Chapter 6 - Immunogen and Immunoglobulin Flashcards

1
Q

Macromolecules capable of triggering an adaptive immune response by inducing the formation of antibodies or sensitized T cells in an immunocompetent host.

A

Immunogen

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2
Q

A substance that reacts with antibody or sensitized T cells but may not be able to evoke an immune response in the first place.

A

Antigen

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3
Q

Which of the following is true?

A. All immunogens are antigens.
B. All antigens are immunogens.

A

A. All immunogens are antigens

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4
Q

Incomplete / partial antigen

A

Hapten

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5
Q

In order for a hapten to induce an immune response, what must be added?

A

Carrier

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6
Q

Which of the following is true?

A. Haptens are antigenic
B. Haptens are immunogenic

A

A. Haptens are antigenic

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7
Q

Best immunogens

A

Proteins, polysaccharide

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8
Q

Less immunogenic

A

Carbohydrates

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9
Q

Not immunogenic

A

Nucleic acids, lipids

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10
Q

Antigen derived from the same individual

A

Autoantigen

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11
Q

Antigen derived from different species

A

Heteroantigen / xenogeneic antigen

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12
Q

Antigen derived from different individual from same species

A

Alloantigen / homologous antigen

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13
Q

Graft derived from same individual

A

Autograft

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14
Q

Graft derived from different class but identical individual (identical twins)

A

Isograft / syngraft

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15
Q

Graft from different individual but same species

A

Allograft

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16
Q

Graft from different species

A

Heterograft / xanograft

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17
Q

Found in unrelated plan and animals, cross react with other antibodies.

A

Heterophile antigens

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18
Q

Old name for antibodies.

A

Gammaglobulins

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19
Q

Which Ig is not found on the gamma region when subjected to electrophoresis?

A

IgA

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20
Q

Products of antigenic stimulation

A

Antibodies / Immunoglobulins

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21
Q

Functions of immunoglobulins

A

Cell cytotoxicity
Neutralization
Opsonization

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22
Q

Determines Ig class

A

Heavy chain

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23
Q

The antigen binding region

A. Fc
B. Fab

A

B. Fab

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24
Q

What part makes the antibodies flexible?

A

Hinge

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25
Q

The amino group is found on ______.

A. Fc region
B. Fab region

A

B. Fab region

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26
Q

The carboxyl group is found on ______.

A. Fc region
B. Fab region

A

A. Fc region

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27
Q

Location of the hinge region.

A

Between CH1 and CH2

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28
Q

Which antibody part binds with complement, specifically C1q?

A

CH2

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29
Q

Which antibody part is responsible for cytotropic reaction involving macrophages?

A

CH3

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30
Q

The Fc receptor binding site

A

CH3

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31
Q

The hinge region is rich in which amino acid?

A

Proline

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32
Q

What connects the two heavy chains of antibodies together?

A

Disulfide bond

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33
Q

What connect the light chains and heavy chains of an antibody?

A

Disulfide bond

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34
Q

Heavy chain that determines Ig class.

A

Isotype

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35
Q

Variation in the variable region of both HC and LC

A

Isotype

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36
Q

Variation in the constant region of both HC and LC

A

Allotype

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37
Q

The first ____ or ____ amino acids are considered the variable region.

A

110 or 120

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38
Q

Which antibody isotype have an extra domain CH4?

A

IgM and IgE

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39
Q

How many domain does IgG have?

A

4

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40
Q

How many domains does IgE have?

A

5

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41
Q

How many domains does IgM have?

A

5

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42
Q

Sections or regions in an immunoglobulin molecule

A

Domains

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43
Q

Number of binding site in an antobody

A

Valence

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44
Q

Basic Ig structure

A

Monomer

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45
Q

Which antibody is a dimer?

A

IgA

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46
Q

IgA are found in _____.

A

Secretions

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47
Q

The 2 monomers of an IgA is linked by?

A

J chain

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48
Q

A polymeric antibody

A

IgM

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49
Q

Enumerate the antibody isotypes from most to least abundant.

A

IgG > IgA > IgM > IgD > IgE

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50
Q

A protein that contains light chain to light chain linkage (which is abnormal).

A

Bence-Jones protein

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51
Q

BJP is associated with the presence of _____ spike during electrophoresis.

A

Gamma

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52
Q

BJP precipitates at ____ to ____ degree Celsius.

A

40 to 60

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53
Q

Confirmatory test for BJP

A

Electrophoresis

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54
Q

BJP dissolves at ____ degree Celsius.

A

100

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55
Q

BJP is associated with what disease?

A

Multiple myeloma

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56
Q

Is BJP specific to multiple myeloma?

A

No

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57
Q

Massive proteinuria is associated with?

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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58
Q

What protein remains in circulation for patients with nephrotic syndrome? (This is also the largest protein)

A

Alpha-2-macroglobulin

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59
Q

Ig class with the hight molecular weight

A

IgM (900 000 daltons)

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60
Q

Next largest Ig class after IgM

A

IgE

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61
Q

Smallest Ig class

A

IgG

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62
Q

Sedimentation coefficient for IgG, IgA and IgD

A

7S

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63
Q

Sedimentation coefficient for IgM

A

19S

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64
Q

Sedimentation coefficient for IgE

A

8S

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65
Q

Ig class with the longest half life

A

IgG (23 days)

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66
Q

Ig class with the longest half life next to IgG

A

IgM (6 days)

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67
Q

How many domains does IgG have?

A

4

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68
Q

How many domains does IgE have?

A

5

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69
Q

How many domains does IgM have?

A

5

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70
Q

Ig isotype that is most efficient in complement fixation

A

IgM

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71
Q

Can IgG induce complement fixation?

A

Yes except IgG4

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72
Q

Known as the “coating antibody”

A

IgG

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73
Q

The first Ig to be produced after antigenic stimulation

A

IgM

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74
Q

Reaginic antibody

A

IgE

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75
Q

Major antibody on secretions

A

IgA

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76
Q

Antibody associated with anaphylaxis

A

IgA

77
Q

Antibody that is sensitive to enzymatic degradation

A

IgD

78
Q

This Ig’s main function is immunoregulation

A

IgD

79
Q

The first antibody to appear in phylogeny and last to leave in senescence

A

IgM

80
Q

Which Ig is the best complement fixer?

A

IgM

81
Q

The only polymeric antibody

A

IgM

82
Q

This antibody is postulated to be an anti-idiopathic antibody.

A

IgD

83
Q

Which IgA subclass is found in secretions?

A

IgA2

84
Q

True/False: IgM is always a pentamer in the body.

A

False. It is a monomer in B cell surface.

85
Q

Agglutination is associated with which antibody?

A

IgM

86
Q

Precipitation is associated with which antibody?

A

IgG

87
Q

Ig found on the surface of B cells

A

IgD, IgM

88
Q

Most heat labile Ig

A

IgE

89
Q

When is a major basic protein secreted?

A

When an IgE attaches to an eosinophil

90
Q

Which Ig provides immunity to newborns?

A

IgG

91
Q

Which Ig can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

92
Q

Which IgG subclass is the least effective in passing the placenta?

A

IgG2

93
Q

Which Ig is associated with secondary immune response?

A

IgG

94
Q

How are the subclasses of IgG differ?

A

They differ from their disulfide bonds

95
Q

Which IgG subclass is the most abundant in circulation?

A

IgG1

96
Q

Which Ig is high in allergy and in parasite infection?

A

IgE

97
Q

The process of genetically pre-programming a lymphocyte to produce one type of Ig and that a particular cell capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate.

A

Clonal selection

98
Q

This theory states that certain cells had specific receptors for antigen that were present before contact with antigen occurred.

A

Ehrlich’s side chain theory

99
Q

IgA subclass found in serum

A

IgA1

100
Q

The process of transforming a polymeric antibody into a monomer.

A

Reduction

101
Q

2 substances used to reduce an antibody.

A

Dithiothreitol (DIT) and 2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME)

102
Q

Papain cuts antibodies into how many parts?

A

3 parts

103
Q

This Ig’s main function is immunoregulation

A

IgD

104
Q

The first antibody to appear in phylogeny and last to leave in senescence

A

IgM

105
Q

Which Ig is the best complement fixer?

A

IgM

106
Q

The only polymeric antibody

A

IgM

107
Q

This antibody is postulated to be an anti-idiopathic antibody.

A

IgD

108
Q

Which IgA subclass is found in secretions?

A

IgA2

109
Q

True/False: IgM is always a pentamer in the body.

A

False. It is a monomer in B cell surface.

110
Q

Agglutination is associated with which antibody?

A

IgM

111
Q

Precipitation is associated with which antibody?

A

IgG

112
Q

Ig found on the surface of B cells

A

IgD, IgM

113
Q

Most heat labile Ig

A

IgE

114
Q

When is a major basic protein secreted?

A

When an IgE attaches to an eosinophil

115
Q

Which Ig provides immunity to newborns?

A

IgG

116
Q

Which Ig can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

117
Q

Which IgG subclass is the least effective in passing the placenta?

A

IgG2

118
Q

Which Ig is associated with secondary immune response?

A

IgG

119
Q

How are the subclasses of IgG differ?

A

They differ from their disulfide bonds

120
Q

Which IgG subclass is the most abundant in circulation?

A

IgG1

121
Q

Which Ig is high in allergy and in parasite infection?

A

IgE

122
Q

The process of genetically pre-programming a lymphocyte to produce one type of Ig and that a particular cell capable of responding to it, causing it to proliferate.

A

Clonal selection

123
Q

This theory states that certain cells had specific receptors for antigen that were present before contact with antigen occurred.

A

Ehrlich’s side chain theory

124
Q

IgA subclass found in serum

A

IgA1

125
Q

The process of transforming a polymeric antibody into a monomer.

A

Reduction

126
Q

2 substances used to reduce an antibody.

A

Dithiothreitol (DIT) and 2-mercaptoethanol (2-ME)

127
Q

Papain cuts an antibody into how many fragments?

A

3 parts

128
Q

Which part of the antibody does papain cut?

A

It cuts the antibody directly in its hinge region.

129
Q

Pepsin cuts an antibody into how many fragments?

A

2

130
Q

Which part of the antibody does pepsin cut?

A

Below the hinge region

131
Q

Which fragment of the antibody crystallizes at cold temperature?

A

Fc portion

132
Q

This complex’s function is to bring out antigen into cell surface.

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex

133
Q

The molecular basis of self from nonself

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex

134
Q

MHC genes are located on the ____ (long/short) arm of chromosome _____.

A

Short arm of chromosome 6

135
Q

Set of genes that controls tissue compatibility

A

MHC genes

136
Q

What does MHC genes encode in humans?

A

Human Leukocyte Antigen Complex

137
Q

Which cell has the most number of MHC?

A

Lymphocytes

138
Q

MHC class associated with autoimmune diseases.

A

MHC II

139
Q

Which MHC class process cytoplasmically derived antigens and presenta it to CD8 positive cells?

A

MHC I

140
Q

Which MHC class process extracellularly derived antigens and presents it to CD4 positive cells?

A

MHC class II

141
Q

MHC class 1 is present in all _____.

A

Nucleated cells

142
Q

MHC class II is present in ______.

A

Immunocompetent cells (macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells, APCs)

143
Q

MHC class I presents antigens to which cell?

A

Cytotoxic T cell

144
Q

MHC class II presents antigens to ______.

A

T-helper cells

145
Q

Enumerate the genetic loci of MHC Class I.

A

HLA-A,B,C

146
Q

Enumerate the genetic loci of MHC Class II.

A

HLA-DP, DQ, DR

147
Q

Which MHC Class has alpha and beta chain structure?

A

MHC Class II

148
Q

Which MHC Class has alpha and B2 microglobulin chain structure?

A

MHC class I

149
Q

Which MHC involves complement components C2, C4 and Factor B?

A

MHC Class III

150
Q

What do you call the HLA on RBC?

A

Bennet-Goodspeed

151
Q

Bennet-Goodspeed is of what MHC class?

A

MHC Class II

152
Q

HLA genotyping test.

A

PCR-based amplification

153
Q

The test for the phenotypic or genotypic ID of the HLA antigens or genes in a transplant candidate or donor.

A

HLA phenotyping

154
Q

Limitations of HLA phenotyping.

A

Requires viable lymphocytes, requires separation of lymphocytes

155
Q

Interpret the following HLA phenotyping grades:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6
  5. 8
  6. 0
A
  1. Negative
  2. Doubtful negative
  3. Weak positive
  4. Positive
  5. Strong positive
  6. Unreadable
156
Q

Which HLA phenotyping grade has the most percentage of cell death?

A

8

157
Q

Importance of HLA typing

A

Tissue / organ transplant, paternity testing, studies of racial ancestry & migration, for diagnostic & genetic counseling, disease association

158
Q

Substance that can enhance immune response.

A

Adjuvants

159
Q

Adjuvants came from the word “adjuvare”, which means?

A

To aid

160
Q

Which lymphocyte contains both MHC class I and class II molecules?

A

B cells

161
Q

T cells contain:

A. MHC class I
B. MHC class II
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A. MHC class I

162
Q

What is used to separate B from T cells?

A

Nylon wool

163
Q

HLA-B27 is associated with what disease?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

164
Q

HLA-DR3 is associated with what disease?

A

Multiple sclerosis

165
Q

HLA DR2 and DR3 are associated with what disease?

A

SLE

166
Q

HLA-DR4 is associated with what disease?

A

RA

167
Q

HLA DR3 and DR4 is associated with what disease?

A

Type I DM

168
Q

This classification of drug prevents transplant rejection by weakening the patient’s immune system.

A

Immunosuppressive agents

169
Q

What immunosuppressive drug blocks the production and secretion of cytokines, inflammatory mediators, chemoattractant and adhesion molecules?

A

Corticosteroids

170
Q

Which immunosuppressive agent interferes with the maturation of lymphocytes and kill proliferating cells?

A

Antimetabolites

171
Q

Which immunosuppressive agent blocks signal transduction in T lymphocytes? (ex: cyclosporine)

A

Calcineurin inhibitors

172
Q

Which immunosuppressive agent interferes in T cell activation?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

173
Q

Which immunosuppressive agent depletes lymphocyte from the circulation? (Thymoglobulin)

A

Polyclonal antibodies

174
Q

Basiliximab and daclizumab binds CD____ receptor.

A

25

175
Q

Alemtuzumab binds CD_____.

A

52

176
Q

Which type of graft rejection occurs after days of transplantation, preformed antibodies to ABO, HLA and certain endothelial bind to donor vascular endothelium, activating complement and clotting factors?

A

Accelerated

177
Q

Which type of graft rejection occurs minutes to hours after transplantation, and is caused by preformed antibodies to ABO, HLA and certain endothelial bind to donor vascular endothelium, activating complement and clotting factors?

A

Hyperacute

178
Q

Which type of graft rejection happens 100 days or more wherein the T cells in HSC, lung, or liver transplants reacts against foreign HLA proteins in the recipient’s cells, causing massive cytokine release, inflammation, and tissue destruction in various locations throughout the body.

A

GVHD (Graft Versus Host Disease)

179
Q

Which type of graft rejection occurs days to months wherein there is a cell-mediated response to foreign MHC-expressing cells and CD4+ T cells produce cytokines and induce delayed type hypersensitivity?

A

Acute

180
Q

Which type of graft rejection occurs 1 year or more with the presence of delayed type hypersensitivity response and possibly antibodies to foreign HLA antigens on graft?

A

Chronic

181
Q

This test uses mitomycin C-treated or irradiated donor lymphocytes and live recipient lymphocytes.

A

Mixed lymphocyte reaction

182
Q

Rh antibodies are of which Ig class and subclass?

A

IgG4

183
Q

True/False: Rh antibodies can induce complement fixation.

A

False. It cannot.

184
Q

Where do we get cyclosporine?

A

Fungi

185
Q

Where do we get bacitracin?

A

Bacillus

186
Q

The most commonly donated organs.

A

Kidney

187
Q

The safest organ to transplant.

A

Cornea

188
Q

Why is cornea the safest organ to transplant?

A

It is avascular, it has decreased MHC class I molecules and it has no MHC class II molecules

189
Q

A part of IgA that prevents it from enzymatic degradation and facilitates in the transport of secretory IgA.

A

Secretory piece