CHAPTER 6: Cytokines Flashcards
The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called
a. redundancy.
b. pleiotropy.
c. autocrine stimulation.
d. endocrine effect.
b. pleiotropy.
Which of the following effects can be attributed to IL-1?
a. Mediation of the innate immune response
b. Differentiation of stem cells
c. Halted growth of virally infected cells
d. Stimulation of mast cells
a. Mediation of the innate immune response
Which of the following precursors are target cells for IL-3?
a. Myeloid precursors
b. Lymphoid precursors
c. Erythroid precursors
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
A lack of IL-4 may result in which of the following effects?
a. Inability to fight off viral infections
b. Increased risk of tumors
c. Lack of IgM
d. Decreased eosinophil count
d. Decreased eosinophil count
Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
a. IFN-γ
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. IL-10
c. IL-2
Which of the following represents an autocrine effect of IL-2?
a. Increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
b. Macrophages signaled to the area of antigen stimulation
c. Proliferation of antigen-stimulated B cells
d. Increased synthesis of acute-phase proteins throughout the body
a. Increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
IFN-α and IFN-β differ in which way from IFN-gamma?
a. IFN-α and IFN-β are called immune interferons, and IFN-gamma is not.
b. IFN-α and IFN-β primarily activate macrophages, whereas IFN-gamma halts viral activity.
c. IFN-α and IFN-β are made primarily by activated T cells, whereas IFN-gamma is made by fibroblasts.
d. IFN-α and IFN-β inhibit cell proliferation, whereas IFN-gamma stimulates antigen presentation by class II MHC molecules.
d. IFN-α and IFN-β inhibit cell proliferation, whereas IFN-gamma stimulates antigen presentation by class II MHC molecules.
A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms?
a. IL-2
b. TNF
c. IL-12
d. IL-7
b. TNF
IL-10 acts as an antagonist to what cytokine?
a. IL-4
b. TNF-α
c. IFN-gamma
d. TGF-β
c. IFN-gamma
Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?
a. Blast formation
b. T-cell proliferation
c. Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis
d. ELISA testing
d. ELISA testing
Selective destruction of Th cells by the human immunodeficiency virus contributes to immune suppression by which means?
a. Decrease in IL-1
b. Decrease in IL-2
c. Decrease in IL-8
d. Decrease in IL-10
b. Decrease in IL-2
Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient?
a. Stimulate activity of NK cells
b. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
c. Decrease the production of TNF
d. Increase production of mast cells
b. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
Which of the following would result from a lack of TNF?
a. Decreased ability to fight gram-negative bacterial infections
b. Increased expression of class II MHC molecules
c. Decreased survival of cancer cells
d. Increased risk of septic shock
a. Decreased ability to fight gram-negative bacterial infections
Which cytokine acts to promote differentiation of T cells to the Th1 subclass?
a. IL-4
b. IFN-α
c. IL-12
d. IL-10
c. IL-12
What is the major function of T regulatory cells?
a. Suppression of the immune response by producing TNF
b. Suppression of the immune response by inducing IL-10
c. Proliferation of the immune response by producing IL-2
d. Proliferation of the immune response by inducing IL-4
b. Suppression of the immune response by inducing IL-10
