Chapter 19 Flashcards by Kimberly Kemp

The process of identifying, analyzing, and controlling critical information indicating friendly actions associated with military operations and other activities is _______. (19.6.1.)

Operations Security (OPSEC)

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The purpose of Operations Security (OPSEC) is: (19.6.2.)

to reduce the vulnerability of Air Force missions by preventing adversary collection and exploitation of critical information

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The purpose of OPSEC is to reduce the vulnerability of Air Force missions by eliminating or reducing successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information. Operational effectiveness is enhanced when: (19.6.3.)

OPSEC is applied from the earliest stages of planning

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Air Force forces can be under observation at their peacetime bases and locations, in training or exercises, while moving, or when deployed to the field conducting actual operations. Therefore, OPSEC principles must be integrated into _______. (19.6.4.)

-operational planning-support planning-exercise and acquisition planning

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OPSEC should be incorporated into day-to-day activities to ensure a seamless transition to contingency operations. The OPSEC process consists of five distinct steps: (19.6.4.)

identify critical information, analyze threats, analyze vulnerabilities, assess risk, and apply appropriate OPSEC measures

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Sources of OPSEC indicators are: (19.6.5.)

friendly, detectable actions, and open-source information that can be pieced together by an adversary to derive critical information

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics that make them potentially valuable to an adversary: (19.6.5.)

Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics: Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure. Signatures refers to: (19.6.5.1.)

the characteristic of an indicator that makes it identifiable or causes it to stand out

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics: Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure. Associations refers to: (19.6.5.2.)

the relationship of an indicator to other information or activities

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics: Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure. Profiles are defined as: (19.6.5.3.)

how each activity has its own set of unique signatures and associations

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics: Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure. Contrasts are: (19.6.5.4.)

any difference observed between an activity’s standard profile and its recent or current actions

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OPSEC indicators have five basic characteristics: Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, and Exposure. Exposure is: (19.6.5.5.)

when and for how long an indicator is observed

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The Air Force policy to identify, classify, downgrade, declassify, mark, protect, and destroy its classified information consistent with national policy is known as: (19.7.)

Information Security (INFOSEC)

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The initial decision to classify an item of information because unauthorized disclosure could damage national security is: (19.7.1.1.)

original classification

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The initial decision to classify an item of information because unauthorized disclosure could damage national security is known as original classification. The decision to originally classify information may only be made by: (19.7.1.1.)

the Secretary of Defense, the secretaries of the military departments, and other officials specifically delegated this authority in writing

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Only the Secretary of Defense, the secretaries of the military departments, and other officials specifically delegated this authority in writing may originally classify information. Within the Air Force, Original Classification Authorities (OCAs) are appointed at the Top Secret-and-below levels by: (19.7.1.1.)

the Secretary of the Air Force

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the Administrative Assistant to the Secretary of the Air Force

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A Security Classification Guide (SCG) specifies items or categories of information for each system, program, plan, or project that must be classified. The SCG identifies: (19.7.1.1.1.)

-the original classification authority and a point of contact-the reason for classification and declassification instructions-for each item or category of information, the applicable classification level

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Derivative classification is the: (19.7.1.2.)

classification of information when it is extracted, paraphrased, restated, or generated in a new form

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Every classified document must be marked: (19.7.1.4.)

to show the highest classification of information it contains

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Every classified document must be marked to show the highest classification of information it contains. The overall classification will be identified on: (19.7.1.4.)

the front cover, the title page, the first page, and the outside of the back cover

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The overall classification of a classified document will be identified on the front cover, the title page, the first page, and the outside of the back cover. In addition, every classified document must show the agency, office of origin, and date of origin on: (19.7.1.4.1.)

the first page, title page, or front cover

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Every originally classified document must have a “Classified by” line placed on the first page, title page, or front cover that identifies the original classification authority responsible for classifying the information it contains. Derivatively classified documents are marked: (19.7.1.4.2.)

-“Derived from” and the document and date the information was derived fromOr-the words “Multiple Sources”

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Information must be declassified: (19.7.1.5.)

as soon as it no longer meets the standards for classification

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Information must be declassified as soon as it no longer meets the standards for classification. There are 4 separate systems that can bring about the declassification of information: (19.7.1.5.)

-the decision at the time of classification as to when it can be declassified-the automatic declassification on the 25th anniversary of its classification-the review for declassification upon request and during a systematic review

If reason exists to indicate a document has been classified improperly or unnecessarily, personnel should submit challenges of classification to: (19.7.1.6.)

the security manager or the classifier of the information

Classified information must be protected at all times by either of two methods: (19.7.2.1.)

-storing it in an approved security container or facility-having it under the personal observation and control of an authorized individual

Heads of activities that process or store classified information must establish a system of security checks at the close of each working day to ensure the area is secure. What form is used to record these checks? (19.7.2.3.)

SF 701, Activity Security Checklist

A person may not have access to classified information unless they have the proper security clearance, the need to know, and: (19.7.2.4.)

have signed a nondisclosure agreement

A person may not have access to classified information unless they have the proper security clearance, the need to know, and have signed a nondisclosure agreement. The final responsibility for determining if a person has the proper security clearance and requires access to classified information rests with: (19.7.2.4.)

the individual authorized possession, knowledge, or control of the information

Classified information at the Top Secret level is controlled and accounted for through: (19.7.2.4.1.)

top secret control account systems

Classified information at the Secret level is controlled and accounted for through: (19.7.2.4.2.)

internal controls as determined by unit commanders or staff agency chiefs

Confidential information is controlled and accounted for through: (19.7.2.4.3.)

routine administrative procedures

Material classified at this level does not require a receipt when transferring the material. (19.7.2.4.3.)

confidential

Any person who becomes aware of the possible compromise of classified information must: (19.7.2.5.)

immediately report it to the head of his or her local activity or to the activity security manager

DoD military and civilian personnel are subject to sanctions if they knowingly, willfully, or negligently disclose classified information to unauthorized persons. Sanctions include, but are not limited to: (19.7.3.)

-warning, reprimand, suspension without pay and forfeiture of pay-removal, discharge, and loss of access to classified information-action under the UCMJ and under applicable criminal law

The Personnel Security Program involves: (19.8.1.)

determining the trustworthiness of individuals before they have access to classified information

The Personnel Security program requires commanders and supervisors to continually observe their subordinates' behavior. If warranted, the commander reports unfavorable information to the _______ . (19.8.2.)

Air Force Central Adjudication Facility (AFCAF)

Personnel security clearances are recorded in the _______. (19.8.3.)

Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

The Industrial Security Program involves: (19.9.1.)

identifying information in classified contracts that must be protected while entrusted to industry

Air Force policy is to identify, in its classified contracts, specific government information and sensitive resources that must be protected against compromise or loss while entrusted to industry. Which AFI provides guidance and assigns functional responsibilities? (19.9.1.)

AFI 31-601, Industrial Security Program Management

The security policies, requirements, and procedures identified in AFI 31-601, Industrial Security Program Management, are applicable to: (19.9.2.)

Air Force personnel and on-base DoD contractors

The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program is the integration of multidisciplinary active and passive, offensive and defensive capabilities, employed to: (19.10.1.)

mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations

The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program ensures all Airmen are trained to: (19.10.1.)

defend themselves and integrate into defense operations

Installation commanders determine Integrated Defense (ID) requirements based on a four-step process: (1) Determining and prioritizing the criticality of installation assets, (2) Analyzing the threats and operating environment, and: (19.10.1.)

(3) Assessing installation vulnerabilities, and (4) Making ID decisions

The Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) Program is an "all-Airmen" program. However, _______ have enterprise lead in ID operations. (19.10.2.)

Air Force Security Forces

The goal of the Air Force Integrated Defense (ID) program is to: (19.10.3.)

neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary (BB) to ensure unhindered Air Force operations

The Integrated Defense (ID) program does not stand alone in protecting personnel and resources. The protection and defense of air bases requires the coordinated effort of _______. (19.10.4.)

-Emergency Management (EM)-Antiterrorism (AT) forces-forces under the Force Protection (FP) umbrella

Joint Publications define the base boundary (BB) as a line that delineates the surface area of a base. Which of the following statements about the BB is true? (19.10.5.)

The Base Boundary is not necessarily the base perimeter.

The Base Security Zone (BSZ) is an Air Force unique concept and term. The Air Force uses the term to describe the area of concern around an air base and to: (19.10.6.)

support the establishment and adjustment of the Base Boundary

The _______ is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable from standoff threats such as mortars or rockets. (19.10.6.)

Base Security Zone (BSZ)

To conduct base defense tasks in terrain outside the Base Boundary but within the Base Security Zone, the defense force commander (DFC) should coordinate with: (19.10.6.2.)

-local, state, or federal agencies within CONUS-the host nation or area commander (OCONUS)

The command and control center for Integrated Defense (ID) operations during routine and emergency operations is: (19.10.6.3.)

the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

Commanders execute integrated defense (ID) with the objective of achieving nine desired effects based on the risk management process. Those effects are: (19.11.1.)

Anticipate, Deter, Detect, Assess, Warn, Defeat, Delay, Defend, Recover

This is an action group whereby the security forces staff S-2 (intelligence) function coordinates with subject matter experts (SME) from the Intelligence and AFOSI communities to collaborate and conduct intelligence preparation of the operational environment (IPOE). (19.11.3.)

the Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)

The primary source of information that directly supports the defense force commander (DFC) in making immediate, proactive decisions for Integrated Defense (ID) planning is: (19.11.3.)

the Intelligence Fusion Cell (IFC)

Definition: an analytical methodology that provides predictive intelligence to warfighters for use in planning and executing operations. (19.11.5.)

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE)

An analytical methodology which is a continuous, four-part process that: (1) defines the operating environment, (2) describes the operating environment's effects, (3) evaluates the enemy, and (4) determines enemy course of action (ECOA). (19.11.6.)

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE)

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves comprehensive lists of tasked forces, terrain and weather, and background data on the operating environment? (19.11.6.1.)

(1) define the operating environment

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves analyzing the data collected in Part 1 and describing how the factors affect operations, equipment, and personnel? (19.11.6.2.)

(2) describe the operating environment's effects

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part considers the capabilities and weaknesses of each specific adversary group without assuming that all enemy forces collaborate? (19.11.6.3.)

(3) evaluate the enemy

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) is a continuous, four-part process. Which part involves making logical predictions of Enemy Course of Action? (19.11.6.4.)

(4) determine Enemy Course of Action (ECOA)

This function provides installation commanders, integrated defense working groups, defense force commanders, and defense planners the ability to produce effects-based, integrated defense plans by using a standardized model to identify risks and develop risk management strategies. (19.12.)

Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP)

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) has four main components: (1) the risk assessment, (2) the risk tolerance decision, (3) course of action determination, and _______. (19.12.1.)

(4) decision and implementation

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process is accomplished in 7 steps: (1) Develop the Criticality Assessment, (2 and 3) Develop the Threat Assessment and Vulnerability Assessment, (4) Develop the Risk Assessment, (5) Risk Tolerance Decision, (6) Present Countermeasure Course of Action, and (7) Decision and Implementation. Which step identifies assets worthy of protection whose loss or damage would have a negative impact on the mission? (19.12.1.1.)

Step 1, Develop the Criticality Assessment

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process is accomplished in 7 steps: (1) Develop the Criticality Assessment, (2 and 3) Develop the Threat Assessment and Vulnerability Assessment, (4) Develop the Risk Assessment, (5) Risk Tolerance Decision, (6) Present Countermeasure Course of Action, and (7) Decision and Implementation. Identification and evaluation of existing threats and vulnerabilities is accomplished in which step? (19.12.1.2.)

-Step 2, Develop the Threat Assessment-Step 3, Develop the Vulnerability Assessment

Although the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process has four main components, they are accomplished in 7 steps. Step 4, Develop the Risk Assessment, states that a quantitative measurement of risk can be determined using the following equation: (19.12.1.3.)

risk = asset criticality multiplied by (threat multiplied by vulnerability)

The Integrated Defense Risk Management Process is accomplished in 7 steps: (1) Develop the Criticality Assessment, (2 and 3) Develop the Threat Assessment and Vulnerability Assessment, (4) Develop the Risk Assessment, (5) Risk Tolerance Decision, (6) Present Countermeasure Course of Action, and (7) Decision and Implementation. Which step presents and evaluates options for reducing risks? (19.12.1.5.)

Step 6, Present Countermeasure COAs

Although the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process has four main components, they are accomplished in 7 steps. Which step is most important? (19.12.1.6.)

Step 7, Decision and Implementation

The _______ provides a more precise understanding of how the three risk factors of threat, vulnerability and asset criticality relate to each other at each installation. (19.12.3.)

Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP)

There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 1 (PL1) is assigned to those resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.1.)

result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States

Protection Level 1 (PL1) is assigned to those resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would result in great harm to the strategic capability of the United States. Examples of PL1 resources are: (19.13.1.)

-nuclear weapons in storage, mated to a delivery system or in transit-designated command, control, and communications (C3) facilities-aircraft designated to transport the President of the United States

There are four Security Protection levels. Protection Level 2 (PL2) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.2.)

cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States

Protection Level 2 (PL2) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the United States. Examples of PL2 resources are: (19.13.2.)

-nonnuclear alert forces and designated space and launch systems-expensive, few in number, or one-of-a-kind systems or facilities-intelligence-gathering systems

Protection Level 3 (PL3) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.3.)

damage United States war-fighting capability

Protection Level 3 (PL3) is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage United States war-fighting capability. Examples of PL3 resources are: (19.13.3.)

selected C3 facilities, systems, and equipment

The lowest protection level is Protection Level 4 (PL4) which is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of PL1, PL2, or PL3 resources, but for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would: (19.13.4.)

adversely affect the operational capability of the Air Force

This program seeks to deter or limit the effects of terrorist acts against the Air Force by giving guidance on collecting and disseminating timely threat information, providing training, developing plans to deter terrorist incidents, and implementing antiterrorism measures. (19.14.)

Air Force Antiterr`orism Program

Commanders will conduct field and staff training to exercise antiterrorism (AT) plans including the current baseline through FPCON Charlie measures at least: (19.15.)

annually

At least annually, commanders will conduct field and staff training to exercise antiterrorism (AT) plans. Antiterrorism training and exercises shall be conducted with the same emphasis as combat training with the intent to: (19.15.)

identify shortfalls affecting the protection of personnel, assets, and information

The first step in developing an effective antiterrorism program is: (19.16.2.)

identifying the potential terrorism threat to DoD personnel and assets

At the strategic level, who is responsible for ensuring the timely collection processing, analysis, production, and dissemination of foreign intelligence, current intelligence, and national-level intelligence information concerning terrorist activities, terrorist organizations, and force protection issues? (19.16.3.)

the Deputy Chief of Staff for Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (HQ USAF/A2)

The _______ is the lead Air Force agency for the collection, investigation, analysis, and response to threats arising from terrorists, criminal activity, and foreign intelligence and security services. (19.16.3.)

Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI)

The AFOSI is the lead Air Force agency for collection, investigation, analysis, and response for threats arising from terrorists, criminal activity, and foreign intelligence and is primarily focused on: (19.16.3.)

countering adversary intelligence collection activities against U.S. forces

What program provides random, multiple security measures that consistently change the look of an installation's antiterrorism program to defeat surveillance attempts and make it difficult for a terrorist to accurately predict our actions? (19.17.)

DOD Random Antiterrorism Measures (RAM) Program

When traveling overseas, members should _______. (19.21.)

-travel in small groups-try to be inconspicuous when using public transportation-adopt the dress, conduct, and mannerisms of the people in the area

Criminal and terrorist acts against individuals usually occur outside the home. Your most predictable habit is: (19.23.)

the route you travel from home to your place of duty or to commonly frequented local facilities

Before traveling overseas, consult _______ to ensure you know and can meet all requirements for travel to a particular country. (19.24.)

the DoD Foreign Clearance Guide

Before traveling overseas, get an area of responsibility specific threat briefing from your security officer, ATO, or appropriate counterintelligence or security organization. This briefing must occur _______. (19.24.)

within 3 months of travel

________ is the category of intelligence derived from the intelligence collection discipline that uses human beings as both source and collectors and where the human being is the primary collection instrument. (19.25.)

Human Intelligence (HUMINT)

The gathering of information and activities conducted to protect against espionage, sabotage, or assassinations conducted by or on behalf of foreign governments, foreign organizations or foreign persons, or international terrorist activities is: (19.25.)

Counterintelligence (CI)

Definition: The act of obtaining, delivering, transmitting, communicating, or receiving information about national defense with intent or reason to believe the information may be used to the injury of the United States or to the advantage of any foreign nation. (19.25.1.1.)

espionage

Definition: Any action designed to undermine the military, economic, psychological, or political strength or morale of a regime. (19.25.1.2.)

subversion

Definition: An act or acts with intent to injure, interfere with, or obstruct the national defense of a country by willfully injuring or destroying, or attempting to injure or destroy, any national defense or war material, premises, or utilities, to include human and natural resources. (19.25.1.3.)

sabotage

Definition: The calculated use of unlawful violence or threat of unlawful violence to inculcate fear; intended to coerce or intimidate governments or societies in the pursuit of goals that are generally political, religious, or ideological. (19.25.1.4.)

terrorism

The Human Intelligence or HUMINT effort consists of three primary functions: (19.25.2.)

interrogation, source operations, and debriefing

The Human Intelligence or HUMINT effort consists of three primary functions: interrogation, source operations, and debriefing. Which of these is the systematic effort to procure information to answer specific collection requirements by direct and indirect questioning techniques of a person who is in the custody of the forces conducting the questioning? (19.25.2.1.)

interrogation

Source operations refers to the actions of trained military HUMINT collection personnel who may develop information through the elicitation of sources including: (19.25.2.2.)

-"walk-in" sources who, without solicitation, make the first contact with HUMINT personnel-developed sources that are met over a period of time and provide information based on operational requirements-unwitting persons with access to sensitive information

The Human Intelligence or HUMINT effort consists of three primary functions: interrogation, source operations, and debriefing. Which of these is the process of questioning cooperating human sources to satisfy intelligence requirements, consistent with applicable law? (19.25.2.3.)

debriefing

What operation is not a primary HUMINT function but may be conducted by any intelligence personnel with appropriate language support? (19.25.2.4.)

document and media exploitation

AFI 71-101, Volume 4, Counterintelligence, requires individuals who have reportable contacts or acquire reportable information to report the contact or information, either verbally or in writing, to AFOSI within _______. (19.25.3.)

30 days of the contact

AFI 71-101, Volume 4, Counterintelligence, requires individuals who have reportable contacts or acquire reportable information to report the contact or information within 30 days of the contact. "Contact" means: (19.25.3.)

-any exchange of information-solicited or unsolicited telephone calls-email, radio contact, and face-to-face meetings

The AFOSI conducts all counterintelligence investigations, operations, collections, and other related activities for the Air Force. In the United States, the AFOSI coordinates these activities with _______. (19.25.4.)

the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

The AFOSI conducts all counterintelligence investigations, operations, collections, and other related activities for the Air Force. Outside the United States, the AFOSI coordinates these activities with _______. (19.25.4.)

the Central Intelligence Agency and the FBI

What agency is the installation-level training agency for counterintelligence (CI) awareness briefings and is the sole Air Force repository for the collection and retention of reportable information? (19.25.4.)

the AFOSI

Air Force members and civilian employees must notify their commanders, supervisors, or the AFOSI of information concerning the safety of anyone under the protection of the United States Secret Service. This includes: (19.26.2.)

-the President and Vice President-the President- and Vice President-elect-any foreign head of state visiting the United States

A formal agreement between the DoD and U.S. Secret Service requires military members to report information to the Secret Service pertaining to the protection of the President. The _______ is the point of contact between the Air Force and the Secret Service. (19.26.3.)

AFOSI