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INCOSE ASEP Certification > Chapter 5 > Flashcards

Chapter 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Q01: Which of these processes are not Technical Management Processes? (choose 2)
A. Decision Management Process
B. Quality Managment Process
C. Risk Management Process
D. Configuration Management Process
E. Knowledge Management Process

A

B/E

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2
Q

Q02: Which technical management process aims at checking that project performance is according to plans and schedule? (Choose 1)
A. Project Planning Process
B. Information Management Proces
C. Quality Assurance Process
D. Project Assessment and Control
E. Decision Management Process

A

D

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3
Q

Q03: What is the purpose of the Quality Assurance process? (Choose 1)
A. To produce and coordinate effective and workable plans
B. To identify, analyze, treat and monitor the risks continually
C. To help ensure the effective application of the Organisatision’s Quality Management Process to the project
D. To assure that products, service and Implementation of the quality management process meet organizational and project quality objectives and achieve customer satisfaction

A

C

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4
Q

Q04: Which of the following are outputs of the Project Planning process? (Choose 3)
A. SEMP
B. Project status report
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
E. PUSI

A

A/C/D

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5
Q

Q05: Which techniques can be used for activities of Decision Management process ? (Choose 2)
A. CCB
B. MODA
C. TPM
D. Monte Carlo simulations
E. ECR

A

B/D

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6
Q

Q06: Which of the following are inputs of the Configuration Management process? (choose 2)
A. Project change request
B. Configuration baselines
C. Configuration management strategy
D. Candidate information items
E. Candidate configuration items

A

A/E

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7
Q

Q07: According to INCOSE, the level of a risk is determined by the combination of 2 variables. Which ones? (choose 1)
A. Uncertainty and consequence
B. Likelihood and impact
C. Risk and opportunity
D. Probability and impact
E. Likelihood and consequence

A

E

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8
Q

Q08: Which of the following are outputs of the Measurement process (choose 3)?
A. Measurement report
B. Measurement data
C. Measurement record
D. Measurement strategy
E. Measures of effectiveness

A

A/C/D

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9
Q

Q09: Which of the following are activities of the Quality Assurance process? (choose 4)
A. Treat incidents and problems
B. Perform process evaluation
C. Perform product and service evaluation
D. Plan quality management
E. Manage QA records and reports

A

A/B/C/E

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10
Q

Q10: Which of the following are technical measures manipulated by the Measurement process? (choose 3)
A. Key performance indicators (KPI)
B. Measures of performance (MOP)
C. Multiple objective decision analysis (MODA)
D. Key performance parameters (KPP)
E. Technical performance Measures (TPM)

A

B/D/E

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11
Q

Q11: Which of the following are opportunities of the use of the Decision Management process during Production stage of the life-cycle? (choose 2)
A.Perform make-or-buy decision
B.Craft a technology development strategy
C. Select test and evaluation methods
D. Select production process and location
E. Inform, generate, and refine a capability development document

A

A/D

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12
Q

Q12: Which of the following are inputs to the Project Assessment and Control process? (choose 3)
A. Project portfolio
B. Project budget
C. Project schedule
D. Information repository
E. Project change request

A

B/C/D

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13
Q

Q13: Which of the following are inputs for the Information Management process? (choose 2)
A. Information repository
B. Project change requests
C. Candidate information items
D. Information management strategy
E. Measurement strategy

A

B/C

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14
Q

Q14: Which of the following are sub-activities of the Project Planning process? (choose 3)
A. Evaluate project progress against established criteria and milestones
B. Analyze the project proposal and related agreements to define the project objectives, scope, and constraints.
C. Establish a work breakdown structure (WBS) based on the evolving system architecture
D. Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the performance of project activities
E. Plan the acquisition of materials, goods, and enabling system services

A

B/C/E

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15
Q

Q15: Which of the following are common approaches and tips for the Project Assessment and Control process (choose 2)
A. Maintain a risk profile
B. Projects should avoid the collection of measures that are not used in decision making
C. Conduct regular team meetings
D. Use IPDTs to break down communications and knowledge stovepipe

A

B/C

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16
Q

Q16: Which of the following are indicators collected to perform Configuration Status assessment? (Choose 3)
A. Number of deviations or waivers by Configuration Item
B.Percentage of requirements verified
C. Number of changes processed, adopted, rejected, and open
D.Processing times and effort for deviations, waivers, ECs, SCNs, ECRs, and problem report
E.Comment ratio for source code

A

A/C/D

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17
Q

Q17: Which of the following are common QA techniques? (choose 3)
A.Peer reviews
B.Root cause analysis
C.Sampling
D.Checklist
E.Quality audits

A

B/D/E

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18
Q

Q18: Which of the following are basic approaches to treat a risk? (choose 4)
A. Accept it
B. Ignore it
C. Transfer it
D. Control it
E. Avoid it

A

A/C/D/E

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19
Q

Q19: Which of the following are some challenges of the Information management process? (choose 2)
A.Assess the need for Key Performance Parameters
B.Maintaining the requirements database
C.Security of data
D. Sharing data across multiple platforms and organizations

A

C/D

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20
Q

Q20: Which of the following are popular root cause analysis methods? (Choose 3)
A.FMECA
В.Five why’s technique
C. N2 diagrams
D.Ishikawa diagrams

A

A/B/D

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21
Q

Q21: Security of information assets generally deals with 3 criteria. Which ones ? (choose 3)
A.Accuracy
B.Confidentiality
C.Completeness
D. Integrity
E. Availability

A

B/D/E

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22
Q

Q22: Which are the only 3 ways to remove a risk? (choose 3)
A.Stretch the schedule
B.Set technical goals very low
C.Assess the likelihood of a risk
D. Supply unlimited funds
E. Pay for an insurance

A

A/B/D

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23
Q

Q23: Which are objectives of the measurement process? (choose 3)
A. Make key trade-offs
B. Define and document risk thresholds and acceptable and unacceptable conditions
C. Communicate effectively throughout the project organization
D. Write design justification files
E. Track specific project objectives

A

A/C/E

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24
Q

Q24: Which of the following should the SEMP contain? (choose 2))
A. Recommendations for adjustments to project plans
B. Decision management strategy for the project
C. Approach and methods used for planning and executing the technical processes
D. Responsibilities and authority of the key positions
E. Treatment scheme and resource for each risk

A

C/D

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25
Q

Q25: Which of the following are outputs of the Decision Management process? (Choose 2)
A. Decision Justification File
B. Decision record
C. Decision management strategy
D. Decision management plan
E. Decision situation

A

B/C

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26
Q

Q26: Which of the following are activities of the Decision Management process? (Choose 2)
A. Perform release control
B.Perform configuration change management
C. Perform project assessment
D. Plan configuration evaluation
E. Plan project change requests

A

A/B

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27
Q

Q27: Which of the following are common approaches and tips of the Project Assessment and Control Process? (Choose 2)
A. Identify critical areas and control them
B. Conduct regular team building events
C. Create a WBS
D. Collect many KPIs
E. Conduct regular team meetings

A

A/E

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28
Q

Q28: Which of the following are preparatory activities for information management? (Choose 2)
A. Establish tailoring of organization procedures and practices to carry out planned efforts
B. Define and document risk thresholds and acceptable and unacceptable risk conditions
C. Define system-relevant information, storage requirements, access privileges and the duration of maintenance.
D. Establish a representation for domain models and domain architectures
E. Support establishing and maintaining a system’s data dictionnary

A

C/E

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29
Q

Q29: Which of the following are categories of project risks? (Choose 3)
A. Integrity risk
B. Technical risk
C. Availability risk
D. Cost risk
E. Schedule risk

A

B/D/E

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30
Q

Q30: Which of the following are common approaches and tips of the Configuration Management Process (choose 2)
A. Begin the configuration management process when the system is ready for integration
B. Establish a Configuration Control Board (CCB)
C. Write a Configuration Management Plan tailored to conduct procedures for CM
D. Establish a Non Conformance Board (NCB)
E. Establish a Test Review Board (TRB)

A

B/C

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31
Q

What are technical management processes used for? Choose 4
A. To execute plans
B. To terminate plans after fulfillment
C. To establish and Evolve Plans
D. To define organization business objective
E. To achieve actual Achievement and progress against the plan
F. To control execution through fulfillment

A

A/C/E/F

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32
Q

When are technical management processes invoked? Choose 1
A. Any time and any level in the LC
B. In the beginning of the LC
C. After the realization of the business plan

A

A

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33
Q

What is the purpose of project planning? Choose 1
A. To establish a business plan
B. To facilitate the planning objectives of the organization
C. To produce and coordinate effective and workable plans

A

C

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34
Q

The project planning process is performed in the context of
A. Stakeholders
B. Users
C. Organization
D. Operators
Choose 1

A

C

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35
Q

Project Planning Includes the determination of which of the following
A. Need for specialized equipment
B. Need for requirements
C. Need for facilities
D. Need for specialists
Choose 3

A

A/C/D

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36
Q

The project planning process works concurrently with which process?
A. Life Cycle Management Process
B. Information Management Process
C. Measurement
D. Knowledge Management Process
Choose 1

A

A

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37
Q

Project Planning establishes and identifies:
A. Technical Performance Measures for Validation
B. Project direction and Infrastructure to enable project control
C. Details of work
D. Stakeholder list and priority
E. Personel, skills, facilities
F. Schedule for needed resources
Choose 4

A

B/C/E/F

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38
Q

The SEMP identifies
A. Resources
B. Activities
C. Reviews
D. Work packages
E. Quality Assurance
Choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

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39
Q

IPDTs are used to
A. Integrate Product Development Tests
B. Break down communications and knowledge stovepipes
C. Determine the feasibility of a project plan
Choose 1

A

B

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40
Q

Project Management and SE intersect in which activity?(choose 1)
A. Requirements Definition
B. Creation of WBS
C. Creation of RFPs and Contracts

A

B

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41
Q

The project value should be expressed in terms of:(choose 1)
A. Earned Value Report
B. Measures of Success
C. Technical Performance Measures
D. IPDTs

A

C

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42
Q

Risk Assessment should be include in which part of a project
A. Early in Planning process
B. Early in Control and Assessment
C. Development
D. Decision Making

A

A

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43
Q

In what way do systems engineers and project managers collaborate
A. SE perform technical management activities consistent with project objectives
B. SE plan, schedule, review and audit the SE process.
C. SE establish the base for which project managers can develop a technically sound project
Choose 2

A

A/B

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44
Q

What are the roles of the SEMP
A. Defines how project will be organized, structured, defined
B. Defines how project management can coordinate with systems engineers
C. Defines how the engineering process will be controlled
D. Enables systems engineer to manage team daily
Choose 3

A

A/C/D

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45
Q

What is true for the SEMS
A. Tool for project control
B. Details Verification activities
C. Identifies critical path of technical activities in a project
D. Details Validation activities
E. Guideline for integrated project management effort
Choose 3

A

A/B/C

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46
Q

SEMP is supported by
A. Project or contract WBS
B. Hierarchy documents
C. Architecture Definition description
D. Business Analysis strategy
Choose 1

A

A

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47
Q

TPMs are
A. A tool for project planning
B. A tool for project control
C. Detailed in SEMP
D. Detailed in SEMS
Choose 2

A

A/C

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48
Q

What is the role of SEMP in the lifecycle
A. It defines a roadmap for sustained supportability of system
B. Should be prepared early in the project for concept and development stage
C. Should be prepared before beginning concept stage
Choose 1

A

B

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49
Q

The creation of SEMP involves
A. Identifying high priority stakeholders
B. Definition of SE processes
C. Functional Analysis Approaches
D. Logical Models
E. Trade studies
F. Schedule
G. Organizational Roles and Responsibilities
Choose 5

A

B/C/E/F/G

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50
Q

SEMP reports which of the following
A. Major Deliverables of project
B. Decision database
C.information repository
D. Specifications and Baselines
Choose 3

A

A/B/D

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51
Q

Who is involved in creation of SEMP?
A. User
B. System Engineer
C. Stakeholders
D. Project Managers
E. Subject Matter Experts
Choose 4

A

A/B/D/E

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52
Q

The process inputs portion of SEMP identifies
A. Customer specs from RFP, SOW, Standards
B. Previously developed specs for similar systems
C. Technical objectives documents
D. System Specification
E. Technical requirements document
Choose 3

A

A/B/D

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53
Q

Technical Reviews are essential to
A. Ensure system will meet requirements and ensure requirements are understood by development team
B. Ensure readiness to proceed to the next stage of the life cycle
Choose 1

A

A

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54
Q

Formal Reviews are essential to
A. Ensure system will meet requirements and requirements are understood by development team
B. Ensure readiness to proceed to next stage of the life cycle

A

B

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55
Q

In terms of risk management, what should be detailed in the SEMP
A. Ensure TPMs are met for any critical technology
B. Identification of critical technology
C. Outline steps for risk management of critical technology
Choose 2

A

B/C

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56
Q

The training plan in the SEMP should include
A. Analysis of performance
B. Operator/trainer manuals
C. Behavior shortfalls
D. Required training to remedy deficiencies
E. Schedules to achieve proficiency
Choose 4

A

A/C/D/E

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57
Q

What is mentioned in the SEMP regarding Verification
A. Items to be Verified
B. Verification priority
C. Methods to verify performance
D. Responsible members
Choose 3

A

A/C/D

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58
Q

What is the purpose of project assessments?
A. Maintain good communication with customers
B. Maintain good communication with stakeholders
C. Maintain good communications within project team
Choose 2

A

B/C

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59
Q

What does the project assessment and control process do?
A. Identify details of work effort and expected results.
B. Collect data to evaluate adequacy of infrastructure
C. Checks availability of resources
D. Evaluates compliance with project performance measures
E. Monitor technical progress and identify risks
Choose 4

A

B/C/D/E

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60
Q

What are the decision situations in concept stage?
A. Assess alternate solution classes
B. Assess technology opportunity/ business case
C. Generate initial capability document
D. Generate BA strategy
E. Generate capability development document
F. Conduct analysis of alternatives supporting program initiation decision
Choose 4

A

B/C/E/F

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61
Q

What are the decision situations in development stage?
A. Define system requirements
B. Select System Architecture
C. Select lower level elements
D. Select test and evaluation methods
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

62
Q

What are the decision situations in production?
A. Choose configuration for production
B. Perform make or buy decision
C. Select production process and location
Choose 2

A

B/C

63
Q

A formal decision management process is
A. Transformation of decision situation into recommended course of action
B. Definition of implementation plan
C. Choosing the most sustainable alternate
Choose 2

A

A/B

64
Q

The decision management process is executed by who
A. High priority stakeholders
B. Decision maker with sole authority of decision
C. Decision Analyst with reasoning tools
D. Subject matter experts with performance models
E. Representative set of end users
Choose 4

A

B/C/D/E

65
Q

What are the most commonly employed decision management methods
A. DMDT
B.MODA
C.Trade Offs
Choose 2

A

B/C

66
Q

What are the best decision management processes?
A. Framing and Tailoring decisions
B. Applying MODA to uncertainties
C. Developing objectives and measures
D. Generating creative alternatives
E. Assessing alternatives via probabilistic analysis
F. Assessing alternatives via deterministic analysis
G.synthesizing results
H. Communicating trade offs
I. Making a knowledge repo.
Choose 6

A

A/C/D/F/G/H

67
Q

How do you deal with multiple objective decisions?
A.use information from SRD, requirements management and requirements definition process to create objectives and measures.
B. Assign a measure to score every fundamental objective
C. Rank objectives in terms of highest priority.
Choose 2

A

A/B

68
Q

What is a source of uncertainty in SE trade off analysis?
A. System concepts are described as a collection of system element design choices but lack discussion of component level design decisions
B. Measures may be incorrectly allocated to non-priority objectives
Choose 1

A

A

69
Q

How do you determine the impact of uncertainty after all scores and uncertainty of measures are captured?
A. Kyrgzacht models for impact analysis
B. Monte Carlo simulations
C. DIBMUA models
D. Decision trees
E.influence diagrams
Choose 3

A

B/D/E

70
Q

What are sensitivity analyses that can be done to asses the risk and sensitivity of decisions?(choose 3)
A. Line Diagrams
B. Spiral Diagrams
C. Waterfall Diagrams
D. Tornado Diagrams
E. Shockwave Fallout Diagram

A

B/C/D

71
Q

What is important while communicating trade offs?
A. Highlight design decisions that provide best stakeholder value
B. Communicate combinatorial effects of various design decisions
C.highlight competing objectives
D. Highlight trade off analysis methodology
Choose 3

A

A/B/C

72
Q

What can have a significant impact on an the performance of the risk management process?
A. Organization structure
B. Organization culture
C. Organization strategy
D. Enabling systems
Choose 2

A

A/B

73
Q

What is the objective of the risk management process?
A. Identify and manage opportunities
B. Identify and manage uncertainties that threaten organization value
C. Eradicate risk and uncertainty
D. Achieve balance between risk and opportunity
Choose 2

A

B/D

74
Q

What is true while engaging in the risk management process:
A. Every modification of an existing system arises with the intention to identify and reduce risks
B. Every modification of an existing system arises in pursuit of an opportunity
C. Risk is always present in the life cycle of a system
Choose 2

A

B/C

75
Q

What is true for external risks?
A. They are the most threatening form of risks in a system
B. They are often neglected
C. Project participants have no control over external risks
D. Project participants can take proactive measures to reduce external risk
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

76
Q

What is the correct way to identify a risk: Choose 1
A. If “situation” then “consequence” for “stakeholder”
B. If “event” then “probability” of “impact”
C. If “situation” of “probability” then “consequence” for “stakeholder”

A

A

77
Q

What can be used to Id risks:
A. Prior experience
B. Lessons Learned
C. Checklists
D. Technical process analyses like FMECA
E. RAD
choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

78
Q

What is true about opportunities and risks:
A. As risks are minimized, opportunities are also minimized
B. As risks are minimized, opportunities are maximized
Choose 1

A

B

79
Q

What are technical risks?
A. Possibility that a technical requirement may not e achieved
B. When system may fail to meet operability, producibility, test ability, integration requirements
C. When system fails to meet environmental protection requirements
D. When the TPMs of a system cannot be achieved.
Choose 3

A

A/B/C

80
Q

Cost risk exists if:
A. The project makes a loss
B. The project loses investment
C. Project must devote more resources than planned to achieve technical requirements
D. Addition of resources to support slipped schedule
E. Changes in number of items to be produced
F. Changes in economy
Choose 4

A

C/D/E/F

81
Q

Schedule risk exists if:
A. Project fails to meet delivery date
B. Project fails to meet scheduled milestones
C. Inadequate allowance for acquisition delays
D. Difficulty in achieving technical accomplishments
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

82
Q

What are the steps to be taken to avoid or control unnecessary risks:
A. Adequate V&V activities
B. Requirements Scrubbing
C. Selection of most promising option
D. Staffing and team building
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

83
Q

Once a risk management strategy and a risk profile have been established, the three key risk management activities are: (Choose 3)
A. Accept the risk
B. Analyze the risk
C. Treat the risk
D. Control the risk
E. Monitor the risk

A

A/C/E

84
Q

Which of the following statements are true about analyzing risks:
A. Assign stakeholders for each risk
B. Identify and evaluate the likelihood and consequence of each risk
C. Set priorities and focus on areas of risk with greatest consequences
D. Invite stakeholders and personnel to contribute to identifying risks
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

85
Q

What are the steps to analyze the risks to a project that has similarities to existing systems?
A. Determine information needs
B. Define basic characteristics of the new system as a basis for identifying past projects that are similar in technology, function, design
C. Based on data availability, analogous systems or system elements are selected and data is gathered
D. Data may need to be adjusted for use as comparisons to prior systems may not be exact
E. Get the desired output of cost, schedule, technical risks based on observations of past projects.
F. Use brain storming using SWOT analysis and Delphi techniques
Choose 5

A

A/B/C/D/E

86
Q

In the most general form, risk analysis should:
A. Capture spectrum of outcomes relative to cost, schedule, technical performance
B. Risk needs to be analyzed objectively
C. Risk needs to be analyzed subjectively
D. Be able to be conducted by expert interviews and models
Choose 3

A

A/C/D

87
Q

Severity of consequences of a risk is an attribute of:
A. The risk event
B. The person or group affected by the risk
C. The likelihood
Choose 1

A

B

88
Q

Occurrence of a risk event will have different effects on people depending upon:
A. The stakeholder priority
B. Their specific situation and perspective at time of occurrence
C. Their unique personal values, perceptions and sensitivities
D. The cultural imposition on various perspectives
Choose 2

A

B/C

89
Q

If different groups display a significant variance in assessment of risk consequence, what should be done?
A. Consider the risk of the highest priority groups of stakeholders
B. Take an average of the assessment of the different groups
C. Separate assessments into uniquely identified risk statements
D. Detail the reference of affected person and specific effects unique to them
Choose 2

A

C/D

90
Q

What are the two levels of opportunities and risks?
A. System and element level
B. Macro and Element level
C. Tactical and subsystem level
Choose 1

A

B

91
Q

The purpose of configuration management is:
A. Manage and control system elements and configurations
B. Manage and control system and configurations
C. Manage consistency between product and configuration definition
Choose 2

A

A/ C

92
Q

What is true for configuration management:
A. Configuration management ensures the effective management of the evolving configuration of hardware and software during the lifecycle
B. It involves the establishment, control, maintainence of software and hardware baselines
C. Baselines are business, budget, performance and product reference points
D. Baselines can be created continuously
E. Baselines are established by review and acceptance of requirements, design specs
F. Baseline creation coincides its project milestones or decision gates
Choose 5

A

Everything except D

93
Q

The primary output of the configuration management process is:
A. The configuration report
B. The configuration baseline wherein items are placed under formal control as a part of the decision making process
Choose 1

A

B

94
Q

What are the standards for configuration management:
A. ISO 10007
B. IEEE 828
C. ANSI 649B
D.ISO 9000
Choose 3

A

A/B/C

95
Q

There are three types of baselines at the system level:
A. Physical Baseline
B. Functional Baseline
C. Product Baseline
D. Allocated baseline
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

96
Q

What do systems engineers do when faced with a change?
A. They try to avoid and/or prevent the change
B. They ensure that the change is necessary
C. They ensure that the change is cost effective
Choose 2

A

B/C

97
Q

What does the CMP (Configuration Management Plan) contain:
A. Baseline definition strategy
B. Scope of items covered by plan
C. Resources and skill required
D. Tasks to be performed
E. Organizational roles and responsibilities
F. Config management tools and processes
Choose 5

A

B/C/D/E/F

98
Q

Configuration management ensures integrity by:
A. Ensuring a formal process to identify a change
B. Facilitating approved changes
C. Preventing incorporation of unapproved changes
Choose 2

A

B/C

99
Q

An engineering change proposal may originate in a number of ways:
A. When the configuration management see non compliance to specs
B. Customer request to address change in requirements or scope
C. Supplier request due to unexpected technology breakthroughof system element
D. Supplier request due to need for changes in a system under development
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

100
Q

After an ECP is approved to be reasonable, what takes place?
A. The configuration board makes a decision
B. Analysis to understand impact on cost, schedule, and existing plans
Choose 1

A

B

101
Q

It is inappropriate to request for an ECP in which situation:
A. When the requirements pose a high technical risk
B. To request for a change in cost without a change in scope
C. To request for a change in schedule without a change in scope
Choose 2

A

B/C

102
Q

When do you issue an engineering notice?
A. In accordance with an ECP
B. For minor changes that need to be approved
Choose 1

A

B

103
Q

The most desirable outcomes of an ECP cycle are:
A. System functionality is altered to meet changing requirement
B. New tech or product extends the system capabilities beyond those initially required in a desirable way
C. Costs of dev, utilization, support are reduced
D. Reliability and availability of system is improved
E. Life cycle length is shorted and time to market is improved
Choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

104
Q

Configuration management must apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to do the following:
A. Identify and document function and physical characteristics of CI
B. Establish controls to allow changes in these characteristics
C. Concur in product release and ensure consistent products via baseline products
D. Maintain traceability
E. Record, track, report change processing
F. Characterize changes in different classes according to risk level
Choose 5

A

A/B/C/D/E

105
Q

What is configuration identification?
A. Definition of all the elements in a configuration baseline
B. Identification of all the elements within configuration baseline
C. Facilitates the creation for master inventory lists of baselines
D. System is decomposed into CIs which serve as critical elements subjected to formal control
Choose 3

A

B/C/D

106
Q

What is reflected in the CI list?
A. The names of the CIs and their unique identifiers
B. Items that are developed
C. Items that are vender produced
D. Items provided by customer for integration into final system
E. Deliverable items under contract
F. Items used to produce deliverable items
Choose 5

A

B/C/D/E/F

107
Q

What does the change request problem statement include:
A. In-depth risk analysis of change and impact
B. Description of change
C. Reason for change
D. Impacts on cost and schedule
E. Affected docs
Choose 4

A

B/C/D/E

108
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining status of all proposed changes?
A. Configuration control board
B. Project management team
C. Configuration management organization
Choose 1

A

C

109
Q

The CCB is implemented to approve all changes to CIs. Who is responsible for changes below the CI level?
A. Configuration Management Organization
B. Hardware And Software integration board
C. Specialist teams
D. Satellite Boards
Choose 1

A

D

110
Q

Changes that fall within review board jurisdiction should be evaluated for:
A. Technical, necessity
B. Compliance with reqs
C. Compatibility with documents
D. Project impact
E. Cost analysis
Choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

111
Q

Since changes are written while hardware and software are being produced, the review board should asses the following impacts:
A. The cost of reproduction of already produced items
B. All parts, materials and processes are specifically approved for use on project
C. The design can be fabricated using the methods indicated
D. Project quality and reliability assurance reqs are met
E. Design is consistent with interfacing designs
Choose 4

A

B/C/D/E

112
Q

What are problem/change requests used for?
A. Class 1 changes
B. Class 2 changes
C. Documenting problems and recommending enhancements
D. Used to identify problems during design, development, integration, V&V
Choose 2

A

C/D

113
Q

What is a specification change notice (SCN) used for?
A. Class 1 changes
B. Class 2 changes
C. Propose/transmit/ record changes to baseline specs
Choose 1

A

C

114
Q

ECPS are used for:
A. Class 1 changes
B. Class 2 changes
C. Identify advantages of changes, available alternatives, funding required
Choose 2

A

A/C

115
Q

Status tracking includes which sub activities:
A. Check in and check out of source code
B. RFVs
C. Builds of CIs
D. Deviation of manufactured items
E. Waiver status
F. CI list
Choose4

A

A/C/D/E

116
Q

What is the purpose of the functional configuration audit?
A. Validate the development of CI has been completed and has achieved the performance and functional chars specified in system specification (functional baseline).
B. To verify the as-built configuration maps to the technical documentation (physical baseline).

A

A

117
Q

What is the physical configuration audit?

A. Validate the development of CI has been completed and has achieved the performance and functional chars specified in system specification (functional baseline).
B. To verify the as-built configuration maps to the technical documentation (physical baseline).

A

B

118
Q

The purpose of information management process is to ____________ of information to stakeholders
A. Create
B. Generate
C. Obtain
D. Identify
E. Confirm
F. Transform
G. Retain
H. Retrieve
I. Disseminate
J. Dispose
Choose 8

A

B/C/E/F/G/H/I/J

119
Q

Information management does what?
A. Plan, execute, control provision of information to stakeholders
B. Identify, communicate, confirm provision of information to stakeholders
C. Disseminate, verify, control provision of information to stakeholders
Choose1

A

A

120
Q

The type of information managed by Information managing is:
A. Presentable
B. Finalized
C. Modifiable
D. Traceable
E. Consistent
F. Verifiable
Choose 5

A

A/C/D/E/F

121
Q

Information includes:
A. Technical
B. Project
C. Contractual
D. Organizational
E. Agreement
F. User
Choose 5

A

A/B/D/E/F

122
Q

Information management maintains the integrity of system life cycle artifacts by:
A. Properly storing information
B. Readily providing information on demand
C. Maintain information
D. Secure information
E. Make information accessible
Choose 4

A

A/C/D/E

123
Q

What are some of the ways to provide access to information stored in data repositories?
A. Email
B. Web based access through intranets
C. Verification codes
D.Database queries
E. Security access and privileges
Choose 3

A

A/B/D

124
Q

What are some standards related to information management:
A. ISO 17799
B.ISO 10303
C. ISO 9000
D. AP 239
Choose 3

A

A/B/D

125
Q

The information management plan details:
A. Scope of information that is maintained
B. Type of information that is maintained
C. Resources and personelle skill level
D. Tasks to be performed
E. Establishes the information management sole authority
F. Defines rights, obligations, commitments of parties for generation, management and access
G. Tools and processes, methodologies, standards, procedures
Choose 5

A

A/C/D/F/G

126
Q

Typical information includes:
A. Source docs from stakeholders
B. Support ability plans
C. Contracts
D. Agreements
E. Project planning docs
F. Verification docs
G. Engineering analyses reports
H. Files maintained by configuration management
Choose 6

A

A/C/E/F/G/H

127
Q

The purpose of the measurement process is to
A. Measure data
B. Measure objectives
C. Collect, analyze, report objective data and information
D. Demonstrate the quality of products, services, processes
Choose 2

A

C/D

128
Q

The purpose of the measurement process is to
A. Measure data
B. Measure objectives
C. Collect, analyze, report objective data and information
D. Demonstrate the quality of products, services, processes
Choose 2

A

C/D

129
Q

The key SE measurement objective is to:
A. Measure the SE process and work products
B. Measure objectives to analyze artifacts of the SE process
Choose 1

A

A

130
Q

Measurement provides objective information to help the product manager:
A. Communicate with work package leaders
B. Communicate effectively throughout the project organization
C. Identify and correct problems early
D. Force preventative action against problems
E. Make key trade offs
F. Track specific project objectives
G. Defend and Justify decisions
Choose 5

A

B/C/E/F/G

131
Q

How are specific measures defined?
A. Based on the type of decisions to be taken
B. Based on the availability of measurement tools and procedures
C. Based on information needs
D. Based on how the information will be used to make decisions
Choose 2

A

C/D

132
Q

Select the correct logical sequence of events:
A. Measurement influences information which influence decisions
B. Decisions generate information which influences measurements
C. Decisions define measurements which generate information
Choose 1

A

B

133
Q

Which of the following statements are true?
A. Measures should be reviewed regularly by measurement stakeholders
B. Reviews should be conducted at decision gates
C. Reviews should be conducted monthly
Choose 2

A

A/B

134
Q

The measurement plan should include what?
A. MOEs
B. MOPs
C. TPMs
D. Measures related to technical and programmatic execution
E. Measures related to technical performance
Choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

135
Q

The best measures:
A. Are verifiable and executable
B. Require minimal effort to collect
C. Repeatable
D. Straightforward
E. Unambiguous
F. Presented in format on a weekly/monthly basis with trend data
Choose 4

A

B/C/D/F

136
Q

What methods are used to present data to measurement stakeholders?
A. Measurement graphs
B. Line diagrams
C. Spiral diagrams
D. Control charts
Choose 2

A

/
B/C

137
Q

Why should we separate measures related to development process and measures related to product performance?
A. To foster communication
B. To prevent unnecessary redundancies
C. Both processes have different stakeholders
Choose 1

A

C

138
Q

Process oriented measures can be broken down based on the organization goals of:
A. Technical performance
B. Cost
C. Risk management
D. Schedule
E. Quality
F. V&V
Choose 3

A

B/D/E

139
Q

Leading indicators are a process related measure that is:
A. Measure for evaluating the effectiveness of how a specific activity is applied on a program in a manner that provides information about impacts that are likely to effect system performance.
B. Measure for evaluating the effectiveness of how a specific activity is applied on a program in a manner that provides information about impacts that are likely to effect SE effectiveness objectives.
C. Predictive of future performance before performance is realized.
D. Draws on trend information
E. Leading indicators gather information in the same way as existing measures but it simply presented differently.
Choose 4

A

A/B/C/D

140
Q

What are some examples of leading indicator trends:
A. Requirements Trends
B. Requirements Validation trends
C. Requirements growth trends
D. Interface trends
E. Technical risk trends
Choose 3

A

A/B/D

141
Q

What are MOEs and MOPs
A. They are process oriented measures
B. They are product oriented measures
C. MOEs are how well system achieves its intended purpose (achievement of mission)
D. MOPs are how well system achieves its intended purpose
E. MOES characterize physical or functional attributes of the system
F. MOPs characterize physical or functional attributes of the system
Choose 3

A

B/C/F

142
Q

What is the relation between MOEs, MOPs, KPPS and TPMS
A. MOEs are the users key indicators of achieveing the mission needs for performance, suitability, affordability.
B. MOPs are physical attributes important to ensure that system has capability to achieve MOPs.
C. KPPs are those capabilities and characteristics so important that failure to meet the threshold value for can cause for the concept or system to be reevaluated or terminated. They are the minimum number of of performance parameters needed to characterize the major drivers of operational performance, support ability and interoperability.
D. TPMs measure attributes of a system element to determine how well a system or system element satisfies a technical req or goal.
E. TPMs are derived from or give insight to MOPs
F. KPPS support MOEs
G. MOPS realize MOEs
H. SEMP defines approach to TPMs
ALL ARE CORRECT

A

ALL ARE CORRECT

143
Q

What happens if a project manager does not consider TPMs?
A. He relies on cost and schedule status alone.
B. He has to put in double the V&V effort which leads to schedule delays and cost overruns
C. Leads to development on time and within cost that does not meet all technical requirements
Choose 2

A

A/C

144
Q

What provides continuous verification of the degree of anticipated and actual technical achievement of technical parameters?
A. MOEs
B. MOPs
C. KPPS
D. TPMs
Choose 1

A

D

145
Q

What is the purpose of the quality assurance process?
A. To ensure the delivery of a system that meets all the qualitative and quantitative requirements and needs of the customer.
B. To ensure application of organization quality management process.
C. To ensure customer satisfaction
Choose 1

A

B

146
Q

Quality assurance process offers a means to:
A. Introduce checks and balances into development process to ensure errros or cost or schedule Pressures do not lead to uncontrolled process or procedural changes.

A

That’s the answer.

147
Q

What is the difference between quality assurance and quality control?
A. Quality assurance focus is during development activities (proactive)
B. Quality control is associated with inspection after development (reactive).
C. Quality assurance focus associated with inspection after development (reactive).
D. Quality control is during development activities (proactive)
Choose 2

A

A/B

148
Q

Which process is responsible for identification, analysis, and control of anomalies detected during life cycle activities?
A. Quality Management Process
B. Validation and Verification
C. Project assessment and control
D. Quality Assurance process
Choose 1

A

D

149
Q

What are incidents and problems?
A. Incidents are anomalies that require immediate attention
B. Problems are anomalies that require immediate attention.
C. Incidents are non-conformities that can cause systems to not meet requirements
D. Problems are non-conformities that can cause systems to not meet requirements
Choose 2

A

A D

150
Q

How to measure QA effectiveness?
A. Evaluate product validation results
B. Evaluate product verification results
C. Analyze stats from process audits
D. Product discrepancy reports
E. Customer satisfaction monitoring
F. Incident reporting
Choose 5

A

B/C/D/E/F

151
Q

What are the guidelines for QA approaches?
A. CMMI
B.ISO 9001
C. Organization quality management policy
D. Verification and Validation procedure
Choose 3

A

A B C

152
Q

Root cause analysis techniques include
A. Ishikawa diagrams
B. Mermaid diagrams
C. Five whys technique
D. Six sigma
E. FTA
Choose 3

A

A/C/E

INCOSE ASEP Certification (14 decks)

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