Chapter 5/6 (CH 6 Starts At 60) Flashcards

1
Q

What are storage devices?

A

Storage devices are key components of computing systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common types of storage devices?

A

Common types of storage devices include:
- Hard disk drives (HDDs)
- Solid-state drives (SSDs)
- Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe)
- Flash devices
- Optical discs
- Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?

A

HDDs use magnetic disks encased in a protective shell to store data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the key features of HDDs?

A

Key features of HDDs include:
- Multiple aluminum platters with read/write heads on each side.
- Read/write heads attached to a single access arm.
- Circular tracks on platters forming cylinders.
- Revolutions per minute (RPM) determine data access speed (5400, 7200).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the advantages of HDDs?

A

Advantages of HDDs include:
- High storage capacity (16GB to TBs).
- Low cost per MB.
- Wide availability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the disadvantages of HDDs?

A

Disadvantages of HDDs include:
- Often internal, requiring external enclosures for external use.
- Prone to failure.
- Susceptible to physical damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Solid-State Drive (SSD)?

A

SSDs are flash-based storage devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the advantages of SSDs?

A

Advantages of SSDs include:
- Faster than HDDs.
- No moving parts.
- Lower power consumption.
- Less susceptible to physical and magnetic damage.
- Smaller and lighter than HDDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the disadvantage of SSDs?

A

The disadvantage of SSDs is that they have a higher cost than comparable HDDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe)?

A

NVMe is a storage device that utilizes the PCIe bus for accessing non-volatile memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the design goals of NVMe?

A

NVMe is designed for:
- Low latency.
- Internal parallelism of SSDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the benefits of NVMe?

A

Benefits of NVMe include:
- Reduced I/O overhead.
- Improved functionality by leveraging SSD parallelism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the form factors of NVMe devices?

A

Form factors of NVMe devices include:
- PCIe expansion cards.
- 2.5-inch form factor devices (U.2 connector).
- SATA Express and M.2 devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are flash devices?

A

Flash devices use programmable, non-volatile flash memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the advantages of flash devices?

A

Reprogrammable memory, data retention without power, suitable for devices like cameras, highly portable, larger capacity than CDs and DVDs, fast memory access, inexpensive, storage capacity comparable to modern HDDs, widely compatible with PCs, versatile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some examples of flash devices?

A

CompactFlash cards, SD cards, SSD cards, MiniSD cards, MicroSD cards, hybrid cards (SSD and HDD combination), memory sticks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are optical discs?

A

Optical discs (CDs, DVDs, Blu-ray discs) use lasers to read and write data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do optical discs store data?

A

Data storage mechanism involves pits in reflective coating and laser optics reading deflected output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the advantages of optical discs?

A

Suitable for music and video playback, portable and universal, inexpensive, recordable options available, long shelf life and relative sturdiness, high storage capacity for Blu-ray discs (25 GB or more).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the disadvantages of optical discs?

A

Slower than HDDs, limited capacity for CDs and DVDs (650 MB and 4.7 GB respectively), compatibility issues between formats and readers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE)?

A

IDE is an electronic interface facilitating communication between a motherboard and storage devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Serial ATA (SATA)?

A

SATA is a technology for connecting storage devices to host bus adapters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary use of SATA?

A

Primarily used for hard disk data transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the SATA revisions and their data transfer rates?

A

SATA1: 1.5 Gbps, SATA2: 3 Gbps (hot-plugging, improved connectors, NCQ, port multipliers), SATA3: 6 Gbps (optimized for SSDs, new connectors, transmit emphasis, featured in Xbox One S).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is External SATA (eSATA)?

A

Designed for externally connected devices.

Uses a locking SATA data cable and requires an external power connector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Power over eSATA (eSATAp)?

A

Combines eSATA and USB functionality.

Integrates data and power in a single cable with a unique connector shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the key features of SATA?

A

Individual channels for each drive, cable length up to 1 meter (2 meters for eSATA), and a 15-pin power connector (3.3, 5, and 12 volts).

Compatible devices include HDDs, optical drives, and SSDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the boot drive connection rule for SATA?

A

Boot drive connected to the lowest SATA channel number.

Potential compatibility issues may arise with SATA2 drives on SATA1 motherboards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are optical media?

A

Round, flat media that use lasers for data storage and retrieval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a Compact Disc (CD)?

A

Originally for digital music, later adapted for computer data with 74-80 minutes of audio capacity.

CD-ROM has a capacity of 737 MB (847 MB total) and a data transfer rate of 150 KBps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is a Digital Versatile Disc (DVD)?

A

High-capacity storage for various data types with a 4.7 GB capacity (single-sided).

Types include DVD-ROM (read-only), DVD-R (recordable once), and DVD-RW (rewritable).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a Blu-ray Disc (BD)?

A

Higher capacity than DVDs, developed for high-definition video and data storage.

Capacity includes 25 GB (single-layer) and 50 GB (dual-layer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is RAID?

A

RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) combines multiple physical disks into a logical storage unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the benefits of RAID?

A

Improved performance and fault tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is RAID 0?

A

RAID 0 (striping) offers increased performance with no fault tolerance, requires a minimum of 2 disks, and has no overhead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is RAID 5?

A

RAID 5 (striping with distributed parity) provides fault tolerance for a single disk failure, increased read performance, slower write performance, requires a minimum of 3 disks, and has an overhead of one disk for parity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is JBOD?

A

JBOD (Just a Bunch Of Disks) combines multiple disks into a single volume without RAID configuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the characteristics of JBOD?

A

Spans volume across multiple disks, no striping, data saved sequentially, supports disks of different sizes, and has no performance or fault tolerance benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are file systems?

A

File systems organize and store data on storage devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the components of a file system?

A

Volume, directory (folder), and file.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a volume in a file system?

A

An accessible storage area within a file system, identified by drive letters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a directory in a file system?

A

A container for files and other directories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a file?

A

The basic unit of data organization, identified by a name and extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are common file systems?

A

eXFAT, FAT32, NTFS, CDFS (Linux), NFS (network file system), ext4 (default Linux file system), ext3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is formatting in the context of file systems?

A

Formatting prepares a partition for a specific file system and reformatting deletes all data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is disk partitioning?

A

Partitions are logical divisions of hard disk storage space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the types of Windows disks?

A

Basic and dynamic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a basic disk?

A

Uses primary and extended partitions, supported by all operating systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a dynamic disk?

A

Supports up to 128 volumes, allows noncontiguous disk space, and stores partitioning information in a hidden database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does Disk Management display?

A

Disk Management displays various disk and volume statuses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does ‘Healthy/Online’ status indicate?

A

‘Healthy/Online’ means the disk is accessible and the volume is valid.

52
Q

What does ‘Formatting’ status mean?

A

‘Formatting’ indicates that the volume is being formatted.

53
Q

What does ‘Unallocated’ status signify?

A

‘Unallocated’ means disk space is not assigned to a partition or volume.

54
Q

What does ‘No Media’ status indicate?

A

‘No Media’ means the optical or removable media drive is empty.

55
Q

What does ‘Foreign’ status mean?

A

‘Foreign’ indicates a dynamic disk moved from another system.

56
Q

What does ‘Online (Errors)’ status signify?

A

‘Online (Errors)’ means 1/0 errors are detected on a dynamic disk.

57
Q

What does ‘Unavailable’ status indicate?

A

‘Unavailable’ means there are errors on physical or dynamic disks.

58
Q

What does ‘Missing/Offline’ status mean?

A

‘Missing/Offline’ indicates the dynamic disk has failed, been removed, or is turned off.

59
Q

What does ‘Failed’ status signify?

A

‘Failed’ means the volume cannot be started due to damage or corruption.

60
Q

What is an Upgrade installation type?

A

An Upgrade installation lets you upgrade from an older Windows version to a newer one, preserving your data, settings, and applications.

61
Q

What is a Custom/Clean installation type?

A

A Custom/Clean installation is suitable for new systems or when you want to overwrite all data on the storage device.

62
Q

When should you use a Custom/Clean installation?

A

Use it when there is no operating system installed, the existing OS doesn’t support upgrading, or to create a multi-boot configuration.

63
Q

What is a Repair Installation?

A

A Repair Installation is used to repair registry entries and working files without losing data or applications.

64
Q

What should you check for Installation Preparation?

A

Ensure system compatibility with requirements for the desired Windows version.

65
Q

What are the minimum Windows 11 system requirements?

A

Requirements include a Microsoft-approved CPU, 64 GB storage, 4 GB RAM, DirectX12 compatible graphics, HD 720p display, internet connectivity, and a Microsoft account.

66
Q

Why is Data Backup important before installation?

A

Backing up important data helps avoid loss during installation.

67
Q

What should you gather for Software and License Keys?

A

Locate application software media and license keys for reinstallation after a clean install.

68
Q

What are Third-Party Drivers needed for?

A

Gather any third-party installation media or drivers needed for connected devices.

69
Q

What is a System Image?

A

A System Image is an optional backup to restore your computer to its original state if the clean install fails.

70
Q

What is needed for Installation Media and Product Key?

A

Obtain installation media from a retail store or using the Media Creation Tool, and the product key from the retail store or a Microsoft License Agreement.

71
Q

Why is Software Compatibility important?

A

Ensure all software is compatible with the new operating system and that your system can handle the increased demands.

72
Q

What is an External Drive used for in Windows installation?

A

Use a USB drive or external SSD with enough storage for the Windows source files, additional software, and drivers. Change the boot order in BIOS/UEFI to boot from the external drive first.

73
Q

How do you use Optical Media for Windows installation?

A

Change the boot order to boot from the optical drive. Start the installation by booting from the installation disc. Load drivers for the RAID array controller if necessary.

74
Q

What steps are involved in installing from an ISO file?

A

Download the Windows installation media in ISO format, burn it to a DVD, or put it on a USB drive. To install from an ISO file on an existing Windows system:
1. Right-click the ISO file and select ‘Mount.’
2. Run the ‘setup.exe’ file from the mount point.

75
Q

What is Image Deployment?

A

Install a base Windows system on one computer and use disk duplication to copy it to other computers’ hard drives. This method is faster than traditional installation but works best when the destination system’s hardware matches the source system’s hardware. Ensure licensing compliance if using a standard license.

76
Q

What is Remote Network Installation?

A

In an enterprise environment, configure the system to boot from its network interface using PXE. The system connects to a Windows Remote Installation server, loads a minimal OS, and starts the installation from a shared folder. You can also use IBCM for clients not connected to an internal network.

77
Q

How can you recover a PC that won’t start correctly?

A

If your PC has a recovery partition, use it to recover the PC. You’ll have options to reset or access advanced options like system restore or recovering from a drive.

78
Q

What are the steps in the Installation Process?

A
  1. Insert Installation Media: Insert or connect to the installation media and boot from it.
  2. Load Files: Windows loads the necessary files to start the installation. You might need to load additional drivers for the storage controller.
  3. Partition and Format Drive: Select the disk for Windows installation. Choose an existing partition or have the installer create and format one.
  4. File Copy: Windows copies files to the hard disk. After copying, the system reboots. Leave the installation media in the drive until prompted to remove it.
  5. Configuration: Windows configures the system, prompting you to verify and set up country or region, keyboard layout, device name, and other settings.
79
Q

What are the Post-Installation Tasks?

A
  1. Configure Boot Order: Change BIOS/UEFI settings to boot from the hard drive to prevent accidental booting from the installation media.
  2. Activate Windows: Activate Windows with a valid digital license or product key. Check activation status in Windows Settings.
  3. Configure Windows Update: Configure Windows Update and download the latest updates through ‘Settings’ > ‘Windows Update’ > ‘Check for Updates.’
  4. Configure Anti-Malware: Use Windows Security and/or install and configure third-party firewall, anti-malware, and anti-virus applications.
80
Q

What does configuring the user environment involve?

A

Managing user settings and data.

81
Q

How can you customize the Start menu?

A

By adding apps and folders.

82
Q

What is the purpose of configuring the taskbar?

A

To provide quick access to tools.

83
Q

What elements are included in setting up the desktop environment?

A

Background and lock screen.

84
Q

What is Cortana?

A

A digital assistant that can be activated and configured.

85
Q

What options can be configured for accessibility?

A

Various settings to assist users with disabilities.

86
Q

What is cloud computing?

A

Software, data access, computation, and storage services delivered over the internet.

87
Q

What is a Public Cloud?

A

A cloud that is accessible to anyone, often provided for free or for a fee.

Examples include Google services like Gmail and Google Docs.

88
Q

What is a Private Cloud?

A

Resources provided to a single organization, accessible only to its users.

89
Q

What is a Community Cloud?

A

A shared cloud for multiple organizations, accessible only to users within those organizations.

90
Q

What is a Hybrid Cloud?

A

A combination of public, private, and community clouds from different providers.

91
Q

What is one advantage of cloud computing?

A

Shared resources that can be adjusted to each client’s needs.

92
Q

What does Metered Utilization in cloud computing mean?

A

On-demand computing that allows resources to be billed based on usage.

93
Q

What is Rapid Elasticity in cloud services?

A

The ability to automatically adjust scalable services as needed.

94
Q

What does High Availability in cloud computing ensure?

A

Resources are accessible anytime, anywhere, and on any device.

95
Q

What is File Synchronization?

A

Automatic synchronization of file changes across the organization.

96
Q

How do cloud providers enhance security?

A

By authenticating users, controlling access, and monitoring usage.

97
Q

What is IaaS?

A

Infrastructure as a Service, providing infrastructure components to clients.

98
Q

What is PaaS?

A

Platform as a Service, offering tools for developers to build applications.

99
Q

What is SaaS?

A

Software as a Service, delivering software applications over the internet.

100
Q

What is virtualization?

A

Virtualization is a technology that uses software to represent components like applications, NICs, or entire computers, allowing multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical machine (virtual machines).

101
Q

What are the benefits of virtualization?

A

Benefits of virtualization include sandbox virtualization, application virtualization, legacy software access, cross-platform virtualization, and hardware optimization.

102
Q

What is sandbox virtualization?

A

Sandbox virtualization creates isolated testing environments to safely develop, test, install, or upgrade software without affecting the production network.

103
Q

What is application virtualization?

A

Application virtualization installs and accesses applications virtually, reducing licensing costs, improving accessibility, and simplifying installation and maintenance.

104
Q

What is legacy software access in virtualization?

A

Legacy software access provides access to outdated or proprietary software, even on systems running updated operating systems.

105
Q

What is cross-platform virtualization?

A

Cross-platform virtualization enables an operating system to access applications designed for a different OS.

106
Q

What is hardware optimization in virtualization?

A

Hardware optimization optimizes physical hardware usage by enabling the processor to handle multiple tasks concurrently.

107
Q

What is a host machine?

A

A host machine is a physical server with the hardware required for virtualization, sharing its resources among virtual machines (VMs) managed by the hypervisor.

108
Q

What is a hypervisor?

A

A hypervisor is a software layer between the virtual OS and hardware, allowing VMs to interact with hardware directly.

109
Q

What is a virtual machine?

A

A virtual machine is a software-based computer that executes programs like a physical machine, appearing as a self-contained system on a host server or PC.

110
Q

What is a virtual hard disk (VHD)?

A

A virtual hard disk (VHD) is a file simulating a hard disk for a virtual machine within the host operating system.

111
Q

What role does a switch play in virtualization?

A

A switch facilitates communication between VMs by checking data packets, and can be software installed on the VM or part of the server firmware.

112
Q

What is a vRouter?

A

A vRouter is software that performs the functions of a physical router, allowing routing functions to be moved around the network.

113
Q

What is a virtual firewall application (VFA)?

A

A virtual firewall application (VFA) is software functioning as a network firewall, providing packet filtering and monitoring on a virtual machine.

114
Q

What is Hyper-V?

A

Hyper-V is a hypervisor that acts as a software layer between the virtual operating system and the hardware, enabling VMs to interact with the hardware directly.

115
Q

What are the types of hypervisors?

A

Types of hypervisors include Type 1 (Bare Metal), which acts as the OS on the physical host machine, and Type 2, which runs as a software application on an existing OS.

116
Q

How many VMs can a host machine support?

A

The number of VMs supported depends on the host machine’s components and allocated resources, with over-provisioning being common, which can reduce the host’s efficiency.

117
Q

What is easier to adjust in virtualization, CPU and RAM allocations or storage space?

A

Adjusting CPU and RAM allocations is easier than adjusting storage space.

118
Q

What does System Resource Access manage?

A

Manages access to CPU, storage, and RAM.

119
Q

What are the hypervisor options?

A

Hyper-V (Windows), VMWare Workstation, Virtual Box (Oracle).

120
Q

How to enable Hyper-V in Windows 11?

A

Go to ‘Control Panel’ > ‘Programs’ > ‘Programs and Features’ > ‘Turn Windows features on or off.’ Expand ‘Hyper-V’ and select ‘Hyper-V Management Tools’ and ‘Hyper-V Platform.’

If the ‘Hyper-V Platform’ option is grayed out, virtualization support is disabled in the firmware. Refer to BIOS/firmware documentation to enable it.

121
Q

What happens after enabling Hyper-V?

A

The system will restart multiple times to enable Hyper-V.

122
Q

What is needed to configure virtual networking?

A

Choose the network type (external, internal, or private) and use the Virtual Switch Manager to select a NIC if configuring an external virtual network.

123
Q

What are the steps to create a virtual machine in Hyper-V?

A

Run Hyper-V Manager and specify: VM name, VM generation, RAM allocation, shared network switch, VHD file (new or existing), optical drive or ISO file for OS installation.

124
Q

How to start the virtual machine?

A

Power it on in Hyper-V Manager. Install an OS if you created a new VHD file.

For Windows installations, install Integration Services (IS) after installation for enhanced performance.

125
Q

What are the benefits of installing Integration Services?

A

Improved VM performance through Hyper-V-aware drivers, copy-paste functionality between host and guest OS, smooth mouse movement in and out of the Virtual Machine Connection window.

126
Q

How to move the virtual machine?

A

Use the Virtual Machine Connection window to interact with the VM, starting, stopping, pausing, and taking snapshots.