CHAPTER 31: MOLECULAR DIAGNOSTICS IN HEMATOPATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

(1) If the DNA nucleotide sequence is 5’-ATTAGC-3’, then the mRNA sequence transcribed from this template is:

a. 5’ -GCUAAU-3’
b. 5’ -AUUAGC-3’
c. 5’ -TAATCG-3’
d. 5’ -UAAUCG-3’

A

d. 5’ -UAAUCG-3’

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2
Q

(2) Cells with damaged DNA and mutated or nonfunctioning cell cycle regulatory proteins:

a. Are arrested in G1 and the DNA is repaired
b. Continue to divide, which leads to tumor progression
c. Divide normally, producing identical daughter cells
d. Go through apoptosis

A

b. Continue to divide, which leads to tumor progression

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3
Q

(3) To start DNA replication, DNA polymerase requires an available 3’ hydroxyl group found on the:

a. Leading strand
b. mRNA
c. Parent strand
d. Primer

A

d. Primer

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4
Q

(4) Ligase joins Okazaki fragments of the:

a. 5’-to-3’ template strand
b. Lagging strand
c. Leading strand
d. Primer fragments

A

b. Lagging strand

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5
Q

(5) A 40-year-old patient enters the hospital with a rare form of cancer caused by faulty cell division regulation. This cancer localized in the patient’s spleen. An ambitious laboratory developed a molecular test to verify the type of cancer present. This molecular test would require patient samples taken from which two tissues?

a. Abnormal growths found on the skin and in the bone marrow
b. Normal splenic tissue and cancerous tissue
c. Cancerous tissue in spleen and bone marrow
d. Peripheral blood and cancerous tissue in the spleen

A

b. Normal splenic tissue and cancerous tissue

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6
Q

(6) One main difference between PCR and reverse transcriptase PCR is that:

a. PCR requires primers
b. PCR uses reverse transcriptase to elongate the primers
c. Reverse transcriptase PCR forms millions of cDNA fragments
d. Reverse transcriptase PCR requires ligase to amplify the target DNA

A

c. Reverse transcriptase PCR forms millions of cDNA fragments

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7
Q

(7) Which one of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is false?

a. The gel is oriented in the chamber with the wells at the positive terminal.
b. A buffer solution is required to maintain the electrical current.
c. The matrix of a polyacrylamide gel is tighter than that of an agarose gel.
d. The larger DNA fragments will be closest to the wells of the gel.

A

a. The gel is oriented in the chamber with the wells at the positive terminal.

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8
Q

(8) Autoradiography of DNA is the:

a. Detection of radioactive or chemoluminescent oligonucleotides
b. Exposure of the gel to UV light
c. Transfer of DNA to a nitrocellulose filter
d. Use of ethidium bromide to visualize the DNA banding pattern

A

a. Detection of radioactive or chemoluminescent oligonucleotides

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9
Q

(9) One major difference between endpoint PCR and real-time PCR is that:

a. Endpoint PCR requires thermostable DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotides, and primers
b. Endpoint PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction
c. Real-time PCR uses capillary gel electrophoresis to detect amplicons during PCR cycling
d. Real-time PCR detects and quantifies amplicons using cleavage-based signal amplification

A

b. Endpoint PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction

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10
Q

(10) Which of the following statements about minimal residual disease is true?

a. Clinical remission of hematologic cancers is determined by molecular techniques such as PCR and flow cytometry.
b. Real-time quantitative PCR–determined copy number of BCR/ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission.
c. Qualitative PCR that uses a known copy number of a target sequence is of use in determining minimal residual disease levels.
d. Minimal residual disease assessment can aid physicians in making treatment decisions but does not yet offer insights into prognosis.

A

b. Real-time quantitative PCR–determined copy number of BCR/ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission.

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