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ISTQB > Chapter 5 - Quiz > Flashcards

Chapter 5 - Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and the tester?

A

→ The test manager plans, coordinates and controls the testing activities, while the tester automates the tests

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2
Q

Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?

A

→ When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer.

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3
Q

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester

A

→ Create the detailed test execution schedule

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4
Q

Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:

A

→ Designed by a person from a different organization

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5
Q

During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: ‘90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.’ Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?

A

→ The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release

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6
Q

Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead/Leader

I. Write and update the test plan

II. Support setting up the defect management system

III. Facilitate test completion activities

IV. Create the detailed test execution schedule

V. Evaluate non-functional characteristics

A

I. Write and update the test plan

II. Support setting up the defect management system

III. Facilitate test completion activities

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7
Q

Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?

A

I. Develop or review a test policy and test strategy for the organization LEADER

II. Review tests developed by others TESTER

III. Plan the test activities LEADER

IV. Support the selection and implementation of tools LEADER

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8
Q

Which of the following are potential drawbacks of independence in testing?

I. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development team

II. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality

III. Project managers will not have as much control on the project

IV. Customers may end up requesting features that are technically impossible

A

I. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development team

II. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality

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9
Q

Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

A

→ Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality

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10
Q

Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

I. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project

II. Prepare and acquire Test Data

III. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests

IV. Create the execution schedule

A

II. Prepare and acquire Test Data

III. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests

IV. Create the execution schedule

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11
Q

Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence?
I. Tests designed by a fellow-member of the design team

II. Tests designed by a different group within the organization

III. Tests designed by the code author

IV. Tests designed by different organization

A

III - I - II - IV

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12
Q

As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?

A

→ It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail

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13
Q

Which of the following demonstrates independence in testing (from high level of independence to low level)?

I. Independent testers external to the organization

II. Independent testers from the business organization

III. Independent test team within the organization

IV. Independent developers within the the project team

V. Developers testing their own code

A
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14
Q

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?

A

Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing

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15
Q

Question #5.1.08

Which of the tasks below is typically done by a tester (not a test manager)?

A

Design, set up and verify test environment(s)

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16
Q

Question #5.1.14

Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

A

An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software

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17
Q

Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?

A

Independent testers of a vendor can report in an upright and objective manner

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18
Q

You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an

Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

A

Approach of testing

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19
Q

If your test strategy is based on the list of the ISO 25010 quality characteristics, what type of strategy is it?

A

Methodical

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20
Q

A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?

A

Acceptance test plan

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21
Q

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

A

Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

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22
Q

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

A

To coordinate multiple test levels or test types

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23
Q

Question #5.2.39

Exit Criteria may criteria include:

I. The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit

II. The evaluated levels of performance efficiency is sufficient

III. A defined level of coverage has been achieved

IV. Availability of test items that have met the exit criteria for any prior test levels

A

I. The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit

II. The evaluated levels of performance efficiency is sufficient

III. A defined level of coverage has been achieved

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24
Q

Question #5.2.40

Test planning activities may include:

I. Determining the risks of testing

II. Writing test cases

III. Budgeting for the test activities

IV. Making decisions about the resources required to perform the various test activities

A

I. Determining the risks of testing

III. Budgeting for the test activities

IV. Making decisions about the resources required to perform the various test activities

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about “Test planning”?

a. Test planning is a continuous activity

b. Feedback from the development activities is used to recognize risks in the test plan

c. Planning may be documented in separated test plans for different test levels and types

d. Test plan outlines test activities for development and maintenance projects

A

→ a,c,d are correct

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26
Q

Choose the correct definition of “Test strategy”?

A

→ Provides a generalized description of the test process

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27
Q

“Risk-Based” testing is an example of ……………… test strategy.

A

→ Analytical

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28
Q

“Reliability growth model” is an example of …………….. test strategy

A

→ Model-based

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29
Q

…. test strategy relies on making systematic use of some predefined set of tests or test conditions.

A

→ Methodical

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30
Q

Implementing tests based on external rules and standards, this is an example of ……………… test strategy.

A

→ Process-compliant

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31
Q

Getting advice, guidance and instructions of stakeholders, this is an example of ………………. test strategy.

A

→ Directed

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32
Q

“Designing reusable testware and extensive automation of testing at one or more test levels”, these are examples for …………… test strategy.

A

→ Regression-averse

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33
Q

“Exploratory testing” is a technique employed in ……………… test strategies.

A

→ Reactive

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34
Q

After defining the test strategy, we begin choosing the test approach which is the starting point for selecting the …

A

→ Test levels, test techniques, test types

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35
Q

The quality of test basis is one of the ….. that influence the test effort.

A

→ Product characteristics

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36
Q

“The stability of the organization, the test approach and the test process”, are examples of the ….. that influence the test effort.

A

→ Development process characteristics

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37
Q

Which of the following is the definition of “metrics-based” technique that is used in test estimation?

A

→ Estimating the test effort based on typical values or on former similar projects

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38
Q

Which of the following is the definition of “expert-based” technique that is used in test estimation?

A

→ Estimating the test effort based on the experience of the owners of the testing tasks

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39
Q

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?

A

→ Budget which was used by a previous similar test project

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40
Q

Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?

A

→ Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining risks

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41
Q

The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:

  1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test. → REACTIVE
  2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving regulation. → STANDARD-COMPLIANT
  3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing. → ANALYTICAL
  4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with external security experts. → CONSULTATIVE
A
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42
Q

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

  1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent → EXIT CRITERIA
  2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests are now out of scope → EXIT CRITERIA
  3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified → ENTRY CRITERIA
  4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones → EXIT CRITERIA
  5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked → ENTRY CRITERIA
  6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing. → ENTRY CRITERIA
A
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43
Q

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

A

→ With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing activities predict the expected testing effort

44
Q

You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed testers and others on the project. The team is well coordinated and has already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar projects, published by a reputable consultant.

Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?

A

→ Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based approach

45
Q

You are defining the process for carrying out product risk analysis as part of each iteration on an

Agile project. Which of the following is the proper place to document this process in a test plan?

A

→ Approach of Testing

46
Q

Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from system testing?

A

→ All severity 1 defects must be resolved

47
Q

If your test strategy is based on the list of the ISO 25010 quality characteristics, what type of strategy is it?

A

→ Methodical

48
Q

Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?

A

→ The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert-based approach relies on team wisdom

49
Q

A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primary goal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for this document?

A

→ Acceptance test plan

50
Q

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

  1. A defined level of code coverage has been archived → EXIT CRITERIA
  2. The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured → ENTRY CRITERIA
  3. The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined → EXIT CRITERIA
  4. The performance test environment has been set up and available → ENTRY CRITERIA
  5. The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined → ENTRY CRITERIA
  6. The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further → EXIT CRITERIA
A
51
Q

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

A

→ The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

52
Q

When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best types of test cases to use are those that

A

→ Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product

53
Q

Test planning has which of the following major tasks?

I. Determining the scope, objectives, and risks of testing

II. Selecting metrics for test monitoring and control

III. Designing and prioritizing test cases and sets of test cases

IV. Determining the level of detail and structure for test documentation

A
54
Q

What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?

A

→ To coordinate multiple test levels or test types.

55
Q

Planning poker is

A

→ Expert-based technique

56
Q

Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below?

A. Analytical approach

B. Model-based approach

C. Reactive approach

D. Consultative approach

I. Relies on guidelines from domain experts → CONSULTATIVE

II. Includes exploratory testing → REACTIVE

III. Uses statistical information about the non-functional characteristic → MODEL-BASED

IV. Focuses on areas of greatest risk → ANALYTICAL

A
57
Q

An expert based test estimation is also known as

A

→ Wideband Delphi

58
Q

Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?

A

→ A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts

59
Q

Question #5.4.01

You are working as a project manager on an in-house banking software project. To prevent rework and excessive find/fix/retest cycles, the following process has been put in place for resolving a defect once it is found in the test lab:

a) The assigned developer finds and fixes the defect, then creates an experimental build
b) A peer developer reviews, unit tests, and confirmation tests the defect fix on his/her desktop
c) A tester – usually the one who found the defect – confirmation tests the defect fix in the development environment
d) Once a day, a new release with all confirmed defect fixes included, is installed in the test environment
e) The same tester from step 3 confirmation tests the defect fix in the test environment

Nevertheless, a large number of defects which the testers confirmed as fixed in the development environment (in step 3) are somehow failing confirmation testing in the test environment, with the resulting rework and cycle time outcomes. You have the highest confidence in your testers, and have ruled out mistakes or omissions in step 3.

Which of the following is the MOST likely part of the process to check next?

A

Configuration management, which may not be maintaining the integrity of the product in step 4

Configuration management maintains the integrity of the software. If a test that passes in step 3 fails in step 5, then something is different between those two steps. One possible difference is the test object, the option listed here. Another possible difference is the between the development environment and the test environment, but that is not an option listed here

60
Q

Question #5.4.03

Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:

I Identify and document the characteristics of a test item.

II Control changes to the characteristics of a test item.

III Check a test item for defects introduced by a change.

IV Record and report the status of changes to test items.

V Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect.

Which of the following statements is true?

A

I Identify and document the characteristics of a test item.

II Control changes to the characteristics of a test item.

IV Record and report the status of changes to test items.

61
Q

During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?

A

Configuration control

62
Q

A discipline applying technical and administrative direction and surveillance to identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a configuration item, control changes to those characteristics, record and report change processing and implementation status, and verify compliance with specified requirements.

A

Configuration management

63
Q

Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

A

Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object

64
Q

Question #5.4.08

From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?

I. Identifying the version of software under test

II. Controlling the version of testware items

III. Developing new testware items

IV. Tracking changes to testware items

V. Analyzing the need for new testware items

A

I. Identifying the version of software under test

II. Controlling the version of testware items

IV. Tracking changes to testware items

65
Q

A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

A

Facilities to compare test results with expected results

66
Q

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A

Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and the expected impact of that event

67
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?

A

The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture

If the expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product risk

68
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY influencing the testing?

A

Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so additional testing will not be performed in that area.

As less defects than expected have been found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation

69
Q

Product risks exist when a work product may fail to satisfy legitimate needs, while project risks are situations that could have a negative impact on the project’s ability to achieve its objectives.

A
70
Q

Question #5.5.05

Consider the following list of undesirable outcomes that could occur on a mobile app development effort:

A. Incorrect totals on reports

B. Change to acceptance criteria during acceptance testing

C. Users find the soft keyboard too hard to use with your app

D. System responds too slowly to user input during search string entry

E. Testers not allowed to report test results in daily standup meetings

Which of the following properly classifies these outcomes as project and product risks?

A

Product risks -> A C D

Project risks -> B E

71
Q

Question #5.5.09

Consider the following list of either product or project risks:

I An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.

II A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.

III A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.

IV A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.

V A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team.

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Product risks -> I III

Project risks -> II IV V

72
Q

Question #5.5.10

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

A

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact of harm from that event

73
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PROJECT risk?

A

Team member’s skills may not be sufficient for the assigned work

74
Q

Question #5.5.23

Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?

A

They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases

75
Q

Question #5.5.12

Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software?

I. Setting an aggressive schedule

II. Integrating complex systems

III. Allocating adequate resources

IV. Failing to control changes

A

I. Setting an aggressive schedule

II. Integrating complex systems

IV. Failing to control changes

76
Q

Question #5.5.13

You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?

A

Failure to accept allowed credit cards

77
Q

Question #5.5.14

What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?

A

Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives;

Product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.

78
Q

Question #5.5.15

User experience (UX) feedback might not meet product expectations is

A

Product risk

79
Q

Question #5.5.16

In prioritizing what to test, the MOST important objective is to:

A

Test high risk areas

80
Q

Question #5.5.18

You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources( work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time

A

Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing

81
Q

Question #5.5.19

What are the main objectives of software project risk management?

A

Reduce the probability of occurrence and decrease the potential impact

82
Q

Question #5.5.21

In which order should tests be run?

A

The most important test first

83
Q

Question #5.5.22

What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?

A

Because testing everything is not feasible

84
Q

Consider the following list of either product or project risks:

I. An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization

II. A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time

III. A defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges

IV. A skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system

V. A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team. Which of the following statements is true?

A

Product risks -> I III

Project risks -> II IV V

85
Q

Question #5.6.01

You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The criteria are as follows:

  • Coffee size (small, medium, large)
  • Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
  • Milk (yes or no)
  • Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)

Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:

  • Title: Low coffee temperature.
  • Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
  • Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
  • Degree of risk: Medium
  • Priority: Normal

What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?

A

Identification of the tested software version

86
Q

Question #5.6.02

You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should actually be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:

  1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
  2. Identification of the test item
  3. Details of the test environment
  4. Urgency/priority to fix
  5. Actual results
  6. Reference to test case specification

Which of this information is most useful to include in the defect report?

A
  1. Details of the test environment
  2. Actual results
  3. Reference to test case specification
87
Q

Question #5.6.03

You are working as a tester on an online banking system. Availability is considered one of the top products (quality) risks for the system. You find a reproducible failure that results in customers losing their connections to the bank Web site when transferring funds between common types of accounts and being unable to reconnect for between three and five minutes.

Which of the following would be a good summary for a defect report for this failure, one that captures both the essence of the failure and its impact on stakeholders?

A

Typical funds-transfer transaction results in termination of customer session, with a delay in availability when attempting to reconnect

88
Q

Question #5.6.04

You have received the following description section in a defect report:

The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect. For example, the information in column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this information.

What is the biggest problem with this defect report?

A

The developer won’t know what the tester expected to see

89
Q

Question #5.6.05

Review the following portion of a defect report, which occurs after the defect ID, time and date, and author.

  1. I place any item in the shopping cart.
  2. I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
  3. I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
  4. I click the button.
  5. I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, ‘No items in the shopping cart. Click to continue shopping’.
  6. I click .
  7. I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing items from the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
  8. The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6.

Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following important aspects of a good defect report is missing from this report?

A

The summary

90
Q

Question #5.6.06

You are testing an e-commerce system that sporadically fails to properly manage customers’ shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority of resolving the underlying defect. The development team is waiting for more information, which you will include in your defect report. Given the following items of information that are included in a typical defect report:

  1. The expected results
  2. The actual results
  3. The urgency and priority to fix this
  4. The date and author of the defect report
  5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

A
  1. The expected results
  2. The actual results
  3. The urgency and priority to fix this
91
Q

Question #5.6.07

You have been testing software that will be used to track credit card purchases. You have found a defect that causes the system to crash, but only if a person has made and voided 10 purchases in a row. What is the proper priority and severity rating for this defect?

A

Priority low, severity high

This is not likely to happen, so the urgency to fix it is low but it does crash the system so the impact to the system is high so the severity should be high.

92
Q

The degree of impact that a defect has on the development or operation of a component or system.

A

Severity

93
Q

Consider the following statements

I. A incident may be closed without being fixed

II. Incidents may not be raised against documentation

III. The final stage of incident tracking is fixing

IV. The incident record does not include information on test environments

A

I. A incident may be closed without being fixed TRUE

94
Q

Question #5.6.10

Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?

A

The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

95
Q

Question #5.6.11

Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?

A

To show how quickly the problem should be fixed

96
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

A

Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test

97
Q

Bug life cycle

A

Opened, assigned, fixed, reopened, assigned, fixed, closed

98
Q

Question #5.6.14

A failure has occurred during system testing and incident report must be raised. The following attributes are available for the report:

I. Tester’s name

II. Date raised

III. Priority (to fix)

IV. Severity (impact on the system)

V. Expected Results

VI. Actual Results

VII. Test case specification identifier

VIII. Failing software function

IX. Tester’s recommendations

Which attributes would be the MOST effective to enable determination of WHEN the incident should be fixed and HOW MUCH effort might be required to apply the fix?

A

IV. Severity (impact on the system)

V. Expected Results

VI. Actual Results

VIII. Failing software function

99
Q

Question #5.6.15

DDP (The defect detection percentage) formula that would apply for calculating DDP for the last level of testing prior to release to the field is

A

DPP = Defects (Testers) / {Defects (field) + Defects (Testers)}

100
Q

Question #5.6.16

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an incident report?

A

Suggestions for correcting the problem

101
Q

Question #5.6.17

The level of (business) importance assigned to an item, e.g., defect.

A

Priority

102
Q

A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:

System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified in the product risk analysis document

System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risks specified in the product risk analysis document

During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defects are resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected during testing. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentage which is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number of field failures. Consider the following list of explanations:

I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed

II. The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find

III. A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used during early testing

IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view

V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available

Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?

A

I. Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed

IV. The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view

V. The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became availabl

103
Q

Question #5.6.19

A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:

Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time

Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape

Severity: High

Priority: Urgent

What important information did the engineer leave out?

A

Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR

104
Q

Question #5.6.20

Incidents would be raised against:

A

Requirements
User manual
Test cases

105
Q

Question #5.6.21

Which of the following is false?

A

Incidents should always be fixed

ISTQB (16 decks)

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