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WAPS > Chapter 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Air Force doctrine is a statement _______. (4.2.1.)

A

-of officially sanctioned beliefs, war-fighting principles, and terminology-that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations-of what we have come to understand, based on our experience to date

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2
Q

The Air Force promulgates and teaches doctrine as: (4.2.2.)

A

-a common frame of reference on the best way to prepare and employ Air Force forces-a common set of understandings on which Airmen base their decisions-a common terminology which facilitates precision in expressing our ideas

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3
Q

The Air Force promulgates and teaches doctrine as a common frame of reference on the best way to prepare and employ Air Force forces. But, in application, doctrine should be: (4.2.3.)

A

used with judgment; we should strive to be doctrinally sound, not doctrinally bound

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4
Q

In what seems to be a continuous series of deployments, we no longer face the challenge of starting with a blank sheet of paper because doctrine provides an informed starting point for many decisions. Doctrine, properly applied, will: (4.2.4.)

A

often provide a 70, 80, or even 90 percent solution to most questions

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5
Q

Good doctrine informs, provides a sound departure point, and allows flexibility; bad doctrine overly binds and restricts creativity. Good doctrine can help, but: (4.2.5.)

A

it must be intelligently applied

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6
Q

Doctrine is about warfighting, not physics. This principle specifically addresses the perceived differences between operations in air, space, and cyberspace and focuses on: (4.2.6.)

A

the best means to obtain warfighting effects regardless of the domain in which a platform operates

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7
Q

Doctrine is about effects, not platforms. It focuses on the desired outcome of a particular action, not on the system or weapon that provides the effect. An example of this concept is: (4.2.7.)

A

-the recognition that bombers are not only “strategic”-the understanding that fighters are not solely “tactical”-the realization that it doesn’t matter if a platform is manned or unmanned

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8
Q

Doctrine is about effects, not platforms. Doctrine focuses on the _______ in a particular action. (4.2.7.)

A

desired outcome

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9
Q

Doctrine is about using domains, not owning domains. This is characterized by: (4.2.8.)

A

an integration of efforts and avoiding ownership arguments

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10
Q

Doctrine is about organization, not organizations. Modern warfare demands that disparate parts of different services, different nations, and even differing functions within a single service be brought together intelligently to achieve unity of effort. This requires: (4.2.9.)

A

a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command

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11
Q

Doctrine is about synergy, not segregation. Segregation: (4.2.10.)

A

guarantees that the whole will never be greater than the sum of its parts

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12
Q

Doctrine is about integration, not just synchronization. ________ is the arrangement of military actions in time, space, and purpose to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time. (4.2.11.)

A

synchronization

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13
Q

From an Airman’s perspective, synchronization is a tactical tool and doesn’t necessarily scale up to the operational level. Synchronization is limiting because: (4.2.11.)

A

it is an additive “sum of the parts” model

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14
Q

Doctrine is about integration, not just synchronization. Synchronization emphasizes ________ while integration considers priority and effect to be both efficient and effective with scarce resources. (4.2.11.)

A

timing

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15
Q

Doctrine is about what’s important, not who’s important. Good doctrine should point to the important things a commander should do and explain why they should be done. It should be _______. (4.2.12.)

A

about using the right capability to best accomplish the mission

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16
Q

Doctrine is about the right force, not just equal shares of the force. This addresses the proper mix of service components within a joint force. Some believe that a joint force requires equal parts of all the services. This is incorrect. Joint warfighting: (4.2.13.)

A

is not like Little League baseball where everyone gets a turn at bat

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17
Q

The Air Force places airpower doctrine at different levels and depths of detail and defines doctrine in three types: (4.3.)

A

basic, operational, and tactical

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18
Q

The Air Force places airpower doctrine at different levels and depths of detail in the forms of basic, operational, and tactical doctrine. Which form of doctrine provides broad and continuing guidance on how Air Force forces are organized, equipped, sustained, and employed? (4.3.1.)

A

basic doctrine

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19
Q

The Air Force defines airpower doctrine at three levels: basic, operational, and tactical. Which level of doctrine describes more detailed organization of forces and guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, broad functional areas, and operational environments? (4.3.2.)

A

operational doctrine

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20
Q

The Air Force defines airpower doctrine at three levels: basic, operational, and tactical. Which level describes the proper employment of specific U.S. Air Force assets, individually or in concert with other assets, to accomplish detailed objectives? (4.3.3.)

A

tactical doctrine

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21
Q

The Air Force defines airpower doctrine at three levels: basic, operational, and tactical. Which level is so closely associated with the employment of technology and emerging tactics that change may occur more rapidly than in other levels of doctrine? (4.3.3.)

A

tactical doctrine

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22
Q

The Air Force defines airpower doctrine at three levels: basic, operational, and tactical with each level having its own published reference. What is the reference for tactical doctrine? (4.3.3.)

A

TTP 3-series publications

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23
Q

Because of the unique nature of Air Force forces, the perspective of Airmen is necessarily different. The study of airpower leads to a distinctive point of view that General Henry H. (“Hap”) Arnold termed _______. (4.4.1.)

A

airmindedness

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24
Q

Airpower is an inherently _______ force due to its ability to affect an enemy’s critical vulnerabilities immediately and continuously as well as its nonlethal influence, as in humanitarian relief and security cooperation activities. (4.4.1.2.)

A

strategic

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25
Q

Airpower can exploit the principles of mass and maneuver simultaneously to a far greater extent than surface forces are able and dominates the fourth dimension. What is the fourth dimension? (4.4.1.3.)

A

time

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26
Q

Air Force forces are less culturally intrusive in many scenarios. Surface forces are composed of many people and vehicles which, when arrayed for operations, cover a significant area. ________ has a smaller cultural footprint when deployed. (4.4.1.5.)

A

Airpower

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27
Q

Airpower’s inherent speed, range, and flexibility combine to make it the most versatile component of military power. The versatility of airpower derives not only from the inherent characteristics of air forces themselves, but also from: (4.4.1.6.)

A

the manner in which they are organized and controlled

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28
Q

Airpower results from the effective integration of capabilities, people, weapons, bases, logistics, and all supporting infrastructure. No one aspect of air, space, and cyberspace capabilities should be treated in isolation because: (4.4.1.7.)

A

each element is essential and interdependent

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29
Q

Airpower results from the effective integration of capabilities, people, weapons, bases, logistics, and all supporting infrastructure but ultimately, airpower depends on _______. (4.4.1.7.)

A

the people who operate, command, and sustain air, space, and cyberspace forces

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30
Q

The choice of weapons is a key aspect in the realization of airpower. Weapons should be selected based on: (4.4.1.8.)

A

their ability to influence an adversary’s capability and will

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31
Q

Airpower’s unique characteristics necessitate that it be centrally controlled by Airmen because: (4.4.1.10.)

A

Airmen take a broader view of war because the weapons they command have effects at broader levels of war

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32
Q

What are the Principles of War? (4.4.2.)

A

-principles that have tended to produce military victory throughout the history of conflict-“truths” of warfare that have emerged from ancient times to the present-“those aspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant”

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33
Q

The principle of war that states that the concentration of effort for every objective under one responsible commander is necessary to gain the most effective and efficient application is: (4.4.2.1.)

A

Unity of Command

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34
Q

This principle of war is concerned with directing military operations toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to strategic, operational, and tactical aims. In application, this principle refers to unity of effort. (4.4.2.2.)

A

objective

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35
Q

Offensive action is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative. The offensive aim is to act rather than react, and dictates the time, place, purpose, scope, intensity, and pace of operations. This principle of war is particularly significant to airpower because it is best used as _______. (4.4.2.3.)

A

an offensive weapon

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36
Q

Which Principle of War states that success in war is generally attained only while on the offensive? (4.4.2.3.)

A

offensive

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37
Q

Airpower is inherently _______ at the tactical level, even when employed in operational or strategic defense. (4.4.2.3.)

A

offensive

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38
Q

The principle of war that concentrates the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results is _______. (4.4.2.4.)

A

mass

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39
Q

The principle of war that places the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space is _______. (4.4.2.5.)

A

maneuver

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40
Q

This principle of war is the judicious employment and distribution of forces that ensures that any effort made toward secondary objectives does not degrade achievement of the larger operational or strategic objectives. (4.4.2.6.)

A

economy of force

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41
Q

The purpose of this principle of war is to never permit the enemy to acquire unexpected advantage. The lethal consequences of enemy attack make this principle a paramount concern. (4.4.2.7.)

A

security

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42
Q

Critical to security (as a principle of war) is the understanding that it embraces physical security and: (4.4.2.7.)

A

security of the information environment

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43
Q

Which principle of war leverages the security principle by attacking the enemy at a time, place, or in a manner for which they are not prepared? (4.4.2.8.)

A

suprise

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44
Q

Which principle of war calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations? (4.4.2.9.)

A

simplicity

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45
Q

The application of airpower is refined by several fundamental guiding truths known as _______. (4.4.3.)

A

tenets

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46
Q

While the principles of war provide general guidance on the application of military forces, the tenets of air power provide more specific considerations for the employment of air, space, and cyberspace capabilities. They reflect: (4.4.3.)

A

the specific lessons of airpower capabilities throughout history

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47
Q

Which tenet of airpower is the oldest and remains the keystone of success in modern warfare? (4.4.3.)

A

centralized control and decentralized execution

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48
Q

Centralized control and decentralized execution of airpower are critical to effective employment. The delegation of authority to designated lower-level commanders and other tactical-level decision makers to achieve effective span of control is known as: (4.4.3.1.)

A

decentralized execution

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49
Q

This tenet allows airpower to exploit mass and maneuver simultaneously. (4.4.3.2.)

A

flexibility

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50
Q

Although often used interchangeably, the tenets of flexibility and versatility are different. Versatility: (4.4.3.2.)

A

is the ability to employ airpower effectively at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of warfare and provide a wide variety of tasks in concert with other joint force elements

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51
Q

Which tenet states that the proper application of a coordinated force can produce effects that exceed the contributions of forces employed individually? (4.4.3.3.)

A

Synergistic Effects

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52
Q

Examples of the tenet of persistence might be: (4.4.3.4.)

A

-assuring that targets are kept continually out of commission-maintaining a continuous flow of materiel to peacetime distressed areas-constantly monitoring adversaries to ensure compliance with agreements

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53
Q

This tenet describes the effort to concentrate overwhelming power at the decisive time and place. (4.4.3.5.)

A

concentration

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54
Q

The tenet of priority is important because: (4.4.3.6.)

A

the demands for airpower may exceed available resources

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55
Q

The tenet of balance is an essential guideline for air component commanders because: (4.4.3.7.)

A

the principles of war and the tenets of airpower must be balanced to bring Air Force capabilities together to produce a synergistic effect

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56
Q

In order to describe what airpower in general, and the Air Force in particular, bring to the Nation, Airmen should first understand the distinctions among: (4.4.4.)

A

roles, missions, and functions

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57
Q

In order to describe what airpower in general, and the Air Force in particular, bring to the Nation, Airmen should first understand the distinctions among roles, missions, and functions. In brief, the primary function of the Services is to: (4.4.4.)

A

organize, train, equip and administer military Service forces to perform a role

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58
Q

In order to describe what airpower in general, and the Air Force in particular, bring to the Nation, Airmen should first understand the distinctions among roles, missions, and functions. Roles are: (4.4.4.1.)

A

the broad and enduring purposes for which the Services were established by law

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59
Q

In order to describe what airpower in general, and the Air Force in particular, bring to the Nation, Airmen should first understand the distinctions among roles, missions, and functions. Missions are: (4.4.4.2.)

A

the tasks assigned by the President or SECDEF to the CCDRs

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60
Q

In order to describe what airpower in general, and the Air Force in particular, bring to the Nation, Airmen should first understand the distinctions among roles, missions, and functions. Functions are: (4.4.4.3.)

A

those specific responsibilities that enable the Services to fulfill their legally established roles

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61
Q

Recently the Air Force refined its understanding of the core duties and responsibilities it performs as a Service, streamlining what previously were 6 distinctive capabilities and 17 operational functions into 12 core functions. These core functions: (4.4.4.4.)

A

-express the ways in which the Air Force is suited to contribute to national security-do not necessarily express every aspect of what the Air Force contributes to the Nation-by themselves, are not doctrinal constructs

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62
Q

The Air Force revised its understanding of the core duties and responsibilities it performs, streamlining what previously were 6 distinctive capabilities and 17 operational functions into 12 core functions. The purpose of the core function of Nuclear Deterrence Operations is: (4.4.4.4.1.)

A

to maintain nuclear forces to deter an adversary from taking action against the U.S.

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63
Q

The core function of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) has subelements: (4.4.4.4.1.)

A

Assure/Dissuade/Deter, Nuclear Strike, and Nuclear Surety

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64
Q

The core function of Nuclear Deterrence Operations (NDO) has subelements of Assure/Dissuade/Deter, Nuclear Strike, and Nuclear Surety. Which of these ensures the safety, security and effectiveness of nuclear operations? (4.4.4.4.1.3.)

A

Nuclear Surety

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65
Q

Air Superiority is that degree of dominance in the air battle of one force over another which permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, sea, air, and special operations forces at a given time and place without prohibitive interference by the opposing force. The subelements of this core function are: (4.4.4.4.2.)

A

Offensive Counterair, Defensive Counterair, and Airspace Control

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66
Q

The core function of Air Superiority has subelements: Offensive Counterair, Defensive Counterair, and Airspace Control. Which element consists of offensive operations to destroy, disrupt, or neutralize enemy aircraft, missiles, launch platforms, and their supporting structures and systems both before and after launch, but as close to their source as possible? (4.4.4.4.2.1.)

A

Offensive Counterair

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67
Q

The core function of Air Superiority has subelements: Offensive Counterair, Defensive Counterair, and Airspace Control. Which element is the preferred method of countering air and missile threats because it attempts to defeat the enemy closer to its source and typically enjoys the initiative? (4.4.4.4.2.1.)

A

Offensive Counterair

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68
Q

The core function of Air Superiority has subelements: Offensive Counterair, Defensive Counterair, and Airspace Control. Which element involves all the defensive measures designed to detect, identify, intercept, and destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace? (4.4.4.4.2.2.)

A

Defensive Counterair

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69
Q

This core function is the degree of dominance in space of one force over another that permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, sea, air, space, and special operations forces at a given time and place without prohibitive interference by the opposing force. (4.4.4.4.3.)

A

Space Superiority

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70
Q

Space superiority is the degree of dominance in space of one force over another. The subelements of this core function are: (4.4.4.4.3.)

A

Space Force Enhancement, Space Force Application, and Space Control

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71
Q

Space superiority is the degree of dominance in space of one force over another with subelements of Space Force Enhancement, Space Force Application, and Space Control. The mission of Space Force Enhancement includes: (4.4.4.4.3.1.)

A

-intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance-integrated tactical warning and attack assessment-command, control, and communications, positioning, navigation, and timing, and environmental monitoring

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72
Q

The core function of Space superiority is comprised of the subelements of Space Force Enhancement, Space Force Application, and Space Control. The mission of Space Force Application includes: (4.4.4.4.3.2.)

A

ballistic missile defense and force projection

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73
Q

This core function is the operational advantage in, through, and from cyberspace to conduct operations at a given time and in a given domain without prohibitive interference. (4.4.4.4.4.)

A

Cyberspace Superiority

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74
Q

Cyberspace superiority is the operational advantage in, through, and from cyberspace to conduct operations at a given time and in a given domain without prohibitive interference. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.4.)

A

Cyberspace Force Application, Cyberspace Defense, and Cyberspace Support

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75
Q

This core function is the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission. (4.4.4.4.5.)

A

Command and Control (C2)

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76
Q

The core function of Command and Control (C2) operates at three levels: (4.4.4.4.5.)

A

Strategic Level C2, Operational Level C2, Tactical Level C2

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77
Q

The core function of Command and Control (C2) has three levels: Strategic, Operational, and Tactical. The United States determines national or multinational security objectives and guidance, and develops and uses national resources to accomplish these objectives at this level. (4.4.4.4.5.1.)

A

Strategic

78
Q

The core function of Command and Control (C2) has three levels: Strategic, Operational, and Tactical. At which level are campaigns and major operations planned, conducted, sustained, and assessed to accomplish strategic goals within theaters or areas of operations? (4.4.4.4.5.2.)

A

Operational

79
Q

The core function of Command and Control (C2) has three levels: Strategic, Operational, and Tactical. Which level is where individual battles and engagements are fought? (4.4.4.4.5.3.)

A

Tactical

80
Q

Global integrated ISR is the synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of sensors, assets, and processing, exploitation, dissemination systems across the globe to conduct current and future operations. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.6.)

A

Planning and Directing, Collection, Processing and Exploitation, Analysis and Production, and Dissemination and Integration

81
Q

This core function is the synchronization and integration of the planning and operation of sensors, assets, and processing, exploitation, dissemination systems across the globe to conduct current and future operations. (4.4.4.4.6.)

A

Global Integrated ISR

82
Q

Global precision attack is the ability to hold at risk or strike rapidly and persistently, with a wide range of munitions, any target and to create swift, decisive, and precise effects across multiple domains. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.7.)

A

Strategic Attack, Air Interdiction, and Close Air Support

83
Q

This function is the ability to hold at risk or strike rapidly and persistently, with a wide range of munitions, any target and to create swift, decisive, and precise effects across multiple domains. (4.4.4.4.7.)

A

Global Precision Attack

84
Q

A subelement of the function, Global Precision Attack, is Strategic Attack. Strategic Attack: (4.4.4.4.7.1.)

A

-is offensive action specifically selected to achieve national strategic objectives-seeks to weaken the adversary’s ability or will to engage in conflict-may achieve strategic objectives without necessarily having to achieve operational objectives as a precondition

85
Q

Which subelement of Global Precision Attack is defined as: air operations conducted to divert, disrupt, delay, or destroy the enemy’s military potential before it can be brought to bear effectively against friendly forces, or to otherwise achieve JFC objectives? (4.4.4.4.7.2.)

A

Air Interdiction

86
Q

Which subelement of Global Precision Attack is defined as: air action by fixed- and rotary-winged aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and which require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces? (4.4.4.4.7.3.)

A

Close Air Support

87
Q

Special operations are operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement. It includes subelements: (4.4.4.4.8.)

A

-Agile Combat Support, Aviation Foreign Internal Defense, and Battlefield Air Operations-Command and Control (C2), Information Operations, and Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR)-Military Information Support Operations, Precision Strike, Specialized Air Mobility, and Specialized Refueling

88
Q

Rapid Global Mobility is the timely deployment, employment, sustainment, augmentation, and redeployment of military forces and capabilities across the Range Of Military Operations (ROMO). It provides joint military forces the capability to move from place to place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.9.)

A

Airlift, Air Refueling, and Aeromedical Evacuation

89
Q

This function is defined as: the timely deployment, employment, sustainment, augmentation, and redeployment of military forces and capabilities across the Range Of Military Operations. It provides joint military forces the capability to move from place to place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission. (4.4.4.4.9.)

A

Rapid Global Mobility

90
Q

The function of Personnel Recovery is the sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to prepare for and execute the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.10.)

A

-Combat Search and Rescue and Civil Search and Rescue-Disaster Response and Humanitarian Assistance Operations-Medical Evacuation/Casualty Evacuation

91
Q

The function of Agile Combat Support is the ability to field, protect, and sustain Air Force forces across the Range Of Military Operations to achieve joint effects. The subelements of this function are: (4.4.4.4.11.)

A

-Ready the Total Force and Prepare the Battlespace-Position the Total Force and Protect the Total Force-Employ Combat Support Forces, Sustain the Total Force, and Recover the Total Force

92
Q

This function is the ability to field, protect, and sustain Air Force forces across the Range Of Military Operation (ROMO) to achieve joint effects. (4.4.4.4.11.)

A

Agile Combat Support

93
Q

The function of Building Partnerships is described as Airmen interacting with international airmen and other relevant actors to develop, guide, and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security. Its subelements are: (4.4.4.4.12.)

A

Communicate and Shape

94
Q

This function is described as Airmen interacting with international airmen and other relevant actors to develop, guide, and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security. (4.4.4.4.12.)

A

Building Partnerships

95
Q

It is critical to understand that we organize, deploy, and employ air and space forces using organizational principles based on doctrine, not ad hoc command arrangements. The mechanism for managing and scheduling forces for expeditionary use is: (4.5.1.)

A

the Air and Space Expeditionary Force

96
Q

The Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) is designed to provide forces and support on a _______ basis. (4.5.2.)

A

rotational and more predictable

97
Q

The AEF force generation construct is used to manage the battle rhythm of the force in order to meet CCDRs’ requirements while maintaining the highest possible level of overall readiness. There are four major elements of the AEF structure: (4.5.3.)

A

readily available force, enabler force, in-place support, and institutional force

98
Q

There are four major elements of the AEF structure: readily available force, enabler force, in-place support, and institutional force. Which of these provides the Air Force’s sustainment capability to comply with federal law? (4.5.3.)

A

institutional force

99
Q

The _______ is the force generation construct used to manage the battle rhythm of rotational forces in order to meet global CCDR requirements while maintaining the highest possible level of overall readiness. (4.5.3.1.)

A

AEF

100
Q

The AEF operates on a _______ life cycle although each tempo band within the AEF construct operates under a different battle rhythm. (4.5.3.1.)

A

24-month

101
Q

The baseline _______ AEF vulnerability period facilitates readiness of the force to respond to rotational and operations plan (OPLAN) requirements. (4.5.3.2.)

A

6-month

102
Q

The baseline 6-month AEF vulnerability period facilitates readiness of the force to respond to rotational and operations plan (OPLAN) requirements. Which forces are vulnerable for OPLAN requirements? (4.5.3.2.)

A

all AEF forces

103
Q

The _______ determines the Air Force’s operational policy for meeting and sustaining AEF rotational requirements which requires Airmen to deploy for a baseline of 179 days. (4.5.3.3.)

A

Chief of Staff, U.S. Air Force (CSAF)

104
Q

The Air Force’s established operational rotation policy requires Airmen to deploy for a baseline of _______. (4.5.3.3.)

A

179 days

105
Q

Global Force Management (GFM) is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the National Defense Strategy and joint force availability requirements. The GFM allocation process has two specific supporting processes: (4.5.3.4.1.)

A

-rotational force allocation in support of CCDR annual force needs-emergent force allocation in support of CCDR emerging or crisis-based requests for capabilities and forces

106
Q

Global Force Management is a process to align force apportionment, assignment, and allocation methodologies in support of the National Defense Strategy (NDS), joint force availability requirements, and joint force assessments. The Air Force method to support GFM is: (4.5.3.4.1.)

A

the AEF construct

107
Q

The AEF tempo band construct synchronizes with two _______ Global Force Management (GFM) cycles. (4.5.3.4.2.)

A

12-month

108
Q

The tempo band construct synchronizes with two 12-month GFM cycles and manages forces through GFM assignment, allocation, and apportionment. Aligning a UTC capability into a tempo band is based on requirements relative to: (4.5.3.4.2.)

A

assigned rotational capability for each vulnerability period

109
Q

A unit type code (UTC) is a _______. (4.5.3.4.2.)

A

capability focused on accomplishing a specific mission

110
Q

The Air Force supports joint force commander (JFC) requirements through a combination of assigned, attached (rotational), and mobility forces that may be forward-deployed, transient, or operating from home station. The Air Force presents required capabilities to the JFC as: (4.5.4.)

A

an Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)

111
Q

The Air Force presents required capabilities to the Joint Force Commander as an Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). The AETF can be task organized as: (4.5.4.)

A

a numbered Expeditionary Air Force, AEW, AEG, or Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES)

112
Q

The AETF is a scalable, tailorable organization with three components: (4.5.4.1.)

A

a single, clearly designated commander, appropriate command and control mechanisms, and tailored and fully supported forces

113
Q

The AETF can be task organized as a numbered expeditionary air force, air expeditionary wing, air expeditionary group, or air expeditionary squadron, depending on mission requirements. Which of these organizations is the largest? (4.5.4.1.)

A

a Numbered Expeditionary Air Force (NEAF)

114
Q

The AETF can be task organized as a numbered expeditionary air force, air expeditionary wing, air expeditionary group, or air expeditionary squadron. The _______ is normally the smallest independently deployable AETF. (4.5.4.3.)

A

Air Expeditionary Group (AEG)

115
Q

The AETF can be task organized as a numbered expeditionary air force, air expeditionary wing, air expeditionary group, or air expeditionary squadron. The _______ is the basic war-fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the AETF. (4.5.4.4.)

A

Air Expeditionary Squadron (AES)

116
Q

The AEF schedule operates on two _______ life cycles that align with the GFM cycle and coincide with fiscal years. (4.6.1.)

A

12-month

117
Q

Designated Air Force war-fighting capabilities are grouped into force packages identified by _______. (4.6.2.)

A

unit type code (UTC)

118
Q

At any given time, one AEF block from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period. Regardless of AEF vulnerability period, all AEF forces are vulnerable for OPLAN tasking _______, including the period immediately following redeployment. (4.6.3. and 4.6.3.2.)

A

at all times

119
Q

If requirements exceed forces available during the AEF vulnerability period, the AEF is designed to surge to meet increased requirements. Which of the following is NOT a method of AEF surging? (4.6.4.2.)

A

involuntary conscription

120
Q

Functional areas that entered surge operations must be reconstituted. Reconstitution is: (4.6.5.)

A

the restoration of combat capability following operations

121
Q

Airmen will be assigned to one, and only one, AEF vulnerability period in a tempo band. For individuals assigned to war-fighting organizations, the AEFI will correspond to: (4.7.1.)

A

the same AEF block as the unit’s UTCs

122
Q

Airmen will be assigned to one, and only one, AEF vulnerability period in a tempo band. For individuals assigned to the institutional force, the AEFI will correspond to: (4.7.1.)

A

an AEF vulnerability period determined by the Airman’s commander or equivalent

123
Q

The U.S. Air Force assignment process is managed to coincide with the AEF battle rhythm to the maximum extent possible. The assignment process will: (4.7.3.)

A

-formally track AEF deployments on individual personnel records-provide visibility of individuals to all commanders

124
Q

Joint doctrine is: (4.9.1.)

A

a common perspective from which to plan, train, and conduct military operations

125
Q

Competent joint war-fighters must be skilled strategic thinkers with a joint perspective, able to optimize joint capabilities and apply strategic and operational warfare. Five values, while not specific to joint operations, have special impact on the conduct of joint operations: (4.9.2.)

A

integrity, competency, physical courage, moral courage, and teamwork

126
Q

National strategic direction is governed by: (4.10.1.)

A

-the Constitution-federal law-United States Government policy regarding internationally recognized law and national interest

127
Q

National strategic direction is governed by the Constitution, federal law, U.S. Government policy regarding internationally recognized law, and national interest. This direction leads to _______. (4.10.1.)

A

unified action

128
Q

This term broadly refers to the synchronization, coordination, and/or integration of the activities of governmental and nongovernmental entities with military operations to achieve unity of effort. (4.10.2.)

A

unified action

129
Q

The President and SECDEF exercise authority and control of the Armed Forces through two distinct branches of the chain of command: (4.10.3.)

A

-from the President, through the SECDEF, to the CCDRs for missions and forces assigned to their commands-from the President, through the SECDEF, to the military department Secretaries for other than operational direction of forces

130
Q

The forces, units, and systems of all Services must operate together effectively. This effectiveness is achieved in part through interoperability. This includes: (4.10.4.)

A

-the development and use of joint doctrine and OPLANs-joint and/or interoperable communications and information systems-conducting joint training and exercises

131
Q

The _______ is composed of the Secretary of Defense, the military departments, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Joint Staff, the combatant commands, the Inspector General of the DoD, the DoD agencies, DoD field activities, and other offices, agencies, activities, and commands established by law, the President, or the SECDEF. (4.11.1.)

A

Department of Defense (DOD)

132
Q

The _______ consists of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Chief of Staff, U.S. Army, the Chief of Naval Operations, the Chief of Staff, U.S. Air Force, and the Commandant of the Marine Corps. (4.11.2.)

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

133
Q

Commanders of the functional commands support geographic combatant commanders (GCC), normally in coordination with the GCC in whose AOR the operation will be conducted. What are the functional commands? (4.11.3.)

A

U.S. Transportation Command, U.S. Strategic Command, and U.S. Special Operations Command

134
Q

_______ means all forces operate under a single commander with the requisite authority to direct all forces employed in pursuit of a common purpose. (4.12.1.)

A

Unity of command

135
Q

Unity of command means all forces operate under a single commander with the authority to direct all forces in pursuit of a common purpose. However, unity of effort requires: (4.12.1.)

A

coordination and cooperation among all forces toward a commonly recognized objective

136
Q

The chain of command from the President, through the SECDEF to the combatant commanders, exercises the following types of command authorities: (4.12.2.1. - 4.12.2.3.)

A

-Combatant Command (COCOM) Authority-Operational Control (OPCON)-Tactical Control (TACON)

137
Q

The chain of command exercises the following types of command authorities: Combatant command (COCOM) authority, Operational control (OPCON), and Tactical control (TACON). Which of these types is the command authority over assigned or attached forces that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish assigned missions or tasks. (4.12.2.3.)

A

Tactical Control (TACON)

138
Q

A support relationship is established by a superior commander between subordinate commanders when one organization should aid, protect, complement, or sustain another force. The support command relationship is: (4.12.2.4.)

A

by design, a somewhat vague but very flexible arrangement

139
Q

The chain of command, from the President through the SECDEF, to the secretaries of the military departments to the service chiefs, exercises what kind of authority? (4.12.3.)

A

Administrative Control (ADCON)

140
Q

All National Guard and Reserve forces (except those specifically exempted) are assigned by the SECDEF to the combatant commands. However, those forces are available for operational missions only when: (4.12.4.)

A

-mobilized for specific periods, by law-ordered to active duty after being validated for employment by their parent service

141
Q

Joint forces are established at three levels: (4.13.1.)

A

unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and joint task forces

142
Q

Joint forces are established at three levels: unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and joint task forces, and can be established on what basis? (4.13.1.)

A

geographic area or functional

143
Q

Joint forces are established at three levels: unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and JTFs, and can be established on either a geographic area or functional basis. These organizations are commanded by: (4.13.1.)

A

a joint force commander (JFC)

144
Q

The general term applied to a combatant commander, subunified commander, or joint task force commander authorized to exercise combatant command (command authority) or operational control over a joint force. (4.13.1.)

A

Joint Force Commander (JFC)

145
Q

A command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander, composed of forces from two or more military departments is a: (4.13.1.1.)

A

unified command

146
Q

A _______ is a command that has broad continuing missions and is established by the President, through the SECDEF, with the advice and assistance of the CJCS. There are currently none of this type of command designated. (4.13.1.2.)

A

specified command

147
Q

Joint forces are established at three levels: unified commands, subordinate unified commands, and JTFs. A JTF may be established on a geographical or functional basis when the mission has: (4.13.1.4.)

A

a specific limited objective

148
Q

The commander of a U.S. Air Force component at any joint level (unified combatant command, subunified combatant command, or JTF), is, by joint and U.S. Air Force definition, called a _______. (4.13.2.1.)

A

Commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR)

149
Q

The COMAFFOR commands forces through two separate chains of responsibility: operational and administrative. The administrative chain runs through service channels only, from the unit, up through the appropriate MAJCOM, to the Air Force Chief of Staff and Secretary of the Air Force; this authority is expressed as: (4.13.2.1.)

A

ADCON

150
Q

The AETF presents a JFC with a task-organized, integrated package with the appropriate balance of force, sustainment, control, and force protection. The AETF presents a scalable, tailorable organization with three elements: (4.13.2.2.)

A

a single commander (the COMAFFOR), appropriate C2 mechanisms, and tailored and fully supported forces

151
Q

The AETF presents a scalable, tailorable organization with three elements: a single commander, appropriate C2 mechanisms, and tailored and fully supported forces. What is the appropriate C2 mechanism? (4.13.2.2. and 4.13.2.2.2.)

A

Air and Space Air Operations Center (AOC)

152
Q

The COMAFFOR uses an Air and Space Air Operations Center (AOC) to exercise control of air and space operations, and _______ to exercise support operations and ADCON. These sustainment activities are sometimes referred to as “beds, beans, and bullets”. (4.13.2.2.2. and 4.13.2.2.3.)

A

the Air Force forces (AFFOR) staff

153
Q

If air and space assets from more than one service are present within a joint force, the Joint Force Commander (JFC) will normally designate a _______ to exploit the full capabilities of joint air and space operations. (4.13.3.1.)

A

Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)

154
Q

If air and space assets from more than one service are present within a joint force, the Joint Force Commander (JFC) will normally designate a joint force air and space component commander (JFACC). If working with allies in a coalition operation, the JFACC may be designated as the: (4.13.3.1.)

A

Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFACC)

155
Q

Functional component commanders normally exercise TACON of forces made available to them by the Joint Force Commander (JFC). Thus, a COMAFFOR exercises OPCON of Air Force forces and, acting as a JFACC, exercises _______ of any Navy, Army, Marine, and coalition air and space assets made available for tasking. (4.13.3.2.)

A

TACON

156
Q

A continuous process, using the full range of military operations, joint operation planning produces operation plans in the form of: (4.14.1.)

A

-OPLANs (a complete and detailed joint plan)-concept plans (joint operation plans in an abbreviated format)-less detailed operation plans in the form of a base plan or commander’s estimate

157
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. These planning activities are: (4.14.1. - 4.14.1.6.)

A

-Deployment Planning, Employment Planning, and Redeployment Planning-Mobilization Planning, Sustainment Planning, and Demobilization Planning

158
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. The process by which the Armed Forces are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency is: (4.14.1.1.)

A

Mobilization Planning

159
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. The planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations is: (4.14.1.2.)

A

Deployment Planning

160
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. Which type of planning describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area? (4.14.1.3.)

A

Employment Planning

161
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. This type of planning addresses the provision of logistics and personnel services required to maintain and prolong operations until mission accomplishment. (4.14.1.4.)

A

Sustainment Planning

162
Q

Which type of joint operation planning concerns the movement of units, individuals, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, or to another location within the area for the purpose of further employment? (4.14.1.5.)

A

Redeployment Planning

163
Q

Joint operation planning includes all activities that must be accomplished to plan for an anticipated operation. This planning includes the return of Reserve component units, individuals, and materiel stocks to their former status. (4.14.1.6.)

A

Demobilization Planning

164
Q

There are many joint and service planning systems to prepare operation plans. The system used by joint planners to monitor, plan, and execute planning activities during peace and crisis is: (4.14.2.1.)

A

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

165
Q

The main planning system used to prepare joint operation plans is the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). The Air Force’s war-planning system that provides an Air Force feed to JOPES is: (4.14.2.2.)

A

Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

166
Q

It consists of five volumes and associated databases and includes a consolidated reference for general policies and guidance for Air Force planning; a list of apportioned combat and support forces; a set of planning factors (such as sortie rate) by aircraft type and theater serving as a basis for establishing worldwide support for programmed force levels; a list of all active plans with time-phased force deployment data; and, based on the planning factors, the expected aircraft activity at each base in the MAJCOM’s AOR. (4.14.3.)

A

the Air Force War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) System

167
Q

Multinational operations are usually undertaken within the structure of a coalition or alliance. Other commonly used terms for multinational operations include: (4.15.2.)

A

allied, bilateral, combined, coalition, or multilateral

168
Q

Multinational operations are usually undertaken within the structure of a coalition or alliance. The relationship that results from a formal agreement (such as a treaty) between two or more nations for broad, long-term objectives that further the common interests of the members is: (4.15.2.)

A

an alliance

169
Q

Operations conducted with units from two or more allies are referred to as _______ operations. (4.15.2.)

A

combined

170
Q

Multinational operations are usually undertaken within the structure of a coalition or alliance. An ad hoc arrangement between two or more nations for common action is _______. (4.15.2.)

A

a coalition

171
Q

Operations conducted with units from two or more coalition members are referred to as _______ operations. (4.15.2.)

A

coalition

172
Q

The five tenets of multinational operations are: (4.15.5.)

A

respect, rapport, knowledge of partners, patience, and coordination

173
Q

The basic structures for multinational operations fall into one of three types: (4.15.6.)

A

integrated, lead nation, or parallel command

174
Q

The basic structures for multinational operations fall into one of three types: integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. Which structure exists when all member nations place their forces under the control of one nation? (4.15.6.)

A

lead nation

175
Q

The basic structures for multinational operations fall into one of three types: integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. Which structure exists when there are representative members from the member nations in the command headquarters? (4.15.6.)

A

integrated structure

176
Q

The basic structures for multinational operations fall into one of three types: integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. Which of these structures exist when no single force commander is designated? (4.15.6.)

A

parallel command

177
Q

Nations that participate in multinational operations will rarely, if ever, relinquish national command of their forces. Thus, forces participating in a multinational operation will always have at least two distinct chains of command: (4.15.8.)

A

a national chain of command and a multinational chain of command

178
Q

The National Security Council (NSC) advises and assists the President in integrating all aspects of national security policy, including domestic, foreign, military, intelligence, and economic. Its statutory members are: (4.16.3.)

A

the President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and SECDEF

179
Q

The statutory members of the National Security Council (NSC) are the President, Vice President, Secretary of State, and SECDEF. Who serves as the council’s statutory military advisor? (4.16.3.)

A

the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff

180
Q

While the National Security Council (NSC) serves as the principal forum for considering national security policy issues, _______ provides a parallel forum for considering unique homeland security (HS) matters, especially those concerning terrorism within the United States. (4.16.4.)

A

the Homeland Security Council (HSC)

181
Q

This is the primary forum for coordinating Executive Branch efforts to detect, prepare for, prevent, protect against, respond to, and recover from terrorist attacks within the United States. (4.16.5.)

A

the Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

182
Q

Unless authorized by the President, Congress, or the Constitution, the Army, Air Force, Marine Corps, and Navy are prohibited from directly participating in civilian law enforcement activities within the United States by _______. (4.16.6.)

A

Posse Comitatus, together with related DoD regulations

183
Q

When formed, a joint interagency coordination group (JIACG) can increase the combatant commander’s ability to collaborate with other U.S. Government civilian agencies and departments. The JIACG: (4.16.7.)

A

-complements the interagency coordination that occurs at the national level-enhances the ability to collaborate and coordinate with the private sector or regional organizations-establishes working relationships between governmental agencies’ representatives and military operational planners

184
Q

We must rely on the strengths of others, or be interdependent, and ensure all capabilities are interoperable with each other to achieve an overarching objective. One of the founding initiatives, which addressed joint interdependence and joint interoperability, was: (4.17.1.)

A

the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986

185
Q

The Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986 provided a statutory basis for change in our military command structure and consolidated operational authority through the CJCS instead of the Service chiefs for review of major personnel, material, and logistics requirements for the Armed Forces. Ultimately, it was passed with the intent to: (4.17.2.)

A

-improve our DoD budget process-improve the ability of the U.S. Armed Forces to conduct joint and coalition operations

186
Q

With a desire to create a more appropriate balance between joint and service interests as a backdrop, Congress declared _______ purposes for the Goldwater-Nichols DoD Reorganization Act of 1986. (4.17.2.)

A

8

187
Q

In order for joint and coalition operations to be successful, there must be a clear command relationship, specifically: (4.17.8.)

A

a supported and supporting command relationship between joint and coalition force components

188
Q

The joint task force organized in response to the Qadhafi regime using military force against its citizens was called _______. (4.17.10.)

A

JTF ODYSSEY DAWN

189
Q

What prompted the multi-national effort, Operation Odyssey Dawn, that ultimately resulted in removing Qadhafi from power? (4.17.12.)

A

the Arab League asked the U.N. Security Council to impose a no-fly zone over Libya

190
Q

What authorized the international coalition to take all necessary measures to protect civilians in Libya and authorized the use of force and the enforcement of a No Fly Zone over Libya? (4.17.12.)

A

United Nations Security Council Resolution 1973

191
Q

French, British, American, Danish, and Italian forces participated in operations against the Libyan government until 31 March 2011 when NATO took command of all operations in Libya with subsequent operations being conducted as part of _______. (4.17.13.1.)

A

Operation Unified Protector

192
Q

General Dempsey said it best when he stated that Joint and Coalition means: (4.17.13.2.)

A

-building and presenting forces that can be molded to context, not just by adding and subtracting-interdependent services that rely on each other to create capabilities that do not exist except when combined-a regionally postured, but globally networked and flexible force that can be scaled and scoped to demand

WAPS (13 decks)

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