Chapter 2 - Components of Natural Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

A phenomenon that occurs when an antibody reacts with antigen that is structurally similar to the original antigen that induced antibody production.

A

Cross-reactivity

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2
Q

a.k.a. Non-specific, innate immunity

A

Natural Immunity

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3
Q

a.k.a. Specific, acquired immunity

A

Adaptive immunity

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4
Q

Lysozymes are antibacterial against gram _______ bacteria.

A

Positive

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5
Q

Interferon is an example of:

A. Natural immunity
B. Adaptive immunity

A

A. Natural immunity

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6
Q

The acidity of GIT and vagina and the normal flora of the body is an example of:

A. External defense
B. Internal defense

A

A. External Defense

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7
Q

The cell associated with the “kiss of death”.

A

NK cell

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8
Q

A cell that is said to link the natural & adaptive immunity.

A

NK cell

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9
Q

What makes sweat antibacterial?

A

The presence of lactic acid

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10
Q

Other name for NK cell.

A

Large Granular Lymphocytes (LGL)

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11
Q

Bacteria’s virulence factor against phagocytosis.

A

Capsule

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12
Q

Antigen binding site.

A

Epitope

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13
Q

Antibody binding site

A

Paratope

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14
Q

Negri bodies are diagnostic of ________.

A

Rabies

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15
Q

A WBC that has ground glass cytoplasm.

A

Monocyte

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16
Q

True/False: Eosinophils and basophils are phagocytes.

A

False. Eosinophils are phagocytes but basophils are not.

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17
Q

Eosinophilia is only present for which type of parasites?

A

Tissue parasites

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18
Q

Weakened poliovirus given by mouth (oral polio vaccine)

A

Sabin

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19
Q

Inactivated poliovirus given by injection.

A

Salk

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20
Q

The most important function of eosinophils.

A

Neutralize basophil products

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21
Q

Content of basophils and mast cells that initiates allergic, inflammatory response

A

histamine

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22
Q

Koplik spots is diagnostic of ______.

A

Measles

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23
Q

Cells that kill extracellular organisms.

A

Phagocytes

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24
Q

Cells that kill intracellular organisms.

A

NK cells

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25
Q

WBC associated with the killing of parasites.

A

Eosinophil

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26
Q

Known as the homeostatic regulator of inflammation.

A

Eosinophil

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27
Q

Urease is associated with ______ which is also the causative agent of gastric ulcerations.

A

Helicobacter pylori

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28
Q

The smallest WBC, with large nucleus and scanty cytoplasm.

A

Lymphocytes

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29
Q

Plasma proteins that increases rapidly by at least 25% due to infection, trauma or injury.

A

Acute phase reactants

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30
Q

APRs are primarily produced by?

A

Hepatocytes

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31
Q

An APR which has a function in opsonization and complement activation.

A

C reactive protein

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32
Q

An APR which has function in the removal of cholesterol.

A

Serum amyloid A

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33
Q

An APR which has a function in inhibiting protease.

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin

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34
Q

An APR which has a function in clot formation

A

Fibrinogen

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35
Q

An APR that binds hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

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36
Q

An APR which binds copper and oxidizes iron.

A

Ceruloplasmin

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37
Q

An APR which has a function in opsonization and cell lysis.

A

Complement C3

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38
Q

A nonspecific antibody; the first antibody to be developed during infection.

A

CRP

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39
Q

Marker for acute inflammation and is now a marker for cardiovascular diseases.

A

CRP

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40
Q

What CRP level is considered as a high-risk level for CVD?

A

> 3 mg/dL

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41
Q

An APR that inhibits elastase.

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin

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42
Q

Difference between the primary and secondary granules of neutrophils.

A

Primary granules are nonspecific, secondary granules are specific

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43
Q

WBC stained using the Hansel Stain.

A

Eosinophil

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44
Q

What WBC is associated with acute interstitial nephritis?

A

Eosinophil

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45
Q

The smallest granulocyte.

A

Basophil

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46
Q

Largest cell in the peripheral blood.

A

Monocytes

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47
Q

WBC that is increased in chronic infections like TB.

A

Monocytes

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48
Q

Best antigen presenting cell.

A

Dendritic cell

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49
Q

Most potent phagocyte

A

Dendritic cell

50
Q

Main function of dendritic cells

A

Phagocytose antigen and present it to the T-helper cells

51
Q

The liver produces almost all proteins except _____.

A

Immunoglobulins

52
Q

What produces immunoglobulins?

A

Plasma cells

53
Q

During hemolytic anemia, haptoglobin is _______.

A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

Decreased

54
Q

Most abundant cell in the bone marrow.

A

Metamyelocyte

55
Q

Largest cell in the bone marrow.

A

Megakaryocyte

56
Q

What differentiates basophils and mast cells?

A

Their granule content

57
Q

Besides the location where they are found, what is the difference between a monocyte and a macrophage?

A

Monocyte contains peroxidase while macrophage does not.

58
Q

Macrophage found in lungs

A

Alveolar

59
Q

Macrophage found in liver

A

Kupffer cells

60
Q

Macrophage found in the brain

A

Microglial cells

61
Q

Macrophage found in tissues

A

Histiocytes

62
Q

Macrophage found in skin

A

Langerhans cells

63
Q

Macrophage found in bone.

A

Osteoclast

64
Q

_______ is mistaken as a megakaryocyte.

A

Osteoclast

65
Q

_______ is mistaken as plasma cells.

A

Osteoblast

66
Q

Sensor for extracellular killing by phagocytes.

A

Pathogen recognition receptors

67
Q

Which TLR mediates response against gram positive bacteria?

A

TLR2

68
Q

Which TLR mediates response against gram negative bacteria?

A

TLR4

69
Q

Steps of phagocytosis.

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Chemotaxis
  3. Engulfment
  4. Digestion and Excretion
70
Q

Migration of neutrophils and monocytes to the site of injury.

A

Chemotaxis

71
Q

Bacterial capsule is usually made up of _____.

A

Polysaccharide

72
Q

Which bacteria have amino acid (D-glutamic acid) capsule instead of the usual polysaccharide capsule?

A

Bacillus anthracis

73
Q

Without this, the movement of the WBCs is said to be random.

A

Chemotaxin

74
Q

Substances that coat particles and other organisms and make them more susceptible to phagocytosis.

A

Opsonins

75
Q

A substance released by bacteria, injured tissue, and WBC that stimulates the movement of neutrophils and other WBCs to the injured area.

A

Chemotaxins

76
Q

“To prepare for eating”

A

Opsonization

77
Q

The release of cellular substances (as secretory products) contained in cell vesicles by fusion of the vesicular membrane with the plasma membrane and subsequent release of the contents to the exterior of the cell.

A

Exocytosis

78
Q

Give one example of a chemotaxin.

A

C5a

79
Q

Give one example of an opsonin.

A

C3b

80
Q

More commonly used process of eliminating phagocytosed organisms.

A

Oxygen-dependent process (oxidative burst)

81
Q

Defensins and cathepsin G are associated with which process of eliminating phagocytosed organisms?

A

Oxygen-independent process

82
Q

Movement of WBCs towards the signal.

A

Positive chemotaxis

83
Q

Movement of WBCs away from the signal.

A

Negative chemotaxis

84
Q

Part of the cell that contains digestive enzymes.

A

Lysosome

85
Q

Enzymes found in aerobic microorganisms but not in anaerobic microorganisms.

A

Superoxide dismutase, catalase

86
Q

Central killing of microbe.

A

NADPH oxidase

87
Q

An abnormality in chemotaxis with the presence of abnormal random movements.

A

Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome

88
Q

An abnormality in chemotaxis with the presence of normal random movements.

A

Job’s syndrome

89
Q

Impaired NADPH oxidase production; phagocytes cannot kill ingested organisms.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

90
Q

Traditional test for CGD.

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium dye test

91
Q

Positive result for nitroblue tetrazolium dye test for CGD.

A

Blue precipitates

92
Q

What is the expected result for patients with CGD in a nitroblue tetrazolium dye test?

A

Negative. Absence of blue precipitates

93
Q

The specimen for testing CGD.

A

Leukocyte concentrate

94
Q

The latest test for CGD.

A

Flow cytometric assay

95
Q

During flow cutometric assay for CGD, neutrophils are labeled with _____.

A

Dihydrorhodamine (DHR)

96
Q

During flow cytometric assay for CGD, neutrophil is activated using _____.

A

Phorbol Myristate Acetate (PMA)

97
Q

Expected result for the flow cytometric assay for patients with CGD.

A

Less fluorescence

98
Q

Blood group and its specific phenotype associated with CGD.

A

McLeod phenotype of Kell blood group

99
Q

The 1st blood group discovered by AHG test.

A

Kell

100
Q

How many blood groups are discovered?

A

39

101
Q

Detachment of gravid segments.

A

Apolysis

102
Q

”Cell suicide”

A

Apoptosis

103
Q

”Cell murder/killing”

A

Necrosis

104
Q

Pyrogenic interleukin that causes fever and causes the APRs to increase.

A

IL-1

105
Q

Interleukin responsible for the activation and proliferation of B and T cells.

A

IL-2

106
Q

Passing of phagocyte through the blood vessel wall.

A

Diapedesis

107
Q

Important cytokine in NK cell development.

A

IL-15

108
Q

Which substances are released by NK cells?

A

Granzymes and perforins

109
Q

Granzymes and perforins are also present in which cell besides NK cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

110
Q

Which enzyme induce programmed cell death in the target cell?

A

Granzymes

111
Q

A membrane-disrupting protein released by NK cells and cytotoxic T cells.

A

Perforin

112
Q

Overall reaction of the body to tissue injury or invasion by an infectious agent.

A

Inflammation

113
Q

Significance of inflammation

A

To attract phagocytes to the site of injury

114
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation which is a result of increased blood flow to the site of injury.

A

Rubor / redness

115
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation which is a result of the exudation of fluid.

A

Tumor / swelling

116
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation which is a result of increased blood flow, exudation of fluid and release of mediators.

A

Calor / heat

117
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation which is a result of stretching pain receptors and nerves by inflammatory exudates, chemical mediators.

A

Dolor / pain

118
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation which is a result of pain and disruption of tissue structure.

A

Functio laesa / loss of function

119
Q

Vascular response during inflammation.

A

Vasodilation, mas cell release histamine

120
Q

Which cells primarily respond to inflammation?

A

Neutrophils and macrophages

121
Q

Resolution and repair after inflammation is initiated by _____.

A

Fibroblast proliferation