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Leaving Cert Home Economics > Chapter 4: Food comodities > Flashcards

Chapter 4: Food comodities Flashcards

1
Q

Classify fish

3

A
  • white fish
  • oily fish
  • shellfish
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2
Q

List examples of white fish

3

A
  • cod
  • whiting
  • place
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3
Q

List examples of oily fish

3

A
  • salmon
  • tuna
  • mackerel
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4
Q

List examples of shellfish

3

A
  • lobster
  • muscles
  • crab
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5
Q

List the nutrients present in fish

6

A
  • protein
  • fat
  • carbohydrates
  • vitamins
  • minerals
  • water
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6
Q

Describe the nutritive value of protein in fish?

3

A
  • it is of high biological value
  • the protein actin and myosin are present in the myomers
  • the protein collagen is found in the connective tissues
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7
Q

Describe the nutritive value of fat?

3

A
  • in the form of omega 3
  • the omega 3 fatty acids involve ERA and DHA
  • small amounts of cholesterol are present
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8
Q

Describe the nutritive value of carbohydratesin fish

1

A

-none present

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9
Q

Describe the nutritive value of vitamins in fish

3

A
  • B
  • A
  • D
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10
Q

Describe the nutritive value of minerals in fish

3

A
  • iodine
  • iron
  • calcium
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11
Q

Describe the nutritive value of water

2

A
  • depends on fat content in fish

- i.e. if water content is high fat content will be low

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12
Q

What makes up the structure of a fish?

4

A
  • myomers
  • connective tissue
  • fat
  • outer layer
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13
Q

Describe how myomers make up the structure of a fish.

3

A
  • short, thick, fibres arranged in a broad vertical bond
  • contains the proteins actin and myosin
  • contains minerals, vitamins, water and extractives
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14
Q

Describe how connective tissues make up the structure of a fish
(5)

A
  • holds myomers in place
  • the tissue contains the protein collagen
  • fish has less connective tissue than meat
  • contains no elastin
  • therefore it is more tender and easier to digest and it takes less cooking time
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15
Q

Describe how fats make up the structure of a fish

2

A
  • invisible in oily fish

- dispersed between the myomers and the connective tissue

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16
Q

Describe how the outer layer makes up the structure of a fish
(1)

A

-it is waterproof and scally

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17
Q

List some guidelines for buying and storing fish

6

A
  • date
  • cost
  • quality: should have scales, big bulgy eyes, not slimy
  • shells should be closed
  • no strange smell
  • store on ice in the bottom of the fridge (2-5°C)
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18
Q

Explain how oxidative rancidity causes the spoilage of fish

3

A
  • oils in oily fish react with oxygen
  • oxygen combines with the carbon in the double bonds along the unsaturated fatty acid chain
  • this causes the fish to go off
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19
Q

Explain how enzymes cause the spoilage of fish

3

A
  • naturally present in fish,
  • cause it’s flesh to deteriorate even at low temperatures
  • to slow this down fish can be placed on ice or in a fridge
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20
Q

Explain how bacteria cause the spoilage of fish

4

A
  • fish use up the glycogen in their muscles and liver when they get caught
  • this results in little glycogen left to be converted to lactic acid to preserve the fish
  • this causes rapid deterioration by bacterial action
  • this produces a strong smelling compound called trimethylamine
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21
Q

List the effects of cooking on fish

5

A
  • protein coagulates
  • b vitamins are lost
  • colour change
  • bacteria is destroyed
  • if over-cooked, fish is rubbery
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22
Q

What is nutritive value?

1

A

-all the nutrients that are present in a food

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23
Q

Describe the nutritive value of protein in eggs

3

A
  • high biological value
  • ovalbumin and globulin are present in the egg white
  • livetin and vitelin are present in the yolk
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24
Q

Describe the nutritive value of fat in eggs

3

A
  • saturated fat present in the yolk
  • cholesterol present in the yolk
  • egg white is fat free
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25
Q

Describe the nutritive value of carbohydrates in eggs

2

A
  • no carbohydrates present

- served with carbohydrate rich food

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26
Q

Describe the nutritive value of vitamins in eggs

3

A
  • contains fat soluble vitamins A, D, E and K
  • contains water soluble vitamin B
  • does not contain vitamin C
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27
Q

Describe the nutritive value of minerals in eggs

2

A
  • a good source of calcium, phosphorus, zinc and sulfur

- non-haem iron is present in the yollk

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28
Q

Describe the nutritive value of water in eggs

2

A
  • a lot of water is present in eggs

- majority found in the white

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29
Q

Describe the structural roll of the shell in eggs

8

A
  • 10% of the egg
  • hard protective layer
  • composed of mainly calcium carbonate
  • inedible
  • porous
  • vary in colour (depending on breed of bird that laid it)
  • colour does not affect nutritional value or quality
  • thin membrane located inside of shell which encloses the white and yolk and leaves an air space at the wider end of the egg
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30
Q

Describe the structural roll of the white in eggs

6

A
  • 60%
  • viscous
  • colourless
  • liquid
  • surrounds the yolk
  • composed of the proteins ovalbumin and globulin along with vitamins, minerals and water
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31
Q

Describe the structural roll of the yolk in eggs

7

A
  • 30% of the egg
  • viscous
  • dark-yellow
  • centre of the egg
  • held in place by a string-like structure called a chalazae
  • most nutritious part
  • composed of the proteins vitelin and livetin, saturated fat, cholesterol, lecithin (emulsifier) minerals, vitamins and water
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32
Q

List the five types of eggs.

5

A
  • free range eggs
  • barn eggs
  • cage eggs
  • organic eggs
  • omega 3 eggs
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33
Q

What are free-range eggs?

2

A
  • from birds that are able to roam free in large barns

- they are permitted outdoors for at least part of the day

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34
Q

What are barn eggs?

1

A

-from birds that are able to roam free in large barns

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35
Q

What are cage eggs?

4

A
  • from birds kept in enriched cages
  • with slanted floors
  • that allow eggs to roll out
  • onto a conveyor belt
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36
Q

What are organic eggs?

3

A
  • from birds that are feed special organic feed
  • that is not treated with chemical pesticides or fertilisers
  • the birds are also not treated with growth hormones
  • or given antibiotics
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37
Q

What are omega-3 eggs?

2

A
  • from birds that are fed a diet high in Omega-3

- Omega-3 sources may include linseed or seaweed

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38
Q

Describe the dietetic value of eggs

6

A
  • source of hbv protein which assists with growth and repair making them excellent meat alternatives and a valuable food in the diets of children, teenagers and pregnant women
  • low in calories making them ideal for calorie-controlled diets
  • versatile food suited to many different cooking methods and culinary uses e.g. baking, sauces and batters
  • inexspensive and cook quickly, minimising energy costs, making them an economical food
  • yolks are high in saturated fat and cholesterol so they should be avoided in the diet of people with high cholesterol and at risk of coronary heart disease. Eating the egg whites only is a good alternative
  • lacks carbohydrates and vitamin c so they should be combined with foods rich in these to balance the diet
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39
Q

List the guidelines for buying eggs?

6

A
  • buy eggs from a retailer with a strict food hygiene and safety policy
  • check the best before date
  • buy eggs in small amounts
  • buy eggs with the Bord Bia Quality Mark
  • avoid purchasing eggs with cracked shells
  • ensure eggs feel heavy for their size
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40
Q

When buying eggs why should they be bought from a retailer with strict food hygiene and safety policy?
(1)

A

-to ensure any eggs being sold are safe and fit for consumption

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41
Q

When buying eggs why should you check the best before date?

2

A
  • after this date eggs may be unsafe to eat

- as over time they become stale

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42
Q

When buying eggs why should you buy eggs in small amounts?

2

A
  • buying too many can lead to food waste

- as they have a short shelf life

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43
Q

When buying eggs why should you buy eggs with the Bord Bia Quality Mark?
(2)

A
  • this assures the consumer that best practices were implemented at all stages of egg production
  • which reduces food safety risks
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44
Q

When buying eggs why should you avoid purchasing eggs with cracked shells?
(1)

A

-as this will quicken the rate of spoilage

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45
Q

When buying eggs why should you ensure eggs feel heavy for their size?
(2)

A
  • if an egg seems light it could be due to a large air space
  • meaning the egg is stale
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46
Q

List the guidelines for storing eggs

7

A
  • in a fridge at 4 degrees Celsius
  • away from strong smelling foods such as fish
  • pointed end downwards
  • whites should be refrigerated in an airtight container for two to four days
  • yolks should be refrigerated in water for two to four days
  • minimise the amount of time eggs are in storage
  • use within the best before date
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47
Q

Why should eggs by stored in a fridge at 4 degrees Celsius?

2

A
  • as room temperature speeds up bacterial growth

- which increases the rate of spoilage

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48
Q

Why should eggs be stored away from strong smelling foods?

1

A

-the porous shell can absorb odours

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49
Q

Why should eggs by stored with the pointed end downwards?

2

A
  • to prevent the chalazae from breaking

- and to prevent the egg yolk becoming damaged

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50
Q

Why should leftover egg yolks be stored in water?

1

A

-to prevent them from drying out

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51
Q

How long should leftover egg whites be stored for?

1

A

-two to four days

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52
Q

How long should leftover egg yolks be stored for?

1

A

-two to four days

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53
Q

What are the two types of labelling regulations for egg boxes and eggs?
(2)

A
  • box labelling

- egg labelling

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54
Q

What requires certain labelling to be clear and legible on egg boxes?

A

-the European Union Legislation

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55
Q

What two things does the European Union Legislation require?

2

A
  • that box labelling should be clear and legible

- that each individual egg for retail sale be stamped with a code to ensure full traceability of the egg to the farm

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56
Q

List the labelling that is required on the egg box by the EU Legislation
(10)

A
  • name of packer or seller
  • address of packer or seller
  • egg packaging centre code
  • number of eggs in the pack
  • class/quality of the eggs
  • date of minimum durability
  • production/rearing method
  • weight
  • storage instructions advising to keep eggs chilled after purchase
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57
Q

List what the code stamped on each individual egg must carry

4

A
  • a number to distinguish production/rearing method
  • two letters denoting the country of origin
  • a code containing a letter and a number to identify the country and producer the egg came from
  • the date of minimum durability
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58
Q

How are numbers used to distinguish production/rearing methods from a code stamped on an egg?
(4)

A
  • 0= organic
  • 1= free range
  • 2= barn
  • 3= caged
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59
Q

How are letters used to denote the country of origin from a code stamped on an egg?
(1)

A

-EU= Ireland

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60
Q

How are codes containing a letter and a number used to identify the country and producer the egg came from the code stamped on an egg?
(2)

A
  • D indicates Cork

- 68 indicates the registered producer

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61
Q

Describe how to test an egg for freshness

6

A
  • if the egg is going stale it’s mass decreases
  • the water in the egg evaporates through the pores in the shell
  • the air space fills with bacteria and air
  • the air space in the egg gets larger
  • the egg becomes lighter as it goes stale
  • therefore an egg will float in water if it is stale and sink if it is fresh
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62
Q

What is the guideline for preparing an egg?

1

A

-remove eggs from fridge an hour before use

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63
Q

Why should eggs be removed from the fridge an hour before use?
(2)

A
  • to reduce the risk of the shell cracking during boiling and curdling during cooking
  • to help the eggs to trap more air when being whisked for meringues and sponge cakes
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64
Q

What are the culinary uses of eggs?

9

A
  • binding
  • thickening
  • whole food
  • emulsifier
  • garnishing
  • glazing
  • aeration
  • coating
  • enrichment
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65
Q

Describe how binding is a culinary use of eggs

A

-eggs hold ingredients together to prevent them falling apart

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66
Q

Give examples of how binding is a culinary application of eggs
(2)

A
  • in burgers

- in fish cakes

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67
Q

Describe how thickening is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs change the consistency of a sauce or dish as they coagulate when heated, causing thickening

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68
Q

Give examples of the how thickening is a culinary application of eggs
(2)

A
  • custards

- quiches

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69
Q

Describe how eggs as a whole food is a culinary application of eggs.
(1)

A

-eggs can be eaten on their own or cooked in a variety of ways

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70
Q

Give examples of how eggs as a whole food is a culinary application of eggs.
(2)

A
  • boiled

- fried

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71
Q

Describe how emulsification is a culinary application of eggs
(1)

A

-eggs enable immiscible liquids to mix and form an emulsion

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72
Q

Give an example of how emulsification is a culinary application of eggs
(1)

A

-oil and vinegar in mayonnaise

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73
Q

Describe how garnishing is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs can be used to add decoration to make a food more visually appealing

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74
Q

Give an example of how garnishing can be a culinary application of eggs.
(1)

A

-nisoise salad

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75
Q

Describe how glazing is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs form a shiny coating on food, giving an attractive finish when baked

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76
Q

Give examples of how glazing is a culinary application of eggs
(2)

A
  • scones

- pastry

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77
Q

Describe how aeration is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs trap air when whisked, assisting aeration

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78
Q

Give examples of how aeration is a culinary application of eggs
(2)

A
  • sponge cakes

- meringues

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79
Q

Describe how coating is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs enable a coating to stick to foods

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80
Q

Give examples of how coating is a culinary application of eggs.
(2)

A
  • breadcrumbs on fish

- breadcrumbs on poultry

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81
Q

Describe how enrichment is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs can make a food taste richer or add to the nutritional value

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82
Q

Describe how enrichment is a culinary application of eggs.

1

A

-eggs can make a food taste richer or add to the nutritional value

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83
Q

Give examples of how enrichment is a culinary application of eggs
(2)

A
  • rice pudding

- mashed potatoes

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84
Q

List the effects of cooking on eggs

9

A
  • protein coagulates
  • colour change
  • bacteria are destroyed
  • loss of b group vitamins
  • curdling at very high temperatures
  • tough and difficult to digest if overcooked
  • egg yolk becomes dry and crumbly
  • egg whites become rubbery
  • a reaction between iron and sulfur
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85
Q

Describe protein coagulation in eggs during cooking

2

A
  • whites coagulate at 60°C

- yolks coagulate at 68°C

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86
Q

Describe the colour change of eggs during cooking.

1

A

-egg whites change from translucent to opaque

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87
Q

Describe how b group vitamins are destroyed in eggs during cooking.
(1)

A

-some b group vitamins particularly thiamine are lost as they are not hear stable

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88
Q

Describe how eggs curdle during cooking

3

A
  • curdle at very high temperatures or if overcooked
  • this causes egg proteins to clump together and squeeze out water
  • lumps of protein and a watery liquid is formed
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89
Q

Describe the reaction between iron and sulfur that occurs in eggs during cooking
(1)

A

-this reaction causes a green ring to form around the egg yolk if it is overcooked

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90
Q

What are the properties of eggs?

3

A
  • aeration
  • coagulation
  • emulsification
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91
Q

Describe the aeration property of eggs

5

A
  • when eggs are whisked protein chains unfold and air bubbles form
  • the protein chains entrap air and create a foam
  • whisking the eggs create heat and this heat begins to set the egg albumin
  • this forms a temporary foam
  • this foam will collapse after a while unless it is heated further to coagulate and set as a permanent foam
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92
Q

Give culinary applications of the aeration property of eggs

3

A
  • sponges
  • meringues
  • soufflés
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93
Q

Describe the coagulation property of eggs

7

A
  • when eggs are heated, protein chains unfold and straighten
  • these bond together around small pockets of water
  • this causes coagulation
  • egg whites change from translucent to opaque and coagulate at 60 degrees
  • egg yolks coagulate at 68 degrees
  • if overcooked proteins clump together and squeeze out water, forming lumps of protein and a watery liquid
  • this is known as curdling
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94
Q

Give culinary applications of the coagulation property of eggs
(4)

A
  • fried, boiled and poached eggs(cooking)
  • beef burgers and fish cakes (binding)
  • custard and hollandaise sauce (thickening)
  • pastry and scones (glazing)
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95
Q

Describe the emulsification property of eggs

6

A
  • there is a natural emulsifier present in eggs called lecithin
  • lecithin is present in the egg yolk
  • it has the ability to join 2 immiscible liquids together
  • lecithin has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
  • the hydrophilic head attaches to the water and the hydrophobic tail attaches to the oil preventing them from separating
  • this creates a permanent emulsion
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96
Q

Give culinary applications of the emulsification property of eggs
(3)

A
  • mayonnaise and vinaigrettes (oil and vinegar)
  • cakes (fat and sugar)
  • hollandaise sauce (butter and vinegar)
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97
Q

What does EQAS stand for

4

A
  • Egg
  • Quality
  • Assurance
  • Scheme
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98
Q

Describe the EQAS

3

A
  • if eggs bear the Bord Bia Quality Mark it means the eggs are quality assured
  • this means the eggs have been produced with the highest level of care and attention from primary production through to packaging
  • to achieve this, the producer and packager must be certified members of the Bord Bia Quality Assurance Scheme and work in partnership to provide customers with quality-assured eggs
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99
Q

List what must be ensured when a producers farm is audited by Bord BIa for them to obtain a Bord BIa Quality Mark on their eggs.
(3)

A
  • participation in routine salmonella testing of the hens
  • accurate recordings
  • heat-treated hens
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100
Q

Describe the routine salmonella testing on hens which is ensured by Bord BIa in order for a producer to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark
(2)

A
  • participation in routine salmonella testing of the hens to prevent the risk of salmonellosis in humans
  • all hens laying eggs must be certified salmonella-free
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101
Q

Describe the accurate recordings which are ensured by Bord Bia in order for a producer to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark
(1)

A

-accurate records are kept on the origin, sex, age, breed, movement and vetinary treatments of all hens to ensure eggs are fully traceable

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102
Q

Describe why hens are given heat-treated feed which is ensured by Bord Bia in order for a producer to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark
(1)

A

-all feed given to hens is heat-treated to reduce bacterial contamination

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103
Q

List what must be ensured when a packaging plant is audited by Bord BIa for them to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark
(2)

A
  • sanitation

- HACCP training

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104
Q

Describe the sanitation which is ensured by Bord Bia when a packaging plant is audited to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark.
(1)

A

-implementation of a thorough sanitation and pest-control programme

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105
Q

Describe the work of a HACCP plan which is ensured by Bord Bia when a packaging plant is audited to obtain the Bord Bia Quality Mark
(1)

A

-staff who operate or monitor any critical control point receive Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point and food safety training

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106
Q

List the types of cow’s milk

4

A
  • whole milk
  • low-fat milk (semi-skimmed milk)
  • skimmed milk
  • buttermilk
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107
Q

Describe what whole milk is.

1

A

-contains approximately 4% saturated fat and is rich in calcium and fat-soluble vitamins A and D

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108
Q

Describe what low-fat milk (semi-skimmed milk) is?

2

A
  • contains approximately 1% saturated fat

- fat-soluble vitamins A and D are removed

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109
Q

Describe what skimmed milk is.

2

A
  • contains approximately 0.3% saturated fat

- Fat-soluble vitamins A and D are removed

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110
Q

Describe what buttermilk is.

2

A
  • the sour liquid that remains after the fat in milk has been churned to form butter
  • it is commonly used in baking
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111
Q

Which milk contains 4% saturated fat?

1

A

-whole milk

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112
Q

Which milk contains 1% saturated fat?

1

A

-low-fat milk(semi-skimmed milk)

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113
Q

What milk contains 0.3% saturated fat?

1

A

-skimmed milk

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114
Q

What milks are vitamins A and D removed from?

2

A
  • low-fat milk(semi-skimmed milk)

- skimmed milk

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115
Q

Describe the nutritional value the proteins present in milk

6

A
  • easily digestible
  • high biological value protein
  • caseinogen
  • lactalbumin
  • lactoglobulin
  • low-fat, skimmed and whole milk contain 3.4% protein
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116
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the fat present in milk

2

A
  • saturated fat present in small droplets dispersed throughout the milk, making it easy to digest
  • amount present depends on the type of milk
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117
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the carbohydrates present in milk
(3)

A
  • in the form of the disaccharide lactose (sugar)
  • lacks dietary fibre
  • lacks starch
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118
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the Vitamins in milk

8

A
  • contains vitamin A
  • contains vitamin D
  • a and d are removed when fat is skimmed from milk
  • contains b-group vitamins
  • contains (B1)thiamine
  • contains (B2) riboflavin
  • contains (B3) niacin
  • lacks vitamin C as it is lost in processing
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119
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the minerals present in milk
(4)

A
  • source of calcium
  • source of phosphorus
  • trace amounts of magnesium and potassium
  • lacks iron
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120
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the water in milk

1

A

-high water content

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121
Q

What proteins are present in milk

3

A
  • caseinogen
  • lactalbumin
  • lactoglobulin
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122
Q

What vitamins are present in milk?

3

A
  • B
  • A
  • D
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123
Q

What minerals are present in milk?

4

A
  • phosphorus
  • magnesium
  • potassium
  • calcium
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124
Q

Describe the dietetic value of milk

7

A
  • milk is an excellent source of easily digestible HBV protein that assists with growth and repair.
  • calcium for strong bones and teeth
  • low-fat/skimmed for high cholesterol/calorie-controlled diets as they are reduced in saturated fat
  • variety of types to suit varying tastes and dietary needs
  • versatile food suited to many different culinary uses
  • inexpensive, making it an economical food
  • lacks starch, dietary fibre, iron and vitamin C so it should be combined with foods rich in these to balance the diet
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125
Q

Who should include milk in their diet because of the HBV protein present?
(1)

A

-valuable food in the diet of children, teenagers and pregnant women

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126
Q

Who should include milk in their diet because of the calcium present
(2)

A
  • children

- adolescents

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127
Q

Classify cheese

5

A
  • hard cheese
  • semi-hard cheese
  • soft cheese
  • processed cheese
  • mould cheese/blue veined cheese
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128
Q

What is hard cheese?

1

A

-has a dense texture with a low moisture content of 30-40%

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129
Q

Give examples of hard cheese

3

A
  • cheddar
  • emmental
  • parmesan
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130
Q

What is semi-hard cheese?

1

A

-has a firm texture that is easily sliced, with a moisture content ranging from 40-50%

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131
Q

Give examples of semi-hard cheese

4

A
  • edam
  • gouda
  • Monterey Jack
  • halloumi
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132
Q

What is soft cheese?

1

A

-has a thin skin and a creamy centre with a moisture content of 50-80%

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133
Q

What is processed cheese?

1

A

-made from one or more types of cheese that have been heated and blended with other ingredients including flavourings, colourings and emulsifiers

134
Q

Give examples of soft cheese

4

A
  • mozzarella
  • feta
  • camembert
  • cottage cheese
135
Q

Give examples of processed cheese

4

A
  • Cheese strings
  • cheese slices
  • Babybel
  • Calvita
136
Q

What is mouldy cheese/blue-veined cheese?

1

A

-ripened with cultures of the mould Penicillium

137
Q

Give examples of mouldy cheese/blue-veined cheese

4

A
  • stilton
  • Roquefort
  • Danish blue
  • gorgonzola
138
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the proteins present in cheese
(3)

A
  • an excellent source of HBV protein
  • casein is the main protein present
  • hard cheese contains more protein than soft cheese
139
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the carbohydrates present in cheese
(2)

A
  • lacks carbohydrates, as the lactose in milk is converted to lactic acid during cheese production
  • for this reason cheese is usually served with a carbohydrate-rich food e.g. bread
140
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the fat present in cheese

3

A
  • a source of saturated fat
  • the amount of saturated fat depends on the type of milk used to make the cheese
  • hard cheese contains more saturated fat than soft cheese, due to a lower water content
141
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the vitamins present in cheese
(3)

A
  • a good source of vitamins A and D
  • lacks vitamin C
  • a source of the B-group vitamin riboflavin (B2)
142
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the minerals present in cheese
(3)

A
  • an excellent source of calcium
  • salt is added during manufacture, so sodium chloride is present
  • this acts as a preservative
143
Q

Describe the nutritional value of water presents in cheese

2

A
  • the water content varies depending on the type of cheese

- the higher the water content the less fat present

144
Q

Describe the homogenisation process of milk

2

A
  • milk is heated to 60 degrees Celsius
  • it is then forced under pressure through a machine with tiny holes that break up the large fat globules and disperse them evenly throughout the milk
145
Q

Describe the effects of homogenisation on milk

1

A

-improves the texture and flavour of the milk, as smaller fat globules are evenly dispersed throughout the milk and do not rise to the top as cream

146
Q

Describe the process of pasteurisation on milk

1

A

-milk is heated to 72 degrees Celsius for 25 seconds and then cooled quickly to 10 degrees Celsius

147
Q

Describe the effects of pasteurisation on milk

4

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • shelf life is extended (approximately six to eight days)
  • loss of vitamin C and vitamin B1 (thiamine)
  • no noticeable change in flavour
148
Q

Describe the process of sterilisation on milk

2

A
  • milk is homogenised

- it is then sealed into glass bottles and heated to 110 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes, then cooled

149
Q

Describe the effects of sterilisation on milk

4

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • shelf life is extended (approximately six weeks if unopened)
  • loss of vitamin C and B-group vitamins
  • flavour is slightly altered, as lactose becomes sweeter on heating
150
Q

Describe the process of Ultra Heat Treatment (UHT) on milk

2

A
  • milk is heated to 132 degrees Celsius for one to two seconds and then cooled quickly to 10 degrees Celsius
  • it is then packaged in sterile containers
151
Q

Describe the effects of Ultra Heat Treatment (UHT) on milk

4

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • shelf life is extended (approximately six months if unopened) and it does not require refrigeration
  • loss of vitamin C and B-group vitamins
  • flavour is slightly altered, as lactose becomes sweater on heating
152
Q

Describe the process of condensing on milk

3

A
  • milk is homogenised, pasteurised and 15% sugar is added
  • it is then evaporated to one-third of its volume, cooled and sealed into cans
  • heated to 80 degrees Celsius for 15 minutes
153
Q

Describe the effects of condensing on milk

5

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • shelf life is extended (approximately one year if unopened)
  • loss of vitamin C and B-group vitamins
  • flavour is altered, as lactose becomes sweeter on heating and sugar is added
  • increased kilocalorie and carbohydrate content due to sugar added
154
Q

Describe the process of evaporation on milk

2

A
  • milk is pasteurised, evaporated to half its volume then homogenised
  • it is then sealed into cans and sterilised at 115 degrees for 20 minutes
155
Q

Describe the effects of evaporation on milk

4

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • shelf life is extended (approximately one year if unopened)
  • loss of vitamin C and B-group vitamins
  • flavour is slightly altered, as lactose becomes sweeter on heating
156
Q

Describe the process of drying milk

3

A
  • milk is homogenised and pasteurised
  • it is then evaporated to 60% of its volume and dried to form a powdered milk
  • this can be done by either roller drying or spray drying
157
Q

Describe the roller drying which is done during the drying process of milk
(2)

A
  • milk is poured onto heated rotating metal rollers that dry the liquid milk to a powder
  • the milk powder is then scraped off the rollers, cooled and packaged in airtight containers
158
Q

Describe the spray drying which is done during the drying process of milk
(2)

A
  • milk is sprayed into a hot air chamber (165 degrees Celsius) that instantly evaporates the water in the milk, forming a powder that falls to the bottom of the chamber
  • the milk powder is cooled and packaged in airtight containers
159
Q

Describe the effects of roller drying on milk which is done during the drying process of milk
(1)

A

-roller-dried milk does not reconstitute easily when stirred with water

160
Q

Describe the effects of spray drying on milk which is done during the drying process of milk
(1)

A

-spray-dried milk reconstitutes easily when stirred with water

161
Q

Describe the effect of drying on milk

3

A
  • pathogenic bacteria are destroyed
  • some loss of B-group vitamins and amino acids
  • long shelf life due to water extraction (2-10 years)
162
Q

What are the guidelines for buying milk?

5

A
  • buy milk from a retailer that has a strict food hygiene and safety policy
  • check the use-by date.
  • buy milk in small amounts.
  • ensure packaging is properly sealed.
  • buy near the end of the shopping trip
163
Q

Why should you buy milk from a retailer that has a strict food hygiene and safety policy?
(1)

A

-to ensure any milk being sold is safe and fit for consumption-

164
Q

Why should you check the use-by-date of milk?

1

A

-after this date milk may be unsafe to consume as bacteria multiply rapidly in high-protein liquid foods

165
Q

Why should you buy milk in small amounts?

1

A

-buying too much can lead to food waste, as milk has a short shelf life

166
Q

Why should you ensure packaging is properly sealed?

1

A

-damaged or incorrectly sealed packaging will quicken milk spoilage

167
Q

Why should you buy milk near the end of your shopping trip?

1

A

-to minimise the amount of time milk spends at room temperature before being returned to a fridge

168
Q

What are the guidelines for storing milk?

4

A
  • store milk in a fridge at 4 degrees Celsius
  • avoid mixing milks with different use-by dates
  • keep milk covered and away from strong-smelling foods
  • minimise the amount of time milk is in storage and use within two to three days
169
Q

Why should milk by used stored at 4 degrees Celsius?

1

A

-as room temperature can speed up bacterial growth, increasing the rate of spoilage

170
Q

Why should you avoid mixing milks with different use-by dates?
(1)

A

-as this can cause milk to spoil quicker

171
Q

Why should milk by kept covered and away from strong-smelling foods?
(1)

A

-should be kept away from strong-smelling foods, such as blue cheese, to prevent it absorbing odours

172
Q

What is the main cause of milk spoilage?

3

A
  • spoilage occurs when naturally present lactic acid bacteria breaks down the lactose in milk, forming lactic acid
  • this causes milk to develop an unpleasant taste and to curdle, as the protein caseinogen separates from the liquid part of the milk
  • this occurs naturally in milk over time, even when stored I n the fridge
173
Q

What are the ways milk spoils during food preparation or cooking?
(3)

A
  • the addition of acid, e.g. lemon juice
  • the addition of enzymes, e.g. rennet is added to milk in cheese-making
  • heat, e.g. adding milk to very hot coffee
174
Q

What are the culinary uses of milk?

6

A
  • drinks
  • baking
  • puddings and desserts
  • sauces
  • batters
  • soups
175
Q

Give examples of drinks made using milk

2

A
  • milkshakes

- lattes

176
Q

Give examples of bakes made using milk

2

A
  • scones

- bread

177
Q

Gives examples of puddings and deserts made using milk

3

A
  • bread
  • butter pudding
  • crème caramel
178
Q

Give examples of sauces made using milk

2

A
  • custard

- white sauce

179
Q

Give examples of batters made using milk

2

A
  • clafoutis

- Yorkshire puddings

180
Q

Give examples of soups made using milk

2

A
  • cream of chicken soup

- mushroom soup

181
Q

What are the guidelines for heating milk?

2

A
  • keep a watchful eye on milk while heating, as it can quickly boil over
  • avoid overheating, as it may curdle
182
Q

What are the effects of heating on milk?

4

A
  • protein coagulates, creating a skin on the surface of milk
  • bacteria are destroyed
  • flavour is slightly altered, as lactose becomes sweeter on heating
  • b-group vitamins, particularly thiamine, and vitamin C are lost as they are not heat stable
183
Q

Who controls milk quality in Ireland?

1

A

-the Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine

184
Q

How does the Department of Agriculture, Food and the Ireland control milk quality?
(1)

A

-by implementing measures within the dairy sector throughout Ireland

185
Q

How does the Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine ensure that milk purchased is fresh, hygienic and free from diseases?
(5)

A
  • by ensuring that dairy farms that supply milk to the public are registered with the Department of Agriculture, Farms and the Marine
  • inspecting herds and milk-producing premises on dairy farms
  • testing cattle routinely for diseases such as TB, as these are easily transmitted to humans from milk
  • testing milk routinely for bacterial contamination and residues of antibiotics
  • ensuring dairy farms observe strict codes of hygiene when transporting, processing and storing milk
186
Q

What is the dietetic value of cheese?

8

A
  • HBV protein
  • calcium
  • variety of types and forms
  • versatile food
  • inexpensive
  • high in saturated fat
  • listeriosis
  • lacks carbs and vitamin C
187
Q

What are the twelve stages of cheese production?

12

A
  • pasteurised
  • starter culture added
  • rennet added
  • curds and whey
  • cut
  • draining
  • scalding
  • cheddaring
  • curd chips
  • salt added
  • pressed and ripened
  • packaged and labelled
188
Q

Describe the pasteurisation stage of cheese production

1

A

-raw milk is pasteurised at 72 degrees celsius for 15 seconds

189
Q

Describe the second stage of cheese production where a starter culture is added
(2)

A
  • a starter culture of lactic acid bacteria is added

- this change is lactose to lactic acid which acts as a preservative and adds flavour

190
Q

Describe the third stage of cheese production or rennet is added
(3)

A
  • milk is heated to 30 degrees Celsius and rennet is added
  • rennet contains the enzyme renin that changes the protein caseinogen to casein
  • this coagulates the milk
191
Q

Describe the curds and whey stage of cheese production

1

A

-the mixture is left for 35 to 40 minutes until the separates into curds and whey

192
Q

Describe the cut stage of cheese production

1

A

-curds are cut to release more whey

193
Q

Describe the draining stage cheese production

2

A
  • whey is drained off

- at this point cottage cheese is produced

194
Q

Describe the scalding stage of cheese production

2

A
  • curds are heated to 35-40 degrees Celsius for 40 to 45 minutes and stirred continuously to release more whey and achieve the correct consistency
  • this process is called scalding
195
Q

Describe the cheddaring process of cheese production

2

A
  • curds are cut into blocks and piled on top of each other to drain more whey
  • this process is known as cheddaring
196
Q

Describe the 9th stage of cheese production where curd chips are made
(1)

A

-curds are cut into curd chips by a mill

197
Q

Describe the addition of salt stage in cheese production

1

A

-2% salt is added to flavour and preserve the cheese

198
Q

Describe the pressing stage cheese production

4

A
  • curds are pressed into moulds
  • the longer the curds are pressed the harder the cheese
  • pressed curds are sprayed with hot water to form a protective rind on the cheese
  • the cheese is removed from the mould, date stamped and stored to ripen a mature for 3 to 15 months
199
Q

Describe the ripening stage of cheese production

2

A
  • ripening develops the characteristic flavour, text you and smell of the cheese due to the action of enzymes and bacteria
  • the longer a cheese is left to ripen the stronger the flavour
200
Q

Describe the packaging stage of cheese production

3

A
  • cheese is graded according to quality
  • it is cut to retail size, e.g. 200g or 500g,
  • and packaged in varying materials, e.g. plastic or waxed paper
201
Q

Describe the labelling stage of cheese production

1

A

-the packaging is labelled with details including the type of cheese, ingredients, storage instructions, allergy advice and nutritional information

202
Q

Classify meat into the four main categories.

4

A
  • carcass meat
  • poultry
  • game
  • offal
203
Q

Give examples of carcass meat

7

A
  • ham
  • bacon
  • pork
  • beef
  • veal
  • lamb
  • mutton
204
Q

Give examples of poultry

4

A
  • chicken
  • turkey
  • duck
  • goose
205
Q

Give examples of game

3

A
  • pheasant
  • rabbit
  • deer/venison
206
Q

Give examples of offal

3

A
  • kidneys
  • liver
  • tongue
207
Q

What is poultry?

1

A

-domestic birds reared for meat and eggs

208
Q

What is game?

1

A

-wild birds and animals

209
Q

What is offal?

1

A

-edible internal organs

210
Q

What makes up the structure of meat?

3

A
  • meat fibres
  • connective tissue
  • fat
211
Q

Describe how meat fibres make up meat

3

A
  • meat fibres contain the proteins actin, myosin and globulin
  • contains minerals, vitamins, water and extractives
  • fibres vary in length and diameter, which affects the tenderness of meat
212
Q

What are extractives?

3

A
  • extractives are substances such as lactic acid that are found within the meat fibres
  • they improve the flavour of meat
  • they improve the digestibility of meat by stimulating gastric juices.
213
Q

What proteins are present in meat fibres?

3

A
  • actin
  • myosin
  • globulin
214
Q

Give an example of an extractive

1

A

-lactic acid

215
Q

Describe how connective tissue makes up meat

2

A
  • connective tissue holds meat fibres together in bundles

- it contains the proteins elastin and collagen

216
Q

What proteins are present in the connective tissue?

2

A
  • elastin

- collagen

217
Q

What two types of fat are present in the fat of meat?

2

A
  • visible fat

- invisible fat

218
Q

Describe how visible fat makes up meat

1

A

-visible fat is found under the skin of animals as a layer of adipose tissue or around internal organs, e.g. the rind on rashers

219
Q

What two places can visible fat be found on meat?

2

A
  • under the skin of animals as a layer of adipose tissue

- around internal organs

220
Q

Give an example of visible fat on meat

1

A

-the rind on rashers

221
Q

Describe how invisible fat makes up meat

1

A

-invisible fat is present in the flesh as globules dispersed between meat fibres and the connective tissues, e.g. fat dispersed throughout mince

222
Q

Give an example of invisible fat found in meat

1

A

-fat dispersed throughout mince

223
Q

What percentage of proteins are present in carcass meat?

1

224
Q

What percentage of proteins are present in offal?

1

225
Q

What percentage of proteins are present in poultry

1

226
Q

What percentage of fat is present in carcass meat?

1

227
Q

What percentage of fat is present in offal?

1

228
Q

What percentage of fat is present in poultry?

1

229
Q

What percentage of carbohydrates are present in carcass meat ?
(1)

230
Q

What percentage of carbohydrates are present in offal?

1

231
Q

What percentage of carbohydrates are present in poultry?

1

232
Q

What vitamins are present in carcass meat?

1

233
Q

What vitamins are present in offal?

5

A
  • A
  • B group
  • C
  • D
  • K
234
Q

What vitamins are present in poultry?

1

235
Q

What minerals are present in carcass meat?

5

A
  • iron
  • zinc
  • phosphorus
  • potassium
  • sulfur
236
Q

What minerals are present in offal?

5

A
  • iron
  • zinc
  • phosphorus
  • potassium
  • sulfur
237
Q

What minerals are present in poultry?

4

A
  • iron
  • zinc
  • phosphorus
  • calcium
238
Q

What percentage of water is present in carcass meat?

1

239
Q

What percentage of water is present in offal?

1

240
Q

What percentage of water is present in poultry?

1

241
Q

Describe the nutritional value of proteins present in carcass meat
(2)

A
  • an excellent source of high biological value (HBV) protein
  • the main proteins present are myosin, globulin and actin in the meat tissues and elastin and collagen in the connective tissue
242
Q

Describe the nutritional value of fat present in carcass meat
(3)

A
  • a source of saturated fat
  • the amount of fat present depends on the type of carcass meat e.g. pork has more fat than beef, and the cut of meat, e.g. striploin steak has more fat than sirloin steak
  • fat can be visible or invisble
243
Q

Describe the nutritional value of carbohydrates in carcass meat
(1)

A

-lacks carbohydrates, for this reason carcass meat is usually served with a carbohydrate-rich food, e.g. pasta

244
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the vitamins present in carcass meat
(1)

A

-a good source of B-group vitamins, particularly thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6) and cobalamin (B12)

245
Q

What B vitamins are present in carcass meat?

5

A
  • thiamine
  • riboflavin
  • niacin
  • pyridoxine
  • cobalamin
246
Q

Describe the nutritional value of minerals present in carcass meat
(2)

A
  • a good source of haem iron

- zinc, sulfur, potassium and phosphorus are present in small amounts

247
Q

Describe the nutritional value of water present in carcass meat
(2)

A
  • water content varies depending on the type of carcass meat

- the higher the water content the less fat present

248
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the proteins present in offal
(1)

A

-an excellent source of HBV protein

249
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the fat present in offal

1

A

-low in saturated fat

250
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the carbohydrates present in offal
(2)

A
  • lacks carbohydrates with the exception of a small amount of glycogen (stored glucose) in liver
  • for this reason, offal is usually served with a carbohydrate-rich food, e.g. potatoes
251
Q

What is glycogen stored as in offal?

1

252
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the vitamins present in offal

A
  • a good source of B-group vitamins, particularly cobalamin (B12) and folic acid
  • a source of vitamin C
  • liver and kidneys have a high content of vitamins A, D and K
253
Q

What B group vitamins are present in offal?

2

A
  • cobalamin

- folic acid

254
Q

What edible internal organs contain vitamins A,D and K?

2

A
  • liver

- kidneys

255
Q

What vitamins are found in liver and kidneys?

3

A
  • vitamin A
  • vitamin D
  • vitamin K
256
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the minerals present in offal
(2)

A
  • a good source of haem iron

- contains small amounts of zinc, potassium, phosphorus and sulfur

257
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the water present in offal

2

A
  • water content varies depending on the type of offal

- the higher the water content the less fat present

258
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the proteins present in poultry
(1)

A

-an excellent source of HBV protein

259
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the fat present in poultry

2

A
  • a source of saturated fat
  • the amount of fat present depends on the type of poultry, e.g. duck has more fat than chicken, and the meat, e.g. leg meat has more fat than breast meat
260
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the carbohydrates in poultry
(1)

A

-lacks carbohydrates, for this reason poultry is usually served with a carbohydrate-rich food, e.g. rice

261
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the vitamins in poultry

1

A

-a good source of B-group vitamins, particularly thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2) and niacin (B3)

262
Q

What B group vitamins are present in poultry?

3

A
  • thiamine
  • riboflavin
  • niacin
263
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the minerals present in poultry
(3)

A
  • a source of haem iron, however it contains less than red meat
  • contains small amounts of zinc
  • phosphorus and calcium are present in small amounts
264
Q

Describe the nutritional value of the water present in poultry
(2)

A
  • water content varies depending on the type of poultry

- the higher the water content the less fat present

265
Q

List the factors which effect the dietetic value of meat

A
  • HBV protein
  • high in saturated fat
  • haem iron
  • variety of types and forms
  • versatile food
  • inexpensive
  • lacks carbohydrates
266
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the HBV present in meat

2

A
  • meat is an excellent source of HBV protein that assists with growth and repair
  • this makes it a valuable food in the diets of children, teenagers and pregnant women
267
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the saturated fat present in meat
(2)

A
  • as carcass meat is high in saturated fat, it should be restricted in the diets of individuals with high cholesterol and those on calorie-controlled diets
  • poultry is a good alternative
268
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the haem iron present in meat

1

A

-meat is a good source of haem iron, which can reduce the risk of anaemia

269
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the variety of types and forms of meat
(1)

A

-meat is available in a variety of types and forms, e.g. fresh and processed, to suit different tastes and to add variety to the diet

270
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the versatility of meat

1

A

-meat is a versatile food suited to many different cooking methods and flavour combinations, e.g. chilli and garlic

271
Q

Describe the dietetic value of how inexpensive meat is

2

A
  • some types and cuts of meat are inexpensive, e.g. round steak, making meat an economical food.
  • processed meat products, e.g. burgers are often cheaper than fresh meat
272
Q

Describe the dietetic value of the lack of carbohydrates in meat
(2)

A

-meat lacks carbohydrates, so it should be combined with foods rich in these to balance the diete

273
Q

List the causes of toughness in meat

4

A
  • age
  • activity
  • treatment before and after slaughter
  • incorrect method of cooking
274
Q

Explain how age causes toughness of meat

3

A
  • older animals have tougher meat than younger animals
  • this is because they have more connective tissue and their connective tissue is stronger
  • their muscle fibres are also longer and thicker
275
Q

Explain how activity causes the toughness of meat

1

A

-meat from the active parts of the animal, e.g. the leg, is tougher, as it develops longer muscle fibres and more connective tissue over time

276
Q

Explain how treatment before and after slaughter causes the toughness of meat
(3)

A
  • before slaughter animals should be rested to enable glycogen build-up in their muscles, as after slaughter glycogen converts to lactic acid, tenderising meat fibres during hanging
  • failure to do this will result in tough meat
  • beef should be hung for 14-21 days and lamb for seven days to ensure sufficient tenderising
277
Q

Explain how incorrect methods of cooking causes toughness in meat
(2)

A
  • tough cuts of meat require slow, moist methods of cooking, e.g. stewing, to convert collagen in connective tissue to gelatine, tenderising meat
  • if cooked quickly, e.g. grilled, meat will be tough and difficult to stew
278
Q

List the methods of tenderising meat

4

A
  • meat tenderisers
  • mechanical breakdown
  • marinating
  • slow, moist cooking methods
279
Q

Explain how meat tenderisers tenderises meat

1

A

-meat tenderisers contain proteolytic enzymes, e.g. protein from papayas, which break down meat fibres, making them more digestible

280
Q

What are proteolytic enzymes?

1

A

-enzymes that promote proteolysis

281
Q

What is proteolysis?

1

A

-the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or amino acids

282
Q

Explain how mechanical breakdown tenderises meat

1

A

-mechanical breakdown e.g. pounding with a meat mallet, piercing with needles or mincing, breaks fibres into shorter lengths, tenderising meat

283
Q

Explain how marinating tenderises meat

1

A

-marinating in a mixture of acid(e.g. lemon juice) salt, herbs, spices and fruit or dairy breaks down fibres, tenderising meat

284
Q

Explain how slow, moist cooking methods tenderises meat

1

A

-slow, moist cooking methods, e.g. stewing and casseroling, tenderise tough cuts of meat, as they convert collagen to gelatine, making meat fibres fall apart and become soft

285
Q

List the guidelines for buying meat

8

A
  • clean and hygienic retailer
  • check the use-by date
  • Bord Bia Quality Mark
  • correct colour for its type
  • flesh should be firm and elastic
  • economise
  • end of shopping trip
  • buy cuts of meat suitable for chosen cooking method
286
Q

Why should you buy meat from a clean and hygienic retailer?

2

A
  • meat should be bought from a clean and hygienic meat counter
  • the retailer should have a strict food hygiene and safety policy to ensure any meat being sold is safe and fit for consumption
287
Q

Why should you check the use-by date when buying meat?

1

A

-you should check the use-by date on pre-packaged meat as after this date meat may be unsafe to eat

288
Q

Why should you buy meat with the Bord Bia Quality Mark?

1

A

-this assures the consumer that best practices were implemented at all stages of meat production, which reduces food safety risks

289
Q

How do you economise buying meat?

2

A
  • purchase good-quality meat, without gristle or fat

- purchase cheaper cuts of meat, e.g. round steak, as they offer the same nutritional value of expensive cuts

290
Q

Give an example of a cheap cut of meat

1

A

-round steak

291
Q

Why should you buy meat near the end of a shopping trip

1

A

-to minimise the amount of time it spends at room temperature (optimum temperature for bacterial growth) before being returned to a fridge.

292
Q

Give an example of a suitable cut of meat for a stew

1

A

-shin beef

293
Q

Give an example of a suitable cut of meat for frying

1

A

-fillet steak

294
Q

What are the guidelines for storing meat

8

A
  • remove wrapping and cover loosely
  • refrigerate at 4 degrees Celsius
  • refrigerate as soon as possible
  • place at the bottom of the fridge to avoid drip contamination
  • use within 1-2 days
  • store pre-packed meat according to labelling
  • freeze at -25 degrees Celsius on the day of purchase
295
Q

What are the effects of cooking on meat?

8

A
  • protein coagulates at 40-50 degrees causing meat to shrink
  • collagen changes to gelatine, meat fibres fall apart and meat becomes digestible
  • fat melts, adding flavour to meat
  • colour change due to the denaturation of myoglobin (red to brown)
  • flavour develops as extractives are released from the meat fibres
  • some vitamin B and minerals are destroyed as they are not heat stable but they dissolve into the cooking liquid
  • bacteria are destroyed
  • meat can become tough, rubbery and difficult to digest if overcooked
296
Q

How does the Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine enforce food safety within the meat sector?
(5)

A
  • ensuring meat purchased is fresh, hygienic and free from disease by enforcing European Union Legislation regarding the import of foods of animal origin from outside the EU.
  • monitoring the use of antibiotics and growth promoters in animal production
  • ensuring the maintenance of abattoirs and meat-processing factories throughout Ireland
  • testing animals routinely for diseases such as TB
  • ensuring the identification of livestock and traceability of meat
297
Q

How does the Department of Agriculture, Food and the Marine ensure that the meat purchased is fresh, hygienic and free from disease?
(1)

A

-by enforcing EU legislation regarding the import of foods of animal origin from outside the EU

298
Q

List the five types of meat processing

5

A
  • freezing
  • vacuum packing
  • curing and salting
  • canning
  • dehydration
299
Q

How is meat frozen

2

A
  • meat is prepared, packed and blast frozen at -30 degrees

- this ensures that tiny ice crystals form causing less damage to the food

300
Q

Give an example of a meat that can be frozen

1

A

-chicken breasts

301
Q

What are the effects of freezing on meat?

4

A
  • retains nutrients well
  • slight loss of vitamin B and minerals
  • fat may go rancid
  • freezer burn may occur if badly wrapped
302
Q

How is meat vacuum packed?

1

A

-oxygen is removed and meat is sealed into strong plastic

303
Q

Give an example of meat that can be vacuum packed

1

304
Q

What are the effects of vacuum packing on meat

3

A
  • can be stored unopened in fridge for weeks
  • must be treated as fresh once opened
  • nutritive value, flavour and texture unaffected
305
Q

How is meat cured and salted?

4

A
  • meat is injected with salts, e.g. sodium chloride/potassium nitrate (saltpetre)
  • it is soaked in brine for 3-4 days
  • hung at 5 degrees Celsius
  • smoked/left unsmoked
306
Q

Give an example of a meat that can be cured and smoked

1

307
Q

What salts can be injected into meat during the curing and salting process?
(2)

A
  • sodium chloride

- potassium saltpetre

308
Q

What are the effects of curing and salting on meat

3

A
  • little loss of nutritive value
  • increase in sodium
  • change in colour and flavour
309
Q

How is meat canned?

2

A
  • meat is heated to high temperature

- sealed into sterile cans

310
Q

What is an example of canned meat?

1

A

-corned beef

311
Q

What are the effects of canning on meat?

2

A
  • long shelf-life

- loss of vitamin B

312
Q

How is meat dehydrated?

1

A

-meat is prepared and freeze-dried

313
Q

Give example of meat that can be dehydrated

1

A

-meat in dried soups

314
Q

What are the effects of dehydration on meat?

3

A
  • loss of vitamin B
  • change in texture
  • long shelf-life
315
Q

What products are made from meat?

8

A
  • fresh sausage
  • cooked sausage
  • dried sausage
  • beef burgers
  • cold cooked meats
  • pate
  • meat extractives
  • gelatine
316
Q

What are fresh sausages made from?

2

A
  • made from raw meat, fat, water, fillers (wheat flour, rusk and corn starch) and flavourings
  • in a casing that is usually made from synthetic collagen
317
Q

What is rusk?

1

A

-a dry biscuit or bread

318
Q

What is cooked sausage made from?

2

A
  • made with similar ingredients to fresh sausages

- some contain additional ingredients such as oatmeal and pig’s blood in black pudding

319
Q

Give examples of cooked sausage

3

A
  • white pudding
  • black pudding
  • frankfurters
320
Q

What are dried sausages made from?

1

A

-made from meat that is cured, minced and mixed with other ingredients such as chilli, and dried

321
Q

Give examples of dried sausage

2

A
  • salami

- pepperoni

322
Q

What are beef burgers made from?

1

A

-made form minced beef, beef fat, wheat flour, water and seasoning, and moulded into a circular shape

323
Q

What are meat extractives made from?

1

A

-made from meat juice extractives that are dried and mixed with corn flour, salt, yeast extract and flavour enhancers

324
Q

Give examples of meat extractives

2

A
  • stock cubes

- gravy

325
Q

What is pate made from?

1

A

-made from a mixture of fat, flavouring, cooked ground meat and liver, minced into a spreadable paste

326
Q

Give an example of pate

1

A

-chicken liver pate

327
Q

What is cold cooked meat made from?

1

A

-made from a mixture of meat, fillers and flavourings, e.g. spices

328
Q

Give examples of cold cooked meat

4

A
  • ham
  • turkey
  • corned beef
  • luncheon roll
329
Q

What is gelatine?

3

A

-a colourless, tasteless and odourless setting agent made from the boiled bones, skins and tendons of animals

330
Q

What is gelatine used in?

3

A
  • jellies
  • soufflés
  • cheesecakes
331
Q

What is gelatine used for?

1

A

-it is used to thicken and stabilise desserts

332
Q

What two forms does gelatine come in?

2

A
  • leaf form

- powdered form

Leaving Cert Home Economics (9 decks)

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