Chapter 16 - Disorders of the CNS, PNS, and NMJ Flashcards

1
Q

Traumatic injury, vascular disorder, tumour growth factors, infections, and inflammatory processes are involves with alterations in _____ function.

A

CNS

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2
Q

Nerve route, nerve plexus, nerves themselves, or neuromuscular junction alterations are involved with ____ function.

A

PNS

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3
Q

____________ is the primary cause of death and disability in those under 40 in Canada

A

traumatic brain injury (TBI)

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4
Q

30% of TBIs in youth are _____ and ______ activity associated.

A

sport and recreational activity

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5
Q

What is a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

alteration in brain function or other evidence of a brain disease caused by an EXTERNAL FORCE

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6
Q

Primary TBI is caused by _______ impact

A

direct

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7
Q

Primary TBI can be ______ or _______

A

focal or diffuse

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8
Q

Focal TBI

A

affects only one area of the brain

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9
Q

Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI TBI)

A

involves more than one area of the brain

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10
Q

____ of injuries are focal and _____ are diffuse

A

2/3; 1/3

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11
Q

Secondary TBIs are caused by an _______ result of primary injury

A

indirect

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12
Q

Systemic responses along with cellular and molecular cerebral events are included in _____ TBIs

A

secondary

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13
Q

How are TBIs diagnosed?

A

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

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14
Q

The lower the GCS score, the __________ the damage

A

more severe

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15
Q

Severe head injury GCS = ___ or less

A

8

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16
Q

Moderate head injury GCS = ___ to ___

A

9 to 12

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17
Q

Mild head injury GCS = ___ to ___

A

13 to 15

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18
Q

The Glasgow coma scale ranks levels of _____, verbal, and ______ responses

A

eye, verbal, motor

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19
Q

The characteristics no eye opening, verbal response, or motor response are score level __

A

1

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20
Q

The characteristics eye opening to pain, incomprehensible sounds, and extension to pain are consistent with score level __

A

2

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21
Q

The characteristics eye opening to verbal command, inappropriate words, and flexion to pain are consistent with score level ____

A

3

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22
Q

A primary focal TBI can be ______ or _____ injury

A

closed or open

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23
Q

Closed Injury

A

head striking a hard surface, moving object strikes head, blast waves

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24
Q

Is a closed or open head injury more common?

A

closed

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25
Q

With a closed injury, the ____ ____ remains intact and brain tissue _____ exposed

A

dura mater; is not

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26
Q

Open Injury

A

penetrating trauma or skull fracture

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27
Q

With a closed injury there is a _____ in the dura mater and brain tissue is _______

A

break; exposed

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28
Q

What are the 5 primary focal closed injuries?

A

-coup/countercoup
-contusion
-epidural (extradural) hematoma
-subdural hematoma
-intracerebral hematoma

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29
Q

Primary Focal Close injury means…

A

specific, observable injury in a precise location

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30
Q

____% of Primary Focal Closed injuries are mild

A

80%

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31
Q

What are the severe primary focal closed injuries?

A

contusions, epidural, subdural, and hematomas

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32
Q

Coup

A

injury at the site of impact

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33
Q

Countercoup

A

injury from the brain bounding back and hitting the opposite side of the skull

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34
Q

What is a contusion?

A

brain bruising due to the compression of the skull at point of impact

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35
Q

Contusions result from ______ leaking from an injured vessel

A

blood

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36
Q

The smaller the contact area, the more _______ the injury

A

severe

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37
Q

What happens as a result of a contusion?

A

-edema
-increased ICP
-hemorrhage
-infarction
-necrosis
=pulpy tissue

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38
Q

Where is the most common injury site for a contusion?

A

frontal lobe

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39
Q

The greatest effects of a contusion peak ___-____ hours after injury

A

18-36

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40
Q

How are contusions diagnosed?

A

GCS, CT scan, MRI

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41
Q

How is a contusion treated?

A

if needed - surgical removal of are of contusion/hemorrhage

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42
Q

slide 13

A
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43
Q

An epidural hematoma (EH), occurs with bleeding between the ______ and the _____

A

dura mater and skull

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44
Q

Where is the most common site of an epidural hematoma?

A

temporal fossa

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45
Q

With an epidural hematoma the person usually ________________

A

loses consciousness

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46
Q

What symptoms occur as the EH grows?

A

-severe headache
-confusion
-seizure

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47
Q

__________ and ______ _________ are signs of an EH

A

hemiparesis and pupil dilation

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48
Q

Hemiparesis

A

weakness or inability to move ONE side of the body

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49
Q

Injury prognosis is good if treated before…

A

both pupils dilate

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50
Q

An epidural hematoma is a _________ ________

A

medical emergency

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51
Q

Subdural hematoma is bleeding between the ____ _____ and the _____

A

dura mater and brain

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52
Q

An ______ subdural hematoma develops within hours

A

acute

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53
Q

As a subdural hematoma grows, _____ rises applying pressure to the bleeding veins, assisting in short-term limitation

A

ICP

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54
Q

What are the symptoms of an acute subdural hematoma?

A

-headache
-confusion
-loss of consciousness
-pupil dilation
-hemianopia
-anopia

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55
Q

Hemianopia

A

blindness over half the vision field

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56
Q

Anopia

A

blindness

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57
Q

A _______ subdural hematoma develops over weeks to months

A

chronic

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58
Q

Chronic subdural hematomas are common with…

A

alcohol abuse

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59
Q

With chronic subdural hematomas, there is ____ bleeding that fills the subdural space with blood

A

mass

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60
Q

What forms around a chronic subdural hematoma?

A

vascular membrane

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61
Q

What are the symptoms of a chronic subdural hematoma?

A

-headache
-tenderness over hematoma
-worsening dementia and paratonia

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62
Q

Paratonia

A

rigidity

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63
Q

What is the treatment for a chronic subdural hematoma?

A

craniotomy to remove the jelly-like blood

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64
Q

An intercerebral hematoma is bleeding where?

A

within the brain

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65
Q

Intercerebral hematomas make up __-__% of head injuries.

A

2-3%

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66
Q

Where do intercerebral hematomas mainly occur?

A

frontal and temporal lobes

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67
Q

An intercerebral hematoma results from penetrating and shearing forces that injure ______ blood vessels and form a growing mass

A

small

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68
Q

What are the symptoms of an intercerebral hematoma?

A

-sudden, rapid decrease in consciousness
-pupil dilation
-positive Babinski reflex

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69
Q

Babinski Reflex (+)

A

tool dragged across foot, big toe bends up towards top of foot and other toes fan out

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70
Q

Babinski Reflex (-)

A

tool dragged across foot, toes scrunch together

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71
Q

Name a primary focal open injury:

A

compound skull fracture/missile injuries

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72
Q

A compound skull fracture opens a ____ between cranial contents and the __________

A

path; environment

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73
Q

Compound skull fractures should be considered when…

A

scalp, tympanic membrane, sinus, eye, or mucous membranes are cut

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74
Q

Compound skull fractures can be ______ or ______ injuries

A

crush or stretch

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75
Q

Crush Injury

A

cutting or crushing (whatever the missile touches)

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76
Q

Stretch Injury

A

blood vessels and nerve damage without direct contact

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77
Q

What are the symptoms of a compound skull fracture?

A

loss of consciousness

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78
Q

Basilar skull fractures (type of CSF) are usually caused by _____ ______ trauma

A

blunt force

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79
Q

A basilar skull fracture involves at least on of the bones at the _____________

A

base of the skull

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80
Q

What results from a basilar skull fracture?

A

spinal fluid leaking from ear or nose, blackened eyes

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81
Q

Primary diffuse injuries result from…

A

-high levels of acceleration/deceleration (whiplash)
-rotational forces

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82
Q

What results from a DAI (diffuse axonal injury)?

A

shearing of axonal fibres and white matter tracts

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83
Q

The degree of shearing with a DAI determines congitive ________ and ________ of _______ __________

A

type and extent of cognitive impairment

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84
Q

How are primary diffuse injuries diagnosed?

A

electron microscope to detect axonal damage

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85
Q

A secondary injury is an indirect result of a ________ brain injury (incl. trauma and stroke syndromes)

A

primary

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86
Q

_________ and _______ processes are involved with secondary brain injuries

A

systemic and cerebral

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87
Q

Systemic Processes

A

hypotension, hypoxia, etc.

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88
Q

Cerebral Processes

A

inflammation, edema, increased ICP

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89
Q

The primary effects of secondary injuries disrupt the _____ and lead to neuronal death

A

BBB

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90
Q

How are secondary brain injuries managed?

A

-prevention of hypoxia
-maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure
-removal of hematomas
-nutritional management

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91
Q

Mild TBIs are characterized by immediate but _______ clinical manifestations

A

transitory (short term)

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92
Q

With a mild TBI, loss of consciousness occurs in less than ____ mins

A

30

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93
Q

What are the symptoms of a mild TBI?

A

-headache
-nausea
-vomiting

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94
Q

How is a mild TBI diagnosed?

A

blood test to determine need for CT scan

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95
Q

A moderate TBI is characterized by a loss of consciousness more than ___ min but up to __ hours

A

30; 6

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96
Q

Moderate TBIs result in _________ defects in arousal and attention

A

permanent

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97
Q

What are the symptoms of a moderate TBI?

A

-confusion and amnesia lasting more than 24 hours
-abnormal brain imaging

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98
Q

A severe TBI is characterized by a loss of consciousness for more than ___ hours

A

6

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99
Q

A severe TBI leads to permanent damage in a _________ state or death

A

vegetative

100
Q

What are the signs of a severe TBI?

A

-pupillary reaction changes
-change to cardiac and respiratory systems
-decorticate and decerebrate posturing
-abnormal brain imaging
-increased ICP 4-6 days post injury

101
Q

Decerebrate Posturing

A

laying flat, arms straight down, stiff

102
Q

Decorticate Posturing

A

laying flat, arms tucked in, stiff

103
Q

What are the symptoms of a severe TBI?

A

-compromised coordinated movements, along with verbal and written communication

104
Q

What is the treatment goal with a severe TBI?

A

maintain cerebral perfusion and promote neural protection

105
Q

What are the 3 complication post-traumatic syndromes of a TBI?

A
  1. post-concussion syndrome
  2. post-traumatic seizures
  3. chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)
106
Q

The severity and _______ of the TBI determine probable complications

A

location

107
Q

Post-concussion syndrome can last ______ to ______ after a concussion

A

weeks to months

108
Q

With concussions, a ___ hour observation period is important to determine possible damage.

A

24

109
Q

What are the symptoms requiring further evaluation post-concussion?

A

-drowsiness
-confusion
-vomiting
-unequal pupils
-CSF drainage from ears or nose
-double vision

110
Q

Post-traumatic seizures occur with ____ to ____ % of TBIs

A

10-20%

111
Q

Post-traumatic seizures are at highest risk with…

A

open brain injuries

112
Q

Molecular changes account for the sprouting of new _____________ neural activity that increase seizures in post-traumatic seizure disorder

A

hyperexcitable

113
Q

What is chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)?

A

a progressive dementing disease that develops with repeated brain injury (ie. football players, blast injuries)

114
Q

CTE causes ____ neurofibrillary tangles occur in the brain

A

tau

115
Q

What are the consequences of CTE?

A

-violent behaviour
-change in cognitive and motor function
-suicide

116
Q

Males age 20-39 and ___ years or older are more at risk for spinal cord and vertebral injuries

A

79

117
Q

Primary spinal cord injuries result from the initial mechanical trauma and cause ________ tissue damage

A

immediate

118
Q

Why is adequate immobilization necessary with spinal injuries?

A

if not, further injury can occur following trauma

119
Q

An injury to the ______ area is life threatening due to…

A

C1-4; loss of cardiovascular and respiratory function

120
Q

Secondary spinal cord injuries occur due to ____________ processes

A

disease-causing (vascular, cellular, biochemical)

121
Q

Secondary spinal cord injuries occur within ____ and last for ______

A

minutes; weeks

122
Q

Secondary spinal cord injuries may lead to edema that impairs circulation and causes _________

A

ischemia

123
Q

Secondary spinal injury edema occurs where?

A

2 segments - one above and one below the injury

124
Q

Swelling of the spinal cord increases dysfunction and makes it difficult to…

A

distinguish permanent and temporary damage

125
Q

Death of oligodendrocytes means….

A

myelin degeneration

126
Q

Spinal Hyperextension

A

disruption of intervertebral discs (ie. head sent backwards)

127
Q

Spinal Flexion

A

vertebral wedge fracture (ie. head sent forwards)

128
Q

Spinal Rotation

A

shearing force and rupture of ligament support

129
Q

What makes vertebrae fracture easily?

A

torn supporting ligaments that misalign and dislocate the spinal fragments

130
Q

Where do vertebral injuries occur?

A

at the most moveable portions of the column

131
Q

Spinal shock develops _______ after the injury

A

immediately

132
Q

Spinal shock results in loss of function ____ or ____ the injury

A

at or below

133
Q

With spinal shock, the __________ cannot regulate body heat so the person assumes the temperature of the air

A

hypothalamus

134
Q

Poikilothermic

A

inability to regulate core body temp

135
Q

How long does spinal shock last?

A

7-20 days

136
Q

What signals the end of spinal shock?

A

reflex emptying of the bladder

137
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs with injuries about the ___ vertebrae

A

T6

138
Q

Neurogenic shock is characterized by __________ parasympathetic activity due to the absence of sympathetic activity

A

unopposed

139
Q

Neurogenic shock results in: (2)

A

-vasodilation
-hypotension

140
Q

What are the 3 categories of primary headache syndrome?

A

-migraine
-cluster
-tension type

141
Q

What is a migraine?

A

an episodic, neurological headache lasting 4-72 hours

142
Q

Migraines occur due to ________ and ___________ components

A

genetic and environmental

143
Q

Migraines can be with or without _____ or chronic

A

aura

144
Q

In Canada __% of women, ___% of men, ___% of children suffer from migraines

A

25; 8; 10

145
Q

Aura

A

spreading neural hyperactivity in the occipital brain region

146
Q

Premonitory Migraine Phase

A

symptoms occur hours to days before aura (ie. tired, irritable)

147
Q

____ of people have migraine aura symptoms that last up to 1 hour

A

1/3

148
Q

Headache phase of migraine

A

begins on one side of the head and spreads to the entire head

149
Q

What two things characterize the migraine recovery phase?

A

fatigue and irritability

150
Q

Cluster headaches involve the _________ nerve

A

trigeminal

151
Q

Some people have __ headache attacks per day that alternates sides each episode

A

8

152
Q

Headache cluster days are often followed by long periods of _________

A

remission

153
Q

Cluster headaches primarily affect men age 20-___

A

50

154
Q

Cluster headache pain is related to __________ inflammation

A

neurogenic

155
Q

Cluster headaches involve under activity of the ____________ NS and activation of the ___________ NS

A

sympathetic; parasympathetic

156
Q

How are cluster headaches treated?

A

-oxygen inhalation
-sumatriptan

157
Q

What is the most common type of recurring headache?

A

tension-type headaches

158
Q

The age of onset for tension-type headaches is ___-___ years.

A

10-20

159
Q

The sensation of a TTH is _______ onset that moves into a tight band around the head

A

gradual

160
Q

Episodic TTH can develop into chronic TTH which are headaches that can occur ___ days/month

A

15

161
Q

What causes TTH?

A

hypersensitivity of pain fibers from the trigeminal nerve

162
Q

Mild TTH are treated with…

A

ice

163
Q

Severe TTH are treated with…

A

aspirin

164
Q

Meningitis is an infection of the meninges and _______ space

A

subarachnoid

165
Q

Encephalitis is inflammation in the _______

A

brain

166
Q

Pathogens infect the CNS via direct ______ or _____ infection

A

neural or glial

167
Q

Pathogens usually secrete ______

A

toxins

168
Q

Inflammation leads to ______ which interrupts _____ pathways

A

edema; CSF

169
Q

________ and ______ are most susceptible to bacterial meningitis

A

infants and children

170
Q

What are the most common pathogens that cause bacterial meningitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and E. coli

171
Q

Pathogens cross the ____ and enter CSF where they multiply and release toxins

A

BBB

172
Q

How does ICP result from bacterial meningitis?

A

blockage of CSF circulation

173
Q

What are the progressive symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A

spinal rigidity, seizures, + Babinki reflex

174
Q

Viral meningitis can be direct or ________ to disease

A

secondary

175
Q

Which diseases can viral meningitis follow?

A

measles, mumps, herpes

176
Q

Viral encephalitis is a result of a _______ viral invasion

A

direct

177
Q

Post-infection encephalitis occurs due to an…

A

autoimmune response

178
Q

Demyelinating disorders (MS and Guillain-Barre) are a result of damage to the ____ _____

A

myelin sheath

179
Q

Demyelinating disorders affect neural __________

A

transmission

180
Q

Multiple Sclerosis (MS) is a ______ disorder

A

CNS

181
Q

Guillain-Barre is a _____ disorders

A

PNS

182
Q

MS is _______ mediated

A

immune

183
Q

What happens with MS?

A

CNS demyelination, scarring, loss of axons

184
Q

_________ has one of the highest MS rates

A

Canada

185
Q

MS is more common in _______ and has an onset of age ___ to ____

A

women; 20-40

186
Q

MS can result from genetics or which virus?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV - herpes 4)

187
Q

How does MS progress in the CNS?

A

diffusely

188
Q

Which 2 immune cells cross the BBB and attack myelin with MS?

A

T and B cells

189
Q

T and B cells crossing the BBB activates which cells?

A

microglia cells (CNS immune cells)

190
Q

MS results in the death of neurons and _______ tissue atrophy

A

white

191
Q

With MS, when does gray matter degeneration occur?

A

later stages

192
Q

What is the initial MS symptom?

A

paresthesia (burning/prickling sensation)

193
Q

MS involves exacerbation stages (which are?) followed by remission

A

relapses

194
Q

With MS, the more relapses, the ______ the disease progresses

A

more

195
Q

Is there a test to diagnose MS?

A

no

196
Q

How is MS treated (not cured!)

A

-corticosteroids and immunosuppressants
-plasma exchange (if not steroid response)

197
Q

Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants increase risk for ________

A

infection

198
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome occurs secondary to a __________ or ______ infection

A

respiratory or GI

199
Q

How long does it take to recover from Guillain-Barre?

A

weeks to years

200
Q

___% of those who recover from Guillain-Barre have residual weakness

A

30%

201
Q

What are the symptoms of Guillain-Barre?

A

-tingling
-weakness
-leg paralysis
-quadriplegia

202
Q

How is Guillain-Barre treated?

A

-intravenous immunoglobulin during acute phase

203
Q

What is the most common NMJ disorder?

A

myasthenia gravis

204
Q

Myasthenia gravis is a chronic ___________ disease

A

autoimmune

205
Q

With myasthenia gravis, antibodies are produced against ____ receptors on the postsynaptic membrane

A

ACh

206
Q

Thymoma is a tumour of the _______ and associated with which disease?

A

thymus; myasthenia gravis

207
Q

Ig_ antibodies block ACh receptors

A

G

208
Q

How does a Thymoma contribute to myasthenia gravis?

A

the tumour produces T cell dependent IgG autoantibodies that block the binding site of ACh receptors fro ACh

209
Q

Autoantibodies ______ receptor site

A

destroy

210
Q

Which muscles are affected first with myasthenia gravis?

A

head muscles

211
Q

Myasthenia gravis leads to _________ and impaired ________ due to weakened diaphragm and chest wall muscles

A

dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and impaired respiration

212
Q

_________ is a risk of dysphagia

A

aspiration

213
Q

How is myasthenia gravis diagnosed?

A

detection of anti-AChR antibodies

214
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated?

A

-immunosuppressants
-thymectomy for thymoma

215
Q

Brain tumours can be _______ or metastatic (secondary)

A

primary

216
Q

Primary tumours arise from brain ________

A

substance

217
Q

Why do primary tumours not metastasize readily?

A

there is no lymph channels in brain substance

218
Q

Where do metastatic brain tumours originate?

A

in organ systems outside the brain, they spread to the brain

219
Q

How do metastatic brain tumour affect the local brain area?

A

compress and cause decreased blood flow and increased ICP

220
Q

What are the symptoms of metastatic brain tumours?

A

-seizures
-visual disturbances

221
Q

Metastatic brain tumours are ____ times more common than primary tumours

A

10

222
Q

___-___% of people who have cancer have metastasis to the brain

A

20-40%

223
Q

Primary intracerebral tumours are called _____

A

gliomas

224
Q

Gliomas make up ___-___% of adult brain tumours

A

50-60%

225
Q

__________ radiation is the only known risk for gliomas because they detach electrons from atoms as they pass through matter

A

ionizing

226
Q

How are primary brain tumours graded? Which is the most lethal?

A

I-IV; IV

227
Q

Gliomas can be astrocytoma, __________, meningioma, or __________

A

oligodendroglioma; ependymoma

228
Q

What is the most common glioma?

A

astrocytoma

229
Q

The survival time of a grade III or IV astrocytoma is less than ___ years

A

5

230
Q

Oligodendrogliomas are _____ growing (grade II) and reside primarily in ______ matter

A

slow; white

231
Q

What is the first symptoms of an oligodendroglioma?

A

seizure

232
Q

Where do meningiomas begin?

A

dura mater

233
Q

_____________ are often localized to the wings of the sphenoid bone

A

meningiomas

234
Q

Ependymomas are more common in ___________

A

children

235
Q

Ependymomas arise from _________ cells

A

ependymal

236
Q

____% of empendymomas begin in the ______ ventricle

A

70%; fourth

237
Q

Lower back pain affects between the lower rib cage and _______ muscles, and radiates down the _____

A

gluteal; legs

238
Q

Acute lower back pain is associated with a ________ or ligament strain

A

muscle

239
Q

Degenerative disc disease (DDD), spondylolysis, and spondylolisthesis are types of ________ lower back pain

A

chronic

240
Q

Degenerative disc disease (DDD) is genetic or a process of normal _______

A

aging

241
Q

Spondylolysis occurs in the _____ ________ (space between the superior and inferior articular processes)

A

pars interarticularis

242
Q

Spondylolysis occurs to to degenration or _______ of the joint

A

fracture

243
Q

Spondylolisthesis is the _______ slipping of a vertebra

A

forward

244
Q

Spinal stenosis is the __________ of the spinal cord that puts pressure on the nerves or cord

A

narrowing

245
Q

Which discs are most susceptible to disc herniations?

A

L4-L5, L5-S1

246
Q

What is a herniated intervertebral disc?

A

displacement of the nucleus pulposus beyond the disc space

247
Q

Disc herniations compress spinal nerves and can lead to intense ________ or radiating pain

A

local