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HLSC 222 - Pathophysiology Across the Lifespan > Chapter 36 - Alterations in Digestive Function > Flashcards

Chapter 36 - Alterations in Digestive Function Flashcards

1
Q

How does the digestive tract structure vary from mouth to anus?

A

it doesn’t, it is all the same

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2
Q

Name the 4 layers of the digestive tract from deep to superficial:

A
  1. mucosa (innermost)
  2. submucosa
  3. muscularis externa
  4. serosa (outer layer)
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3
Q

What does the mucus layer protect?

A

mucosa (epithelial layer)

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4
Q

How many mucus layers does the small intestine have?

A

1

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5
Q

How many mucus layers does the large intestine have?

A

2; an inner and outer

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6
Q

How do structural and neural GI tract disorders disrupt digestion?

A

obstruction, slowing, or accelerating contents

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7
Q

How do inflammatory and ulcerative GI tract disorders disrupt digestion?

A

disrupt secretion, motility, absorption

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8
Q

How do disorders of accessory organs disrupt digestion?

A

by altering metabolism

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9
Q

What are the accessory digestive organs?

A

liver, gallbladder, pancreas

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10
Q

What is the Greek word for vomiting?

A

Emesis

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11
Q

Vomiting Definition

A

forceful emptying of stomach or intestinal contents through the mouth

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12
Q

Where is the vomiting centre in the brain?

A

medulla oblongata

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13
Q

What is retching?

A

a muscular event of vomiting without vomitus expulsion

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14
Q

What is projectile vomiting?

A

spontaneous vomiting that does not follow nausea or retching

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15
Q

What causes projectile vomiting?

A

direct stimulation of the vomiting centre in the medulla oblongata

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16
Q

Abdominal Distention

A

swelling of the abdomen

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17
Q

Vomiting usually follows _____ or ______ of the stomach or duodenum.

A

pain or distension

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18
Q

When vomiting is initiated, it starts with a deep __________ and the closure of the ______.

A

inhalation; glottis

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19
Q

What creates pressure from stomach to throat before vomiting?

A

abdominal muscles

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20
Q

Which parts of the GI tract spasm and force chyme into the esophagus?

A

duodenum (sm. intestine) and antrum (stomach)

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21
Q

When vomiting is initiated which esophageal sphincter stays closed so the contents can’t enter the mouth?

A

upper esophageal sphincter

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22
Q

What returns contents to the stomach when vomiting is initiated?

A

relaxation of the abdominal muscles

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23
Q

The process of forcing intestinal contents up and down is repeated several times until the ____________ nervous system relaxes both esophageal sphincters.

A

parasympathetic

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24
Q

How is stomach chyme forced out of the mouth?

A

contraction of the abdominal muscles to force the diaphragm high into the thorax

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25
Q

What is constipation?

A

difficult or infrequent defecation

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26
Q

Why is constipation individually determined?

A

people have different pooping schedules ie. some are 1-3x daily and others may be once a week

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27
Q

Primary Constipation

A

impaired, infrequent, straining colonic movement

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28
Q

Secondary Constipation

A

due to altered neural pathways that delay colon transit time

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29
Q

Which drugs inhibit bowel movement?

A

opiates (mainly codeine)

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30
Q

A notable change in constipation can indicate:

A

colorectal cancer

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31
Q

Straining to poop may cause…

A

hemorrhoids

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32
Q

How are hemorrhoids/constipation diagnosed?

A

-sphincter tone assessment
-detection of anal lesions
-colonoscopy

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33
Q

3 Ways to Treat Constipation:

A
  1. over the counter laxatives (RestoraLAX)
  2. enema
  3. colectomy
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34
Q

Enemas are used to establish bowel _______, and should not be used habitually

A

routine

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35
Q

Colectomy

A

surgical removal of part of the colon

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36
Q

Diarrhea

A

loose watery stool

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37
Q

Acute diarrhea lasts ____ hours or less

A

24

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38
Q

How long does persistent diarrhea last?

A

14-28 days

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39
Q

How long does chronic diarrhea last?

A

longer than 4 weeks

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40
Q

Diarrhea poses high morbidity/mortality rates for children under ___

A

5

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41
Q

Osmotic diarrhea occurs when…

A

non-absorbable substances in the intestine draw excess water into the intestine

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42
Q

Secretory diarrhea occurs with…

A

excessive mucosal secretion of fluid and electrolytes

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43
Q

What are two causes of secretory diarrhea?

A

viruses and bacterial toxins

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44
Q

Rotavirus is a ____ virus that causes _______

A

RNA; enteritis

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45
Q

Enteritis

A

inflammation of the intestinal system

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46
Q

Motility diarrhea occurs when…

A

excessive motility decreases transit time and reabsorbtion

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47
Q

Motility diarrhea occurs with ________ bypass of intestinal area

A

surgical

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48
Q

How is diarrhea treated?

A

-fluid and electrolyte restoration
-anti-motility and water absorbent medication

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49
Q

Abdominal pain can be caused by ________, __________, or _________ factors

A

mechanical, inflammatory, or ischemic

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50
Q

With abdominal pain, what activates pain receptors?

A

stretching or distention of abdominal organs

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51
Q

Parietal pain arises from the parietal peritoneum which is the ________ membrane

A

outer

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52
Q

Parietal pain is ________ and intense

A

localized

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53
Q

Visceral pain arises from distention, inflammation, or ischemia of __________ _______

A

abdominal organs

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54
Q

Visceral pain is ______ _______ and ________

A

poorly localized and radiating

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55
Q

Bleeding in which 3 areas is considered ‘upper’ gastro-intestinal bleeding?

A

esophagus, stomach, duodenum

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56
Q

Upper GI bleeding is which colour and why?

A

Bright red due to effects of stomach acids

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57
Q

What causes upper GI bleeding?

A

-peptic ulcers
-tearing of esophageal gastric junction caused by severe retching

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58
Q

Bleeding in which 4 areas is considered ‘lower’ gastro-intestinal bleeding?

A

jejunum, ileum, colon, rectum

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59
Q

What are 3 causes of lower GI bleeding?

A

-polyps
-inflammatory disease
-hemorrhoids

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60
Q

Occult bleeding is not obvious and occurs due to slow ______ blood loss

A

chronic

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61
Q

Occult bleeding results in an ______ deficiency (anemia)

A

iron

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62
Q

GI bleeding presents as blood in ______, ______ ______ reduction, compensating _________, or ______ loss

A

stool; blood pressure; tachycardia; vision

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63
Q

Why does vision loss occur sometimes with GI bleeding?

A

the blood vessels in the eye are the smallest so they are the first to suffer

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64
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

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65
Q

Mechanical Obstruction of Esophagus

A

obstruction in esophageal wall due to tumour or herniations

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66
Q

Functional dysphagia occurs due to a ______/_______ disorder that interferes with swallowing

A

neural/muscular

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67
Q

Achalasia is a rare form of _________

A

dysphagia

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68
Q

Achalasia occurs when the ______ muscle neurons of the middle/lower esophagus are attacked by ____________

A

smooth; immune response

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69
Q

Achalasia results in altered ________, failure of the _____ to relax, cough and aspiration

A

peristalsis; LES (lower esophageal sphincter)

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70
Q

What does GERD stand for?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

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71
Q

Esophagitis may be caused by…

A

reflux of acid (pepsin) or bile salts into the esophagus

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72
Q

GERD is caused by a)_____ b) ________

A

a) LES abnormality (lower resting tone)
b) Delayed gastric emptying of chyme

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73
Q

The severity of damage on the esophagus due to GERD depends on the __________ and ________ of reflux

A

composition and duration

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74
Q

Prolonged acidic chyme exposure can lead to ______ injury

A

mucosal

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75
Q

Persistent GERD can lead to…

A

fibrosis thickening and precancerous lesions

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76
Q

How is GERD diagnosed? (2)

A

-esophageal endoscopy
-tissue biopsy

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77
Q

GERD is treated using laparoscopic fundoplication meaning…

A

surgical tightening of the junction between the esophagus and stomach to prevent acid reflux

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78
Q

What is a hiatal hernia?

A

protrusion of the superior aspect of the stomach through the diaphragm hiatal into the thorax

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79
Q

A sliding hiatal hernia occurs when the stomach moves into the thorax _______ the esophageal hiatus

A

through

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80
Q

A paraesophageal hiatal hernia occurs when the stomach moves _____ the thorax ________ the esophageal hiatus

A

into; alongside

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81
Q

What is an emergent risk of a hernia?

A

strangulation

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82
Q

How are hiatal hernias diagnosed?

A

radiology with barium swallow

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83
Q

How are hiatal hernias treated? (2)

A

-sleeping with head up
-laparoscopic fundoplication

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84
Q

What is an intestinal obstruction (IO)?

A

any condition that prevents the normal flow of chyme through the intestinal lumen

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85
Q

What is a paralytic ileus (PI)?

A

a functional obstruction resulting from the failure of intestinal motility due to dysfunctional neural activity post op

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86
Q

A large bowel obstruction (LBO) is ______ common but often related to _______

A

less; cancer

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87
Q

What are the signs an symptoms of a Large Bowel Obstruction?

A

abdominal distension and vomiting

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88
Q

Small bowel obstructions (SBO) are caused by ______________ that lead to distensions

A

post-operative adhesions

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89
Q

SBO results in 5 things. Which of these are true?

A) Constipation from decreased motility
B) Distension that impairs absorption
C) Sepsis due to leakage of pathogens
D) Blood in stool
E) Increased secretion leading to gas, fluid, and solute accumulation
F) Fluid movement into the lumen
G) The lumen becoming acidic

A

B, C, E, F, G

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90
Q

With a SBO, what is the result of systemic ECF moving into the lumen? (3)

A

dehydration, tachycardia, possible shock

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91
Q

Sepsis from a SBO leads to an ________ response that may result in remote organ failure.

A

immune

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92
Q

Gastritis

A

inflammatory disorder of the gastric mucosa

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93
Q

Acute Gastritis

A

erosion of the protective stomach mucosal barrier

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94
Q

What causes Acute Gastritis? (2)

A

Helicobacter pylori and NSAIDs

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95
Q

NSAIDs

A

a drug that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis

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96
Q

What do prostaglandins do?

A

stimulate goblet cells to secrete mucus

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97
Q

What does H. pylori do?

A

burrows into mucus layer and disrupts mucosal layer function while triggering an immune response

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98
Q

Gastritis symptoms:

A

-pain
-vomiting

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99
Q

How long does gastritis take to begin healing?

A

within a few days

100
Q

Who does chronic gastritis occur in?

A

older adults

101
Q

Chronic gastritis causes chronic ________ and mucosal _______

A

inflammation; atrophy

102
Q

Chronic Non-Immune Gastritis = _______ gastritis

A

antral

103
Q

Chronic Immune Gastritis = _____ gastritis

A

fundal (involves body and fundus)

104
Q

What causes antral gastritis?

A

H. pylori

105
Q

Antral gastritis involves high levels of ____ secretion that increases the risk for __________

A

HCl; duodenal ulcers

106
Q

Fundal gastritis is caused by…

A

loss of T cell tolerance

107
Q

What happens with Fundal gastritis?

A

loss of T cell tolerance causes gastric mucosa to be degenerated

108
Q

What causes peptic ulcers? (2)

A

H. pylori and NSAIDs

109
Q

Name the 3 types of peptic ulcers:

A
  1. duodenal
  2. gastric
  3. stress-related mucosal disease
110
Q

What are the most frequent type of peptic ulcer?

A

duodenal ulcers

111
Q

How are duodenal ulcers formed?

A

causative factors that cause acid and pepsin to penetrate the mucosal barrier

112
Q

How does the host respond to duodenal ulcers?

A

T and B cells, neutrophils combat H. pylori which release cytokines that damage the gastric epithelium

113
Q

Does H. pylori release a toxin?

A

yes, it causes apoptosis in epithelial cells

114
Q

How common are gastric ulcers to duodenal ulcers?

A

1/4 as common

115
Q

Where do gastric ulcers form?

A

gastric antrum (next to acid producing gastric body)

116
Q

What is the defect that causes gastric ulcers?

A

increased permeability of the mucosal barrier to H+

117
Q

What does HCl do?

A

convert pepsinogen to pepsin

118
Q

Mucosa damaged by H+ in gastric ulcer formation produces ________

A

histamine

119
Q

What does histamine stimulate?

A

HCl (and thus pepsin) production

120
Q

Stress-related mucosal disease is an _____ form of peptic ulcers

A

acute

121
Q

What 3 things are often accompanied by stress related mucosal disease?

A
  1. physiological stress
  2. illness
  3. major trauma
122
Q

Where do ulcers from SRMD form?

A

multiple sites in stomach or duodenum

123
Q

Ischemic Ulcers

A

develop within hours of events such as hemorrhage, heart failure, sepsis

124
Q

Curling Ulcers

A

develop due to burn injury

125
Q

Cushing Ulcers

A

develop due to brain trauma or surgery

126
Q

The loss of the body’s ability to discriminate harmful pathogens from commensal microorganisms can activate the ________ system which produces pro-inflammatory _________ which destroy the intestinal epithelium

A

immune; cytokines

127
Q

Commensal

A

one organism benefits and the other neither benefits or is harmed

128
Q

What are the 3 inflammatory bowel diseases?

A
  1. ulcerative colitis
  2. Chron’s disease
  3. Irritable bowel syndrome
129
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

a chronic inflammatory disease that causes ulcers in the colonic mucosa

130
Q

Where does ulcerative colitis begin? Where does it spread to?

A

begins in rectum and may extend to entire colon

131
Q

With ulcerative colitis, small erosions turn into ulcers by means of _______

A

necrosis

132
Q

With ulcerative colitis, which layer of the GI tract thickens to narrow the lumen, reducing transit time?

A

muscularis mucosa

133
Q

Symptoms of ulcerative colitis:

A

-bleeding
-urge to defecate
-watery diarrhea (10-20/day) with blood and mucus

134
Q

Are the symptoms of ulcerative colitis persistent?

A

no, there are periods of remission (bettering) and exacerbation (worsening)

135
Q

How are ulcerative colitis and Chron’s disease diagnosed?

A

endoscopy and biopsies

136
Q

How are ulcerative colitis and Chron’s disease treated?

A

-steroids
-medication
-surgery (severe cases)

137
Q

What causes Chron’s disease?

A

unknown, it is an idiopathic disease

138
Q

What part of the digestive tract does Chron’s disease affect?

A

anywhere from mouth to anus

139
Q

With Chron’s disease, where does the inflammation begin?

A

intestinal submucosa

140
Q

Chron’s disease either spreads _____________ or __________

A

discontinuous or transmural

141
Q

Discontinuous Spread

A

“skip lesions” or discontinuous/patchy inflammation

142
Q

Transmural Spread

A

across the entire wall of an organ (full length of bowel wall)

143
Q

Where is the most common site of Chron’s disease?

A

ascending and transverse colon

144
Q

Chron’s disease ulcers can produce _______ (fistulae) that extend the inflammation into the _________ tissue

A

fissures; lymphoid

145
Q

_________ increases risk for severe Chron’s disease and a poor response to treatment

A

smoking

146
Q

Fistulae

A

an abnormal opening or passage between two organs

147
Q

With CD, where do fistulae form? (4)

A
  1. peri-anal area
  2. bladder
  3. rectum
  4. vagina
148
Q

What is Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

A

abdominal pain with altered bowel habits (alternating constipation and diarrhea)

149
Q

What causes IBS?

A

unknown (idiopathic), no biomarkers for disease

150
Q

Evidence leans toward altered gut ________ causing IBS

A

microflora (normal gut bacteria)

151
Q

IBS is ___-___x more common in _____ with a higher prevalence in youth and middle age.

A

1.5-3x; women

152
Q

IBS Symptoms

A

-lower abdominal pain
-discomfort
-bloating

153
Q

IBS symptoms are usually relieved with __________

A

defecation

154
Q

Does IBS interfere with sleep?

A

no

155
Q

Is there a cure for IBS?

A

no

156
Q

IBS treatment is ____________

A

individualized

157
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

inflammation of the appendix

158
Q

What does the appendix supposedly do?

A

lymphoid tissue body that is a “safe house” for commensal bacteria that repopulate the intestinal system

159
Q

What is the most common surgical emergency of the abdomen?

A

appendicitis

160
Q

Appendicitis usually occurs at age ____-____ but can occur at any age or not at all.

A

10-19 years

161
Q

Symptoms of Appendicitis

A

-mild pain that increases to intense pain in a span of 3-4 hours
-nausea
-vomiting

162
Q

How is appendicitis treated?

A

laparoscopic appendectomy

163
Q

A hypothesis for the cause of appendicitis indicates that it becomes _________, which blocks drainage, increases pressure, and reduces blood flow causing it to become _________.

A

obstructed; hypoxic

164
Q

Hypoxic appendix tissue turns into an ______ that promotes _________ invasion triggering an immune and inflammatory response.

A

ulcer; bacterial

165
Q

Bacterial invasion of the appendix ulcer causes _________ to develop

A

gangrene

166
Q

What are the four main disorders of the liver? (Hint: h______ e______, j_________, c________, viral h________)

A
  1. hepatic encephalitis
  2. jaundice
  3. cirrhosis
  4. viral hepatitis
167
Q

Encephalopathy

A

brain disease that alters brain structure or function

168
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy?

A

a complex neurological syndrome that begins in the liver and is characterized by impaired behavioural, cognitive, motor function

169
Q

What do biochemical alterations alter in hepatic encephalitis?

A

neurotransmission and brain function

170
Q

Hepatic encephalitis results from a liver dysfunction where collateral vessels _______ blood around the liver into ________ circulation

A

shunt; systemic

171
Q

Shunting hepatic blood into the systemic circulation allows _________ absorbed by the GI tract (usually for removal) to travel to the _______.

A

toxins; brain

172
Q

What do toxins do to the brain? (3)

A

-alter energy metabolism
-interfere with neurotransmission
-cause edema

173
Q

How does ammonia contribute to hepatic encephalitis?

A

it causes astrocytes to swell which alter the BBB and promote cerebral edema

174
Q

What is another name for jaundice?

A

Icterus

175
Q

What is jaundice?

A

yellowing pigmentation of the skin

176
Q

What causes jaundice?

A

hyperbilirubinemia (↑ plasma bilirubin)

177
Q

Bilirubin is a component of ___________ breakdown

A

hemoglobin (Hb)

178
Q

Bilirubin is a waste product that is normally removed by the _______, thus jaundice indicates damage to this organ.

A

liver

179
Q

Jaundice is characterized as either __________ or __________

A

obstructive or hemolytic

180
Q

Obstructive Jaundice occurs when the ________________ becomes occluded by gall stones or a tumour

A

common bile duct

181
Q

Obstructive jaundice results in bilirubin entering the blood stream after it is accumulated in the liver because it can’t flow to the _________

A

duodenum

182
Q

Hemolytic jaundice occurs when large bilirubin amounts are produced from excessive ___________

A

hemolysis of RBCs

183
Q

Darkened ________ will be noticeable several days before the onset of jaundice

A

urine

184
Q

Jaundice development poses risk for ________ infections

A

bacterial

185
Q

Which part of the skin yellows first?

A

the sclera of the eye

186
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

the irreversible fibrotic scarring of the liver in response to inflammation and tissue damage

187
Q

What step is cirrhosis in the process of chronic liver diseases?

A

final step

188
Q

The physiological hallmark of cirrhosis is the development of…

A

scar tissue

189
Q

Cirrhosis obstructs _______ flow, producing ________, portal ____________, and cellular _________

A

blood; jaundice; hypertension; dysfunction

190
Q

What disrupts liver regeneration after cirrhosis has occurred that leads to liver failure?

A

hypoxia (lead to necrosis, atrophy, then liver failure)

191
Q

Cirrhosis is manifested by is _________ appearance and _______ texture upon palpation

A

cobbly; hard

192
Q

What are the 3 types of cirrhosis?

A
  1. alcoholic
  2. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
  3. biliary
193
Q

Alcoholic cirrhosis occurs due to the toxic effects of alcohol or _______ alterations

A

immune

194
Q

What is alcohol transformed into that activates hepatic stellate cells?

A

acetaldehyde

195
Q

Hyper activation of stellate cells forms _________ that leads to fibrosis and scarring

A

collagen

196
Q

Damage via alcoholic cirrhosis results in gut microbiota being _____________

A

translocated (movement)

197
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is characterized by an infiltration of hepatocytes with __________

A

triglycerides

198
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with ________

A

obesity (high blood triglyceride and cholesterol levels)

199
Q

Damage due to biliary cirrhosis begins in the ___________ rather than hepatocytes

A

bile ducts

200
Q

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis is caused by…

A

chronic autoimmune liver disease (T cell and anti-mitochondrial antibodies)

201
Q

Damage to the bile ducts by fibrosis from primary biliary cirrhosis leads to a bile duct ___________

A

obstruction

202
Q

What causes secondary biliary cirrhosis?

A

obstruction of common bile duct via gallstones or tumours

203
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

a common systemic disease that primarily affects the liver

204
Q

How many types of hepatitis are there?

A

5 - A, B, C, D, E

205
Q

What can all types of hepatitis cause?

A

jaundice

206
Q

Hepatitis pathogens cause hepatic cell _________ and scarring

A

necrosis

207
Q

What promotes further injury with hepatitis?

A

the immune response

208
Q

What types of hepatitis are the most severe in terms of damage?

A

B (B has vaccine) and C (C has no vaccine)

209
Q

Why does a co-infection of Hepatitis and HIV occur?

A

the virus’ share the same transmission route

210
Q

How is hepatitis spread?

A

body fluids

211
Q

Co-infection of HIV and Hep causes a rapid ___________

A

progression of the disease

212
Q

How is hepatitis diagnosed?

A

presence of viral antibodies

213
Q

How is hepatitis treated?

A

viral replication suppression drugs

214
Q

___________ and ___________ are common gallbladder disorders

A

obstruction and inflammation

215
Q

What are gallstones?

A

aggregates of bile that block the flow of bile in/out and lead to gallbladder inflammation

216
Q

What is Cholelithasis?

A

gallstone formation

217
Q

What is Cholecystitis?

A

gallbladder inflammation

218
Q

What causes a pancreatic obstruction?

A

backup of pancreatic secretions

219
Q

Pancreatic obstruction causes the release and activation of pancreatic ________ within ______ cells

A

enzymes; acinar

220
Q

What is the result of enzyme release in the pancreas?

A

auto-digestion of cells and tissues that cause inflammation

221
Q

Autodigestion causes ______ damage, n________, and _________ formation

A

vascular; necrosis; pseudocyst

222
Q

Pseudocyst

A

walled off collections of pancreatic secretions

223
Q

______ is the main cause of further pancreatic obstruction

A

alcohol

224
Q

When acinar cells metabolize ethanol it creates…

A

toxic metabolites that release acinar digestive enzymes

225
Q

Chronic alcohol effects destroy acinar cells and destroy tissue that is replaced with ________

A

fibrosis (scarring)

226
Q

Scarring in the pancreas leads to pancreatic ______

A

cysts

227
Q

How is pancreatic obstruction via alcohol treated?

A

alcohol cessation

228
Q

Cancer of the esophagus can be ________ or _______________

A

carcinoma or adenocarcinoma

229
Q

Where are adenocarcinomas initiated?

A

epithelial glandular cells

230
Q

Where are carcinomas initiated?

A

epithelial squamous cells

231
Q

Esophageal cancer causes _______ and _____ pain

A

dysphagia and chest pain

232
Q

__________ combined with smoking or _______ tobacco increase risk for esophageal cancer

A

Alcohol; chewing

233
Q

Gastric (stomach) cancer is associated with _________ and _____ or preserved foods

A

H. pylori; salty

234
Q

How does salt contribute to gastric cancer?

A

enhances conversion of nitrates into carcinogenic nitrosamines

235
Q

Pre-existing _____ are highly associated with colon ______________

A

polyps; adenocarcinomas

236
Q

Colon and rectal cancer manifest as: (3)

A

-pain
-bloody stool
-change in bowel habits

237
Q

Where can rectal carcinomas close to the anus spread to?

A

vagina or prostate

238
Q

Cancer of the ______ accounts for the leading cause of worldwide cancer deaths

A

liver

239
Q

Primary liver cancers are associated with chronic liver diseased caused by ______ or hep __

A

cirrhosis or hep B

240
Q

Where do hepatocellular carcinomas arise from?

A

hepatocytes

241
Q

Where do cholangiocellular carcinomas originate?

A

bile ducts

242
Q

Cholangiocellular carcinomas are _____

A

rare

243
Q

What ages are gallbladder cancers most common?

A

age 50-60

244
Q

Is carcinoma or adenocarcinoma more common in the gallbladder?

A

adenocarcinoma

245
Q

Where do gallbladder cancers metastasize to?

A

lymph vessels

246
Q

Pancreatic cancer is the ______ leading cause of cancer death in Canada

A

fourth

247
Q

___________ occurs in the ______ (gland type) part of the pancreas

A

adenocarcinomas; exocrine

HLSC 222 - Pathophysiology Across the Lifespan (17 decks)

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