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2M051B Vol 1 > Chapter 4 Self Test > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Self Test Flashcards

0
Q

(025) 2. How many different positions can the sling link and shackle be installed on the MHU-186/E?

A

Six

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1
Q

(025) 1. Which handling unit is used to support a cruise missile for storage, transportation, and handling?

A

Guided missile handling unit (MHU-159/E)

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2
Q

(025) 3. Which technical order will you follow when completing prior to use inspections on the guided missile test stand?

A

TO 35D3-11-45-2

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3
Q

(025) 4. Which piece of equipment is used to store the cruise missile engine once it has been removed from the missile?

A

The missile engine handling truck (ETU-102/E)

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4
Q

(026) 1. List the five components that make up the fuel set.

A

Skid, storage tank, trap tank, fuel nozzle, and loose hoses

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5
Q

(026) 2. List the 10 components that make up the skid.

A

Control panel, bleed-down tank, dehydrator tank, hygrometer, flowmeter, two fuel pumps, vacuum pump, filters, storage drawer, and a rack to store hoses

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6
Q

(026) 3. What is the purpose of the bleed-down tank?

A

It is used to hold the fuel removed from missile tanks 2 and 3 during fueling operations.

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7
Q

(026) 4. For what purpose is the hygrometer used?

A

To determine fuel moisture content

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8
Q

(026) 5. What protection does FLT 3 provide during fueling operations?

A

It is a coalescing-type filter that removes all types of solid contaminants from the fuel down to a submicron level, and, at the same time, combines the free water into drops that settle to the sump of the filter separator.

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9
Q

(026) 6. Which systems do FLT 4 and FLT 5 protect?

A

The nitrogen and air systems on the fuel set.

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10
Q

(026) 7. Which skid component contains the majority of gauges, valves, and switches required for operation of the fuel set?

A

The control panel

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11
Q

(026) 8. Which fuel storage tank valve prevents an overflow of fuel during servicing by shutting off fuel flow at the facility fuel supply inlet to the fuel set?

A

Float valve, V75

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12
Q

(026) 9. Where do the trap tank’s hoses connect to the missile?

A

The missile vent connections

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13
Q

(027) 1. What is the purpose of the ESTS?

A

To allow for a rapid and automatic method of testing complex systems and their components; and provide the means for verifying the operational readiness of components undergoing testing.

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14
Q

(027) 2. List the items that can be tested or checked out using the ESTS.

A
  • AGM86 B/C
  • B-52H LRUs
    • Decoder/receiver
    • NucSLU
  • B-52H CSRL
    • Empty/loaded missile check
    • Empty nuclear bomb check
  • B-52H pylon
    • Empty/loaded pylon check
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15
Q

(028) 1. Where is the ESTS computer located?

A

In the main rack

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16
Q

(028) 2. State the purpose of the isolation ground plate.

A

It provides a single-point ground for all units within the ESTS, any adapters, the UUT, and required support equipment.

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17
Q

(028) 3. List the facility input power requirements of the UUT power control rack.

A

120/208-VAC, 60-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 60 amperes per phase; 115/200-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 30 amperes per phase; and 230/400-VAC, 400-Hz, 3-phase power rated at 15 amperes per phase

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18
Q

(028) 4. Which ESTS unit provides the interface between the operator and the ESTS?

A

CRT display station

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19
Q

(028) 5. List the three types of printouts available from the ESTS printer.

A

As run, Logged data, and List source

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20
Q

(028) 6. Why is commercial equipment used within the ESTS?

A

Commercial equipment that met ESTS requirements was used in lieu of designing new asemblies

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21
Q

(029) 1. Which ESTS systems use 1A3 computer data?

A

The digital system and the monitor and interrupt system

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22
Q

(029) 2. Why is the digital system vital to ESTS operations?

A

So the computer, which operates in digital, can communicate with the various analog systems.

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23
Q

(029) 3. What are the two sections of the switching system?

A

Measurement input switching and double-pole double-throw (DPDT) switching

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24
Q

(029) 4. How are signals from the analog stimuli system output to the UUT?

A

via the 1A16 patchboard receiver

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25
Q

(029) 5. Why does the monitor and interrupt system receive inputs from other ESTS assemblies?

A

To monitor voltages and currents throughout the entire ESTS system.

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26
Q

(029) 6. What are the two main parts of the ESTS software system?

A

Self test and UUT

27
Q

(029) 7. What are the two separate types of cooling air systems used within the ESTS?

A

A blower-operated system using room ambient air. A closed-loop system of air conditioning units.

28
Q

(030) 1. What controls and programs the operation of the ADTS?

A

The 1A3 computer

29
Q

(030) 2. What’s the purpose of the 3A1 power control drawer?

A

To control the application or removal of AC input power to the assemblies within the ADTS.

30
Q

(030) 3. What is the 3A7 EMI filter used for?

A

To filter out any 60-Hz input power irregularities and prevent EMI propagation within the ADTS.

31
Q

(030) 4. What is the purpose of the ADTC?

A

To accurately simulate and measure pneumatic pressures associated with a cruise missile in flight.

32
Q

(030) 5. What’s the purpose of the 3A3 blower?

A

The 3A3 blower circulates room ambient air to cool the 3A5 vacuum pump.

33
Q

(030) 6. What is the purpose of the 3A4 air dryer module?

A

It dries and removes contaminates from the pressurized air supplied to the pneumatic lines of the 3A2 ADTC.

34
Q

(031) 1. What are the major assemblies of the MRATA?

A

Active loop drawer A1, Passive loop drawer A2, Power supply assemblies A3, A6, A7, Blower A4, Power control drawer A5

35
Q

(031) 2. Which major MRATA assembly can simulate an altitude rate of change for pulsed-type altimeters?

A

Active loop drawer A1

36
Q

(031) 3. What does the A2 passive loop drawer provide?

A

Manual or programmable simulated fixed altitudes, frequency-modulated/continuous-wave type altimeter rate control, and RF signal self-test

37
Q

(031) 4. How many fixed DC output power supplies does each power supply assembly (A3, A6, or A7) contain?

A

Three

38
Q

(031) 5. What does the power control drawer A5 provide?

A

Protection (fusing), control, and distribution of the AC and DC power within the MRATA.

39
Q

(032) 1. What is the CV-3643/GSM-263 signal data converter used for?

A

To buffer and condition analog signals coming from the missile, and then transmits these signals to the ESTS.

40
Q

(032) 2. Why is the interface provided by the buffer drawer necessary?

A

To prevent damaging currents from reaching the missile circuits and is used to isolate missile ground circuits from the test equipment circuits.

41
Q

(032) 3. What power supplies are located in the power supply drawer?

A

A 6-VDC power supply (PS1), +15 VDC power supply (PS2), and -15VDC power supply (PS3)

42
Q

(033) 1. What do the MXU-690/E electronics components cooling equipment do?

A

Filters, regulates, and monitors airflow to numerous missile systems, LRUs, launchers, and pylons during functional checkout, fault isolation, or bench checkout

43
Q

(033) 2. How many cooling air circuits does the CCU contain?

A

Three

44
Q

(033) 3. What is the facility air pressure requirement for CCU input air?

A

95 (+/- 25) psig

45
Q

(033) 4. What does the CCU intermediate pressure control do?

A

It further regulates cooling air to the INE and Section 41 cooling air circuits

46
Q

(033) 5. What indicates the flow of air within the INE cooling air circuit?

A

FM1

47
Q

(033) 6. What is the purpose of the section 41 cooling air circuit?

A

To cool components located in the nose cap of the ALCM.

48
Q

(034) 1. How many pylons can the B-52H carry and where on the place are they attached?

A

Two pylons; one under each wing between the fuselage and the inboard engines

49
Q

(034) 2. Within how many months must an empty pylon test have been run in order to certify a pylon ready for missile upload?

A

Within the last 24 months

50
Q

(034) 3. During ground testing of a pylon, what provides cooling air for the ECS closed-loop system?

A

CCU

51
Q

(034) 4. What purpose do the pylon attach points serve that interface with the aircraft?

A

These attach points interface with the aircraft’s pylon jettison release system to allow for emergency jettison.

52
Q

(034) 5. In regards to the CSRL, after the launch of one weapon, the rotary launcher rotates the next selected weapon to which position?

A

The six o’clock position

53
Q

(034) 6. Within the CSRL monitor and control system, what provides the electrical interface for the missiles?

A

The MIU

54
Q

(035) 1. Pylon testing is performed in which two modes?

A

End-to-end and maintenance mode

55
Q

(035) 2. Which TO will you use when performing the empty rotary launcher test?

A

11N-L5005-8

56
Q

(035) 3. During pylon/launcher level III testing, what are malfunctions isolated down to?

A

Shop replaceable unit (SRU)

57
Q

(035) 4. Which component provides the electrical interface between the nuclear weapon and the aircraft weapon delivery avionics control unit (WDACU)?

A

The NucSLU

58
Q

(036) 1. Before a weapons handling team attempts to move a munitions package, what must occur first?

A

The team must be certified on the task

59
Q

(036) 2. Which type of movement normally involves a munitions package being moved between storage facilities?

A

Inner area movements

60
Q

(036) 3. What type of movement requires more security and occurs outside a fenced in area?

A

Outer area movement

61
Q

(036) 4. What must you have in your possession and physically checked off prior to moving a munitions package?

A

Checklist

62
Q

(036) 5. Who must you stay in contact with before, during, and after a munitions movement?

A

Munitions control

63
Q

(037) 1. Which test is used to verify communication between the weapon and the aircraft?

A

Missile Interface Test (MIT)

64
Q

(037) 2. Which test performs missile alignment, targeting, and checkout of weapon interface equipment and weapon control equipment?

A

System Interface Test (SIT)

65
Q

(038) 1. What is performed in the event of a failure during a MIT or SIT?

A

Fault analysis

66
Q

(038) 2. Why is fault analysis performed?

A

To categorize, isolate, and unmistakably identify aircraft, CSRL, pylon, and missile faults.

2M051B Vol 1 (8 decks)

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