce pain and prevent atelectasis
B) To prevent further thrombus growth and recurrence
C) To perform early surgery for thrombus removal
D) To administer antibiotics for infection prevention

A

B) To prevent further thrombus growth and recurrence

Rationale: The primary goals in treating PE are to prevent further thrombus growth, recurrence, and complications, while maintaining adequate oxygenation and circulation.

41
Q

A patient with pulmonary embolism (PE) is being assessed for mechanical ventilation. In which of the following situations is mechanical ventilation most likely required?

A) If the patient experiences hyperventilation
B) If the patient’s oxygen levels cannot be maintained with a mask or cannula
C) If the patient exhibits signs of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
D) If the patient develops a fever

A

B) If the patient’s oxygen levels cannot be maintained with a mask or cannula

Rationale: Mechanical ventilation is needed when a patient cannot maintain adequate oxygenation despite the use of a mask or cannula.

42
Q

A patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving respiratory support. Which of the following interventions should be prioritized to help prevent atelectasis?

A) Initiating incentive spirometry and deep breathing exercises

B) Administering opioid pain medications

C) Starting anticoagulation therapy

D) Increasing fluid intake

A

A) Initiating incentive spirometry and deep breathing exercises

Rationale: Incentive spirometry, turning, and deep breathing exercises are key interventions to help prevent atelectasis in patients with PE.

43
Q

Which of the following is the primary goal of treating a patient with pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) To promote long-term anticoagulation therapy
B) To restore adequate oxygenation and circulation
C) To prevent the use of vasopressors
D) To manage the underlying cause of the embolism

A

B) To restore adequate oxygenation and circulation

Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of PE is to restore adequate oxygenation and circulation, while preventing complications and recurrence of embolism.

44
Q

Which medication is the first-line treatment for a patient with acute pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) Warfarin (Coumadin)
B) Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)
C) Unfractionated IV heparin
D) Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

B) Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)

Rationale: LMWH is recommended for initial treatment of acute PE because it is safer and more effective than unfractionated heparin and does not require aPTT monitoring.

45
Q

A patient with acute PE is started on warfarin (Coumadin). What is the recommended duration for initial anticoagulant therapy before reevaluation?

A) 1-2 weeks
B) 3-6 months
C) 6-12 months
D) Indefinitely

A

B) 3-6 months

Rationale: Warfarin is typically given for at least 3-6 months in patients with PE, after which anticoagulant therapy is reevaluated based on the patient’s risk factors and clinical condition.

46
Q

In which situation is anticoagulant therapy contraindicated for a patient with pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A) The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation

B) The patient has recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

C) The patient has liver dysfunction with clotting abnormalities

D) The patient is undergoing mechanical ventilation

A

C) The patient has liver dysfunction with clotting abnormalities

Rationale: Anticoagulant therapy is contraindicated in conditions that increase the risk of bleeding, such as liver dysfunction causing changes in clotting or overt bleeding.

47
Q

Which laboratory test is required to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated IV heparin therapy in a patient with PE?

A) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C) D-dimer
D) Platelet count

A

B) Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

Rationale: aPTT is monitored to assess the effectiveness of unfractionated IV heparin therapy, ensuring therapeutic levels are maintained.

48
Q

A patient with acute PE is prescribed fibrinolytic therapy with alteplase (Activase). What is the primary goal of this treatment?

A) To prevent clot formation
B) To manage hypoxemia
C) To dissolve the clot and reduce the risk of recurrence
D) To reduce pulmonary hypertension

A

C) To dissolve the clot and reduce the risk of recurrence

Rationale: Fibrinolytic therapy, such as alteplase, helps dissolve the clot and the source of the embolism, decreasing the risk of recurrent PE.

49
Q

Which anticoagulant therapy does NOT require monitoring of aPTT levels?

A) Unfractionated heparin
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Fibrinolytic agents
D) Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)

A

D) Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH)

Rationale: LMWH, such as enoxaparin, does not require monitoring of aPTT levels, making it easier to use compared to unfractionated heparin.

50
Q

Which patient is most likely to benefit from a pulmonary embolectomy?

A) A patient with a recurrent PE despite anticoagulation

B) A patient with a massive PE and hemodynamic instability who cannot receive thrombolytic therapy

C) A patient with a small PE and mild hypoxemia

D) A patient with an elevated D-dimer but no confirmed PE

A

B) A patient with a massive PE and hemodynamic instability who cannot receive thrombolytic therapy

Rationale: Pulmonary embolectomy is reserved for patients with massive PE and hemodynamic instability who cannot tolerate thrombolytic therapy, as it can rapidly remove emboli and reduce right ventricular afterload.

51
Q

Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with contraindications to anticoagulation therapy and a high risk for pulmonary embolism?

A) Thrombolytic therapy
B) Inferior vena cava (IVC) filter placement
C) Surgical embolectomy
D) Long-term oxygen therapy

A

B) Inferior vena cava (IVC) filter placement

Rationale: An IVC filter is the treatment of choice for patients at high risk for PE who cannot tolerate anticoagulation, as it prevents large clots from reaching the lungs.

52
Q

Which complication is most associated with an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter?

A) Hemorrhage
B) Severe hypoxemia
C) Device migration
D) Thrombolysis failure

A

C) Device migration

Rationale: While complications are rare, an IVC filter can misplace, migrate, or perforate the vessel wall.

53
Q

What is the primary goal of ultrasound-guided catheter thrombolysis in treating pulmonary embolism?

A) To dissolve clots using localized thrombolytic therapy

B) To mechanically remove emboli from the pulmonary arteries

C) To prevent clot migration to the lungs

D) To avoid the need for anticoagulation therapy

A

A) To dissolve clots using localized thrombolytic therapy

Rationale: Ultrasound-guided catheter thrombolysis delivers thrombolytic agents directly to the clot, aiding in clot dissolution and minimizing systemic effects.

54
Q

A patient undergoing surgical embolectomy asks about the benefits of this procedure. What is the nurse’s best response?

A) “This procedure removes clots and eliminates the need for anticoagulant therapy.”

B) “This procedure prevents new clots from forming in your legs.”

C) “It guarantees complete resolution of all clots in the pulmonary arteries.”

D) “It decreases pressure on the right side of your heart by removing the clots.”

A

D) “It decreases pressure on the right side of your heart by removing the clots.”

Rationale: Pulmonary embolectomy reduces right ventricular afterload by removing emboli, improving hemodynamic status and reducing strain on the heart.

55
Q

*Which patient is most appropriate for percutaneous interventional therapy for pulmonary embolism?

A) A patient with mild dyspnea and no evidence of right ventricular strain

B) A patient with a massive PE and contraindications to thrombolytic therapy

C) A patient with a stable submassive PE and a normal D-dimer level

D) A patient with recurrent deep vein thrombosis despite anticoagulation therapy

A

B) A patient with a massive PE and contraindications to thrombolytic therapy

Rationale: Percutaneous interventional therapy is a less invasive option for removing emboli in patients with massive PE and contraindications to systemic thrombolytic therapy.

56
Q

When planning care for a patient at high risk for pulmonary embolism, the nurse prioritizes

a. maintaining the patient on strict bed rest
b. using intermittent pneumatic compression devices
c. encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe
d. encouraging a fluid intake of 2000 mL per 8-hour shift

A

b. using intermittent pneumatic compression devices

57
Q

A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism reports chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and respirations of 42 breaths/min. Which action would the nurse take first?

a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.

b. Notify the patient‘s health care provider.

c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).

d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler‘s position.

A

d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler‘s position.

Rationale: The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be performed after the head is elevated and O 2 is started. The health care provider may order a spiral CT to identify PE. Anticoagulants may be ordered after confirmation of the diagnosis of PE.

58
Q

A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which of the following patients are at risk for a pulmonary embolism? (SATA)

a. a patient who has a BMI of 30
b. a patient who is postmenopausal
c. a patient who has a fractured femur
d. a patient who is a marathon runner
e. a patient who has chronic atrial fibrillation

A

a. a patient who has a BMI of 30
c. a patient who has a fractured femur
e. a patient who has chronic atrial fibrillation

59
Q

A nurse is assessing a patinet who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (SATA)

a. bradypnea
b. pleural friction rub
c. hypertension
d. petechiae
e. tachycardia

A

b. pleural friction rub
d. petechiae
e. tachycardia

60
Q

A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states, “I am anxious and unable to get enough air.” Vital signs are heart rate 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4C, and blood pressure 100/54 mmHg. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority?

a. notify the provider
b. administer heparin via IV infusion
c. administer oxygen therapy
d. obtain a CT scan

A

c. administer oxygen therapy

61
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for heparin therapy. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate an immediate concern for the nurse?

a. “I am allergic to morphine.”

b. “I take antacids several times a day for my ulcer.

c. “I had a blood clot in my leg several years ago.”

d. “It hurts to take a deep breath.”

A

b. “I take antacids several times a day for my ulcer.

62
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should the nurse recognize as a contraindication to the therapy?

a. hip arthroplasty
b. elevated sedimentation rate
c. incident of exercise-induced asthma 1 week ago
d. elevated platelet count

A

a. hip arthroplasty