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DAT Biology > Chapter 3 Systems > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

How do platyhelminths and annelids respire?

A

exchange of gas with the environment, easily diffuse
platyhelminths (flatworms)
annelids (segmented worms)

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2
Q

How do fish respire?

A

evanginated (outgrowths)
larger surface area
(can be internal or external)

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3
Q

What is the gill cover called?

A

operculum

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4
Q

How do insects respire?

A

Tracheae - tubular system lined with chitin

- openings in trachea …

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5
Q

What are the openings in trachea for insects called?

A

spiracles

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6
Q

Where are chemoreceptors found and what do they do involving respiration?

A
  • medulla oblongata, aorta, carotid arteries
  • detect partial pressure of O2 (if low = respirate more)
  • detect pH (if acidic = respirate more = increase CO2 dissociated into H+ ions and bicarbonate)
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7
Q

What circulatory systems do insects and molluscs have?

A

open circulatory system

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8
Q

What does the open circulatory system consist of?

A

hemolymph (blood, interstitual fluid, lymph)

  • flows through internal cavity = hemocoel
  • returns to heart via holes = ostia
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9
Q

What type of cells is the cardiac cycle regulated by?

A

auto-rhythmic cells: function independently without external stimulation

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10
Q

What causes movement of blood through the arteries?

A

hydrostatic pressure

- blood pressure is very high in arteries and ultimately 0 in venules

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11
Q

What circulatory system and mode of respiration do annelids have?

A

closed circulatory system!
diffusion of gasses (gas distributed through the animal upon diffusion through skin)
(note: annelids are ringed/segmented worms)

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12
Q

From stem cells to immature blood cells, how do RBC develop?

A
  • lose nucleus
  • decrease size
  • increase Hb content
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13
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

blood clotting
platelets = cell fragments
release - fibrinogen, fibrin

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14
Q

How does lymph circulate throughout the body?

A
  • smooth muscle contractions

- valves prevent backflow

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15
Q

What is the role of lymph nodes?

A
  • to filter for infectious materials - pathogens

- hold lymphocytes (WBC) which produced in bone marrow

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16
Q

In the urinary system, where is there high pressure and low pressure in terms of blood vasculature?

A

high: efferent arterioles are narrow therefore making glomerulus high pressure too
low: peritubular capillaries - therefore absorbs the small molecules (high to low gradient)

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17
Q

Where does filtration occur?

A

bowman’s capsule - glomerular filtrate

- from blood in glomerular capillaries to bowmans capsule makes filtrate

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18
Q

Where does reabsorption occur?

A

starting in the PCT and Loop of Henle

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19
Q

Where can all glucose, a.a., vitamins, hormones, and water all be reabsorbed?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

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20
Q

Which part of the loop of henle is permeable to water and impermeable to salt?

A
  • descending limb
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21
Q

Which part of the loop of henle is impermeable to water and permeable to salt?

A
  • ascending limb
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22
Q

What is the counter current exchange?

A

vasa recta

loop that flows in the opposite direction that absorbs water and salt in the other way

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23
Q

What hormones influence osmoregulation?

A

ADH

aldosterone

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24
Q

What is the role of ADH?

A
  • ADH stimulates reabsorption of water
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25
Q

What is the role of aldosterone?

A
  • aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of sodium (Na+) and water follows via osmosis
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26
Q

Where do these osmoregulating hormones act on?

A

ADH: collecting duct
aldosterone: DCT and collecting duct

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27
Q

How is nitrogen excreted in mammals?

A

ammonia (NH3) is converted into urea in the liver

urea is much less toxic

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28
Q

How do fish excrete nitrogen?

A

directly NH3/NH4+ excretion to water

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29
Q

How do birds, insects, and reptiles excrete nitrogen?

A

as uric acid crystals
(insoluble as water)
- precipitate allows conservation of water

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30
Q

How do eggs excrete nitrogen?

A

via allantois sac (develops to the umbilical cord)

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31
Q

What does salivary amylase break starch down to?

A

maltose

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32
Q

Is the digestive system voluntary or involuntary control?

A

involuntary

except in the mouth = voluntary

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33
Q

What are the 3 main parts of the stomach?

A

upper fundus
body
lower antrum

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34
Q

What is the function of the fundus and upper body?

A
  • thin walled portion

- receptive relaxation -> ability to increase volume to accommodate, without increasing intraluminal pressure

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35
Q

What is the function of the lower body and the antrum?

A
  • thick walled portion

- mixing and propulsion into the duoddenum

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36
Q

What are 2 forms of mechanical digestion in the stomach?

A
  • peristaltic

- segmental movements

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37
Q

What are 4 components to gastric juice?

A

pH 1-2

  • pepsinogen (converst to pepsin)
  • HCl (to activate pepsinogen)
  • intrinsic factor (required for vit B12)
  • mucin (protect stomach lining)
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38
Q

Where does retropulsive turbulent flow occur?

A

At the pyloric sphincter

food hits barrier and further mixing

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39
Q

What are the main functions of the small intestine?

A
  • neutralize acidic chyme

- absorb nutrients and water

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40
Q

What does the duodenum directly secrete?

A
  • proteases
  • maltase
  • lactase
  • phosphates (nucleotide breakdown)
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41
Q

What does the pancreas secrete?

A
  • into the small intestine
  • alkaline pH 7-8
  • pancreated amylase
  • pancreatic lipase
  • proteases (inactive zymogens) (trypsinogen -> trypsin) via enterokinase
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42
Q

What makes bile and what secretes bile?

A

bile is produced by the liver
secreted by the gall bladder
released into bile duct and into the pancreatic duct into the duodenum

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43
Q

What is the role of gastrin?

A
  • hormone that releases gastric juices in preparation for eating
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44
Q

What is the role of secretin in the digestive system?

A
  • produced in the duodenum when food enters stomach

- stimulates the pancreas to produce bicarbonate to neutralize the acidic chyme

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45
Q

What is the role of cholecystokinin?

A
  • produced in the small intestine in response of fats
  • stimulates bile release from gallbladder
  • stimulates release of digestive enzymes from pancreas
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46
Q

4 parts of the the cerebral cortex (a part of the cerebrum - forebrain)

A
  • frontal
  • parietal
  • occipital
  • temporal lobes
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47
Q

Role of the frontal lobe:

A

higher order thinking

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48
Q

Role of the parietal lobe:

A

sensory info: orientation, recognition, perception

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49
Q

Role of the parietal lobe:

A

visual processing

50
Q

Role of the temporal lobe:

A

sensory info: auditory, memory, speech

51
Q

What is the corpus callosum

A

bundle of axons

bridge left and right hemispheres

52
Q

What are parts of the hindbrain?

A

cerebellum
pons
medulla oblongata

53
Q

What are parts of the midbrain?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

54
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

movement, balance, posture

55
Q

Function of the hypothalamus?

A

part of limbic system (endocrine (pituitary) and autonomic system)
- i.e. ADH: thirst, hunger, temperature,

56
Q

Hippocampus

A

part of limbic system; learning and memory

57
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

heart rate, breathing, vital functions

58
Q

1 property of membrane potential: What is the concentration gradient of physiological ions?

A
  • high [Na+] EXtracellularly

- high [K+] and negatively charged proteins/nucleic acids INTracellularly

59
Q

What maintains the concentration gradient of the neuronal membrane?

A

3 sodiums out
2 potassiums in
Sodium-Potassium pump (ATP required pump)
therefore -ve inside relative to the +ve outside

60
Q

What happens in “depolarization” of an action potential?

A
  • resting membrane potential -70mV
  • Na+ channels open - INflux of positive Na+ down it’s concentration gradient
  • -30mV - depolarized
61
Q

Repolarization = ?

A

K+ channels open at a delay (which causes hyperpolarization)

= outflux of K+ ions down its concentration gradient to repolarize the membrane

62
Q

Refractory period?

A

concentration gradients no longer established, sodium potassium pump needs to restore the gradient

63
Q

How do you increase speed of action potentials?

A
  1. increase axonal diameter (invertebrates)

2. axonm insulation with myelin (vertebrates)

64
Q

What type of cells make up the myelin sheath?

A
  • schwann cells in the PNS

- oligodendrocytes in the CNS

65
Q

How does saltatory conduction work?

A
  • depolarization will spread a larger distance and reach from node of ranvier to another node (reboost) to next with each influx of sodium
66
Q

How are signals transmitted between neuron to neuron?

A

pre- to post-synaptic neuron via synaptic cleft - chemical transmission
- heart - electrical signal

67
Q

A typical synapse from pre- to post-synaptic (from axon to dendrite) is called?

A

axodendritic
Spine synapse = excitatory
Shaft synapse = inhibitory

68
Q

Axosomatic synapses are between:

A

axon presynaptic to soma post-synaptic

69
Q

What happens when an action potential reaches the presynaptic cleft at the axon terminal?

A

voltage gated Ca2+ ion channels open

- calcium INFlux at the PRE-synaptic vesicle

70
Q

What occurs regarding neurotransmitters in the axon terminal?

A

vesicle fusion due to Calcium signal

  • neuron stores NT in synaptic vesicle
  • vesicle moves to membrane
  • release NT to synpatic cleft
71
Q

The postsynaptic membrane is excited or inhibited. True of false?

A

True.

  • EPSP: excitatory postsynaptic potential = Na+ channels open to depolarize = action potential
  • IPSP = inhibitory postsynpatic potential = K+ channels open induce hyperpolarization - difficult to generate action potential
72
Q

How are Neurotransmitter is degraded or recycled?

A

by enzymes in synaptic cleft

or retaken up by presynaptic neuron

73
Q

Which of the 3 NT are likely to stimulate muscular contractions? Acetylcholine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, Serotonin, GABA?

A

acetylcholine

  • involved with neuromuscular junctions
  • excitatory to stimulate muscle contraction
74
Q

Fascicles are bundles of…?

A

skeletal muscle fiber that run in the same direction

75
Q

What type of movement does skeletal muscle control?

A

voluntary movement - conscious

76
Q

What type of muscles types are there?

A
  • skeletal
  • cardiac
  • smooth
77
Q

Which muscle type is multinucleated?

A

skeletal

78
Q

What do the I band and A band represent?

A

I band - actHin segments - light (no overlap)

A band - myosin segments - dark

79
Q

Z line ?

A

Z-discs

80
Q

H zone

A

only length of the myosin that does not overlap

81
Q

Which bands/zones change during contraction?

A, H, I, Z

A

A- band stays the same, but H zone gets smaller
I-band gets smaller, since it is the area of actin that does not overlap
Z-lines are therefore closer

82
Q

What molecule is involved with skeletal muscle contraction?

A

calcium (release of calcium across 2 pools)

- binds to troponin on myosin head

83
Q

What is the role of tropomyosin protein and troponin?

A

Exposure to Ca2+ allows for Ca2+ to bind to troponin which causes tropomyosin to expose binding sites and allow for myosin heads to bind to actin filaments

84
Q

What is reigor mortis?

A

state of ATP not replenished
cycle cannot continue
locked in state of contraction

85
Q

What is the plasma membrane of a muscle cell called?What hormone binds here?

A

sarcolemma
acetylcholine binds to open Na+ channels for depolarization
transmitted throughout T tubule

86
Q

What types of muscles are striated? skeletal, smooth, cardiac.

A

skeletal and cardiac

87
Q

What is the purpose of lysozyme?

A
  • enzyme protein that acts as first line of defence

- saliva, sweat, tears

88
Q

What is the second line of defence?

A

innate immunity = non-specific cellular and humoral cmpnts

no memory

89
Q

What are 3 humoral factors?

A

molecules that can be dissolved and transported in fluids

  • complement proteins (attract phagocytes)
  • interferons (virus infected cells secrete for warning)
  • inflammatory response
90
Q

What are 3 reasons that cause inflammatory response?

A
  • phagocytes (attracted via complement proteins) stimulate basophils
  • histamine: released by basophils
  • vasodilation by basophils
91
Q

List 6 cellular components of the innate immune system.

A
  • neutrophils: most abundant, first line of defence - slight digestion - pus
  • eosinophils: parasitic infections
  • basophil: allergic inflammatory response
  • macrophage: TOLL-like receptor which recognize pathogen associated membrane pattenr molecules on bacterial surface
  • natural killer cells: cells kill self and non self; all “self” have MHC1, for nkc to recognize; lymphoid lineage
  • dendritic cells: interact with and phagocytose bacteria; myeloid and lymphoid lineage
92
Q

PAMPS , TLR, MDNF is associated with which cellular response?

A

macrophage

  • pathogen associated molecular/membrane patterns
  • TOLL-like receptors
  • macrophage derived neutrophil chemotactic factor (recruits neutrophil)
93
Q

Pus, dead bacteria, NET is associated with which cellular response?

A

neutrophil activity

- neutrophil extracellular net, dead neutrophils and pus = dead bacteria

94
Q

What cellular component activates the innate and adaptive response?

A

dendritic cell links the innate and adaptive response after it travels to the lymph nodes

95
Q

What is the third line of defence?

A

adaptive immunity - specific to invaders = memory

96
Q

What is the difference between MHC class I and class II molecules?

A 
MHC class 1 are present on all cells
MHC class 2 are present on antigen presenting cells (dendritic cell, macrophage, B cell)
97
Q

Cell mediated adaptive immunity is referred to as?

A

t-cell activation

98
Q

Humoral adaptive immunity is referred to as?

A

b cell development

99
Q

One antigen one polypeptide sequence is what immune response?

A

cell mediated adaptive immunity - t cell activation

= epitome

100
Q

What are the 3 types of T cells

A

helper t cells
cytotoxic/killer t cells
regulatory t cell (downregulates immune response i.e. autoimmunity)

101
Q

Where do b cells and t cells originate?

A

bone marrow

102
Q

What is the main difference between b cells and t cells?

A
  • b cells produce and secrete immunoglobulin/antibody that recognize same epitome, vs t cell has the antigen receptor
103
Q

What are the main parts of an antibody?

A
  • variable region: varies for each b cell; recognizes the epitome (antigen)
    - heavy chain and light chain, antigen binds the heavy chain
  • constant region: receptors on some cells
104
Q

What are 2 types of B cells?

A
  • plasma b cells: circulate in blood and bind to antigens

- memory b cells: membrane bound and long lifespan (what vaccination relies on)

105
Q

Arginine vasopressin AVP is also known as?

A

ADH - antidiuretic hormone

106
Q

Name some amino-acid hormones

A
  • epinephrine/norepinephrine
  • triodothyronine (T3) / T4 thyroxine
  • melatonin
107
Q

Name some steroid hormones

A
  • cortisol (adrenal cortex)
  • aldosterone (adrenal cortex)
  • estrogen
    progesterone
  • testosterone
108
Q

What is the role of cortisol?

A
  • adrenal cortex (stimulated by ACTH)
  • sympathetic flight or fight
  • increase blood glucose
  • increase Na+ and K+ reabsorption
    (exact same as aldosterone)
109
Q

What is a tropic hormone vs normal?

A

tropic hormones target other glands/organs

110
Q

What is the difference between alpha and beta cells of the pancreas?

A
  • glucagon releasing = alpha

- insulin releasing = beta

111
Q

What does LH stimulate/target?

A
  • ovaries and testes
  • corpus luteum formation
  • testosterone production
112
Q

What does FSH stimulate/target?

A
  • maturation of ovarian follicles to secrete estrogen

- maturation of seminiferous tubules and sperm production

113
Q

Layers of the epidermis: (outer to inner)

A 
stratum corneum
stratum lucidum
stratum granulosum
stratum spinosum
stratum basale (germinativum)
(can ladies grow skin back?)
114
Q

what is a keratinocyte?

A

skin cell

115
Q

where does the life cycle of a skin cell begin?

A

keratinocyte begins at stratum basale/germinativum (germinates here in basement membrane)

116
Q

what is the purpose of lamellar granules?

A

lipid containing

surface of stratum corneum - water repellent

117
Q

What types of cells to keratinocytes derive from?

A
  • Merkel cells

- skin stem cells

118
Q

What is the papillary region?

A
  • outermost region of the dermis that has loose connective tissue
  • interdigitates with stratum basale
    (phagocytes, lymphatic capillaries, nerves, small blood vessels)
119
Q

What is the reticular region?

A
  • inner region of dense connective tissue with tight mesh of collage nand elastin
    (oil glands, sweat ducts, fat, hair follicles)
120
Q

What type of muscle lines the walls of blood vessels?

A

smooth muscles

note: these are not striated and have no T-tubules

DAT Biology (12 decks)

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