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CompTIA A+_ > Chapter 3 Hardware > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Hardware Flashcards

1
Q

Ethernet is:

A

a system of communication rules that allow computers to work together

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2
Q

What is known as baseband transmission?

A

Ethernet cables carrying small voltage pulses (1 is voltage, 0 is no voltage) over a single frequency

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3
Q

Ethernet cables are bidirectional which means:

A

hosts can send and receive data on one cable

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4
Q

What are the most common of the standard cabling grades?

A

Category 5e (CAT5e)

Category 6 (CAT6)

Category 6a (CAT6a)

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5
Q

The most common of standard cabling grades are suitable for use with:

A

standard 10BASE-T

Fast Ethernet network

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6
Q

The most common of standard cabling grades can be used for what if they pass compliance testing?

A

Gigabit Ethernet

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7
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT3

A

10BASE-T Ethernet; Up to 10Mbps; Legacy, also supported Token Ring networks at up to 16Mbps

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8
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT5

A

10BASE-T, 100BASE-T (Fast Ethernet); Up to 100Mbps; Uses 24-gauge wires

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9
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT5e

A

10BASE-T, 100BASE-T, 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet); Up to 1000Mbps; Enhanced version of CAT5

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10
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT6a

A

10BASE-T, 100BASE-T, 1000BASE-T, 10GBASE-T (10Gbps Ethernet); Up to 10Gbps; Enhanced version of CAT6

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11
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT6

A

10BASE-T, 100BASE-T, 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet); Up to 1000Mbps (1Gbps); Often uses 22-gauge or 20-gauge wire pairs (both of which are thicker than 24-gauge wire)

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12
Q

Network Type(s) Supported; Supported Speeds; Notes

CAT7

A

10BASE-T, 100BASE-T, 1000BASE-T, 10GBASE-T (10Gbps Ethernet); Up to 10Gbps; Uses 12-connector GG45 connector (backward compatible with RJ-45)

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13
Q

There are two categories of TP cable in terms of fire rating:

A

Standard

Plenum

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14
Q

A Standard cable is suitable for:

A

patch cables between a NIC and a network jack or in a patch panel

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15
Q

A Standard cable typically has:

A

a PVC jacket, which can create a lot of smoke when burned

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16
Q

A Plenum cable is designed for:

A

use in space used for HVAC air exchanges such as ventilator shafts, under floors, or between suspended ceilings and the permanent ceiling

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17
Q

Plenum cables produce:

A

less smoke when burned,

a lower level of toxic chemicals when burned

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18
Q

Plenum cable jackets might be made from:

A

Teflon or from a modified version of PVC that produces less smoke when burned than standard PVC

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19
Q

What is the most common of the major cabling types?

A

Twisted-pair (TP) cabling

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20
Q

What is the physical construction of a Twisted-pair (TP) cable?

A

four twisted pairs of wire surrounded by a flexible jacket (unshielded TP, or UTP) or various types of metal foil or braid (shielded TP, or STP)

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21
Q

STP uses what connector as UTP?

A

RJ-45 connector

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22
Q

UTP and STP cable can be purchased how?

A

in prebuilt assemblies

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23
Q

UTP and STP can be built using what?

A

bulk cable and connectors

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24
Q

What is T568B (EIA-568B)?

A

The de facto wire pair standard for all types of Ethernet UTP cables

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25
Q

The wire order, from left to right when looking at the top of a T568B (EIA-568B) connector is:

A

Pin 1-Orange/white stripe

Pin 2-Orange

Pin 3-Green/white stripe

Pin 4-Blue

Pin 5-Blue/white stripe

Pin 6-Green

Pin 7-Brown/white stripe

Pin 8-Brown

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26
Q

The wire order, from left to right when looking at the top of a T568B or EIA-568B connector is:

A

Pin 1-Green/white stripe

Pin 2-Green

Pin 3-Orange/white stripe

Pin 4-Blue

Pin 5-Blue/white stripe

Pin 6-Orange

Pin 7-Brown/white stripe

Pin 8-Brown

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27
Q

The T568A (EIA-568A) standard swaps:

A

the positions or the orange and green wires used in T568B

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28
Q

Fiber-optic cabling transmits:

A

signals with light rather than with electrical signals, which makes it immune to electrical interference

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29
Q

Compare Fiber-optic with copper

A

more expensive than copper

requires more experience to install

longer distances for large amounts of data

can be used in areas where electrical interference would make copper cable problematic

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30
Q

Because of the expense, fiber is used primarily:

A

as a backbone between networks

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31
Q

Fiber-optic cable comes in two major types:

A

Single-mode fiber

Multi-mode fiber

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32
Q

Single-mode fiber cable has:

A

a thin core (between 8 and microns) and is designed to carry a single light ray long distances (up to 60km or farther)

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33
Q

Single-mode fiber cable uses:

A

a laser diode as a light source

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34
Q

Single-mode fiber cable is typically used by:

A

cable TV and telephone companies

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35
Q

Multi-mode fiber cable has:

A

a thick core (62.5 microns) than single-mode and carries multiple light rays for short distances (up to 10km)

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36
Q

Multi-mode fiber cable uses:

A

an LED light source

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37
Q

Multi-mode fiber cable is typically used in:

A

local area networks (LANs) and metropolitan area networks (MANs)

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38
Q

Single-mode fiber cable carries:

A

less data up to 60km (36 mi) before the signal needs to be boosted

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39
Q

Multi-mode fiber cable carries:

A

much more data but only for about 10km (6 mi)

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40
Q

Fiber-optic devices and cables use one of several connector types. The most common include:

A

SC: Uses square connectors

LC: Uses square connectors

ST: Uses round connectors

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41
Q

Coaxial cabling data wires are surrounded by what?

A

wire mesh for insulation

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42
Q

What is the oldest type of network cabling?

A

Coaxial cabling

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43
Q

Why are coaxial cables not popular for network use today?

A

Because they must be run from one station directly to another rather than to or from a hub/switch

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44
Q

What are coaxial cables mainly used for?

A

most cable TV

cable Internet

satellite TV installations

CCTV cameras used for security

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45
Q

Coaxial cabling creates a:

A

bus topology

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46
Q

With an Ethernet bus topology, all:

A

network members are added to the same physical coaxial cable line to communicate with each other

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47
Q

A big disadvantage of an Ethernet bus topology is that:

A

if any part of the bus fails, the entire network fails

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48
Q

The oldest Ethernet standard is what?

A

10BASE5

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49
Q

The Ethernet standard 10BASE5 uses:

A

a very thick coaxial cable (RG-8) attached to a NIC through an AUI transceiver that uses a “vampire tap” to connect the transceiver to the cable

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50
Q

The Ethernet standard 10BASE5 is referred to as:

A

Thick Ethernet

Thicknet

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51
Q

The Ethernet standard 10BASE2 is referred to as:

A

Thin Ethernet

Thinnet

Cheapernet

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52
Q

The Ethernet standard 10BASE2 was used for:

A

low-cost Ethernet networks before the advent of UTP cable

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53
Q

The coaxial cable used with 10BASE2 is referred to as:

A

RG-58

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54
Q

The RG-58 coaxial cable connects to:

A

network cards through through a T connector that bayonet-mounts to the rear of the network card using a BNC connector

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55
Q

The arms of the T connecter are used to:

A

connect two cables, each running to another computer in the network

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56
Q

When will a terminating resistor be connects to one are of the T connecter?

A

If the workstation is at the end of a network

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57
Q

RG-59 coaxial cables are used in:

A

older cable TV or satellite TV installations as well as in CCTV security installations

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58
Q

RG-59 coaxial cables uses a:

A

22-gauge (AWG) center conductor and a single outer shield

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59
Q

RG-59 coaxial cables is designed for:

A

signals up to 50MHz

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60
Q

RG-6 coaxial cables uses:

A

the same connectors as RG-59 but has a larger diameter with dual shielding

an 18-gauge (AWG) center conductor, which can carry a signal farther than RG-59

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61
Q

RG-59 coaxial cables are used in:

A

cable TV/Internet, satellite Tv/Internet, fixed wireless Internet/TV service, and CCTV

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62
Q

What is the resistance of an RG-59 coaxial cable?

A

75-ohm resistance

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63
Q

What is the resistance of an RG-6 coaxial cable?

A

75-ohm resistance

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64
Q

RG-6 coaxial cables are also available in:

A

quad-shielded versions

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65
Q

RG-6 coaxial cables can carry:

A

signals up to 1.5GHz, making it much better for HDTV signals

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66
Q

BNC connectors are used for:

A

CCTV cameras and for some types of video projectors

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67
Q

How are BNC connectors connected to the coaxial?

A

they are crimped to the coaxial and use a positive-locking bayonet mount

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68
Q

F connectors are used for:

A

cable, satellite, and fixed wireless Internet and TV service.

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69
Q

How are F connectors connected to the coaxial?

A

they can be crimped or attached via compression to the coaxial cable

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70
Q

High quality F connectors use a:

A

threaded connector. However, some F connector cables use a push-on connect, which is not as secure and can lead to a poor-quality connection

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71
Q

A two-way splitter reduces:

A

signal strength by 50% (3.5dB) on each connection

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72
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

VGA

A

Analog; 640x480 graphics, 720x480 text; 2048x1536; No; No; No

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73
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

HDMI

A

Digital, Analog; VGA; 1920x1200; Yes; Yes; Yes

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74
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

DVI

A

Digital, Analog; 1920x1200, 2560x1600; Varies; Yes; Yes

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75
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

DisplayPort

A

Digital, Analog; VGA; 4K; Yes; Yes; Yes

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76
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

BNC

A

Analog; VGA; 1080p; No; No; No

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77
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

Composite

A

Analog; 480i; 480i; No; No; No

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78
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

S-Video

A

Analog; 480i; 480i; No; No; No

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79
Q

Signal Type; Base Resolution; Maximum Resolution (60Hz refresh rate); HDCP Support; 3D Support; Audio

Component

A

Analog; 720p; 1080i; No; No; No

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80
Q

HDMI 1.0-1.3c has what maximum resolution?

A

1920x1200

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81
Q

HDMI 1.4b or higher has:

A

4k

3D support

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82
Q

DVI has what resolution when it is dual-link?

A

2560x1600

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83
Q

DVI has what resolution when it is single-link?

A

1920x1200

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84
Q

Video Graphics Array is largely:

A

a legacy technology, but you may still encounter it on older systems

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85
Q

A VGA port and monitor can:

A

display an unlimited number of colors, but practical color limits are based on the video card’s memory and the desired screen resolution

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86
Q

An enhanced version of VGA is:

A

Super VGA (SVGA), which typically refers to 800x600 VGA resolution

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87
Q

Most video cards with DVI ports use:

A

the DVI-I dual-link version

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88
Q

The DVI-I dual-link version provides:

A

both digital and analog output and supports the use of VGA/DVI-I adapter for use with analog displays

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89
Q

The least common DVI is:

A

DVI-A

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90
Q

DVI supports:

A

analog signals only

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91
Q

The maximum length for DVI cables is:

A

5m

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92
Q

What supports the standard known as HDMI?

A

Video cards and systems with integrated video that are designed for home theater use

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93
Q

HDMI has the capability to support:

A

digital audio as well as video through a single cable

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94
Q

HDMI ports are found on:

A

most late-model HDTVs

home theater hardware such as amplifiers

Blu-ray and DVD players

many laptop and desktop PCs running Windows or Linux

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95
Q

All versions of HDMI support:

A

HDCP and digital rights management (DRM) for copyright protection

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96
Q

What is the most recent HDMI standard?

A

version 2.1

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97
Q

HDMI 2.1 supports:

A

video resolutions and refresh rates including 8K60 and 4K120, as well as resolutions up to 10K

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98
Q

HDMI 1.4b supports:

A

1080p HDTV

48-bit color depths

various types of uncompressed and compressed digital audio

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99
Q

The most common HDMI port is:

A

Type A, which has 19 pins

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100
Q

Compare HDMI 1.3 (mini-HDMI) to HDMI Type A plug:

A

smaller

has the same 19-pin configuration

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101
Q

Describe HDMI 1.4 (micro-HDMI) connector to Type A plug:

A

same 19-pin configuration

connector the size of a micro-USB plug

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102
Q

DisplayPort was designed by:

A

Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) as a royalty-free digital interface to replace DVI and VGA

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103
Q

DisplayPort offers a:

A

maximum transmission distance of 3m over passive cable and in theory up to 33m over active cable

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104
Q

How many pins are in a DIsplayPort?

A

20 pins

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105
Q

DisplayPort cables can be up to:

A

15m long, but quality decreases with length

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106
Q

DisplayPort is currently available in three versions:

A

DisplayPort 1.1

DisplayPort 1.2

DisplayPort 1.3

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107
Q

Maximum data transfer rate of DisplayPort 1.1 is:

A

8.64Gbps

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108
Q

Maximum data transfer rate of DisplayPort 1.2 is:

A

17.28Gbps

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109
Q

Maximum data transfer rate of DisplayPort 1.3 is:

A

32.4Gbps

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110
Q

DisplayPort 1.2 introduces:

A

mini-DisplayPort connector

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111
Q

DisplayPort 1.2 supports

A

3D

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112
Q

DisplayPort 1.3 supports

A

4K, 5K, and 8K UHD displays

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113
Q

The Thunderbolt digital I/O interface is:

A

backward-compatible with mini-DisplayPort

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114
Q

The Digital Visual Interface (DVI) port is:

A

a digital video port that is used by many LED and LCD displays with a 25 in. or smaller diagonal measurement

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115
Q

the DVI-D supports only:

A

signals and is found on digital LCD displays

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116
Q

Older iOS devices (up through the iPhone 4 series and third-generation iPad) used:

A

the 30-pin connecter

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117
Q

What year did Apple standardize on the Lightning connector?

A

2012

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118
Q

Apple’s Lightning connector is an:

A

8-pin reversible connecter

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119
Q

Lightning connector data transfer rates are about the same as:

A

the USB 2.0 standard

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120
Q

Thunderbolt is a:

A

high-speed interface capable of supporting hard disk drives, SSDs, HDTVs up to 4K resolution, and other types of I/O devices

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121
Q

Thunderbolt includes:

A

PCIe and DisplayPort digital signals into a compact interface that runs from 2x to 8x faster than USB 3.0 and 2x to 4x faster than USB 3.1 Gen 2.

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122
Q

When did Intel introduce Thunderbolt?

A

2011

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123
Q

Thunderbolt is available in three versions that use two different port types:

A

Thunderbolt 1

Thunderbolt 2

Thunderbolt 3

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124
Q

Thunderbolt 1 and 2 use:

A

the same physical port as mini-DisplayPort

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125
Q

Thunderbolt 3, uses:

A

the same physical connecter as USB Type C

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126
Q

All versions of Thunderbolt support:

A

up to six Thunderbolt devices per port and use daisy chaining to connect devices to each other

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127
Q

Maximum Interface Speeds; Connection Type; Support Protocols; Maximum Cable Length

Thunderbolt 1

A

10Gbps; mini-DisplayPort; Thunderbolt 1, DisplayPort; 3m (9.8 ft.)

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128
Q

Maximum Interface Speeds; Connection Type; Support Protocols; Maximum Cable Length

Thunderbolt 2

A

20Gbps; mini-DisplayPort; Thunderbolt 1-2, DisplayPort 1.2; 3m (9.8ft.)

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129
Q

Maximum Interface Speeds; Connection Type; Support Protocols; Maximum Cable Length

Thunderbolt 3

A

40Gbps; USB Type C; Thunderbolt 1-3, DisplayPort 1.2, PCIe 3, USB 3.0, USB Power Delivery; 3m (9.8 ft.)

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130
Q

Because of Thunderbolt’s high bandwidth, it can be:

A

connected to docks that feature multiple port types

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131
Q

Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports have replaced:

A

PS/2 (mini-DIN) mouse and keyboard ports on recent systems and can be used for printers, mass storage, and other external I/O devices

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132
Q

Some form of USB port is also used by:

A

most mobile devices

game consoles

many network devices

cars and trucks

smart TVs

other electronics

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133
Q

The three standards for USB ports are;

A

USB 2.0 (Hi-Speed)

USB 3.0 (SuperSpeed); also known as USB 3.1 Generation 1

USB 3.1 (Superspeed+); also known as 3.1 Generation 2

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134
Q

A single USB port on an add-on card or motherboard is designed to handle up to:

A

127 devices through the use of multiport hubs and daisy chaining hubs

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135
Q

Plug and Play (PnP) are:

A

hot swappable (which means they can be connected and disconnected without running off the system)

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136
Q

You can add USB ports with any of the following methods:

A

Motherboard connectors for USB header cables

Hubs

Add-on cards

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137
Q

Some motherboards have USB header cable connectors, which enable you to:

A

make additional USB ports available on the rear or front of the computer

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138
Q

USB generic hubs are used to:

A

connect multiple devices to the same USB port, distribute both USB signals and power via the USB hub to other devices, and increase the distance between the device and the USB port

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139
Q

There are two types of generic hubs:

A

Bus-powered

Self-powered

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140
Q

A Bus-powered hub might be:

A

built into other devices, such as monitors and keyboards, or they can be standalone devices

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141
Q

A Self-powered hub has:

A

its own power source; it plugs in to an AC wall outlet

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142
Q

A Self-powered hub designed for USB 1.1 or 2.0 devices provides:

A

up to 500mA of power to each device connected to it

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143
Q

A Self-powered hub designed for USB 3.0/3.1 devices provides:

A

up to 900mA of power to each device

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144
Q

Compare a Self-powered hub with a Bus-powered hub:

A

supports a wider range of USB devices than a bus-powered hub

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145
Q

Add-on cards can be used to provide:

A

additional USB ports as an alternative to hubs

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146
Q

One advantage of an add-on card vs a hub is:

A

its capability to provide support for more recent USB standards

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147
Q

On desktop computers add-on cards for USB 1.1 or 2.0 ports connect to:

A

PCI slots

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148
Q

On laptop computers add-on cards for USB 3.0 ports connect to:

A

Express Card slots

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149
Q

On laptop computers add-on cards for USB 1.1 or 2.0 ports connect to:

A

CardBus slots

Express Card slots

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150
Q

On desktop computers add-on cards for USB 3.0 ports connect to:

A

PCIe x1 or wider slots

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151
Q

USB Version; Speeds Supported; Maximum Cable Length; Notes

USB

A

1.1 (legacy); USB; 1.5Mbps or 12Mbps; 3m; no notes

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152
Q

USB Version; Speeds Supported; Maximum Cable Length; Notes

Hi-Speed USB

A

2.0; 480Mbps; 5m; also supports USB 1.1 devices and speeds

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153
Q

USB Version; Speeds Supported; Maximum Cable Length; Notes

SuperSpeed USB

A

3.1 Gen 1 (also known as USB 3.0); 5Gbps; 3m is recommended, no max established; Also supports USB 1.1 and 2.0 devices and speeds

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154
Q

USB Version; Speeds Supported; Maximum Cable Length; Notes

SuperSpeed+ USB

A

3.1 Gen 2; 10Gbps; no max established; Also supports USB 1.1, 2.0, 3.0/3.1 Gen 1 devices and speeds

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155
Q

USB 3.1 is actually two standards in one. The two are:

A

USB 3.1 Gen 1

USB 3.1 Gen 2

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156
Q

USB cable adapter kits enable a single cable with replaceable tips to be used for the following tasks:

A

Type A male to female to extend a short cable

Type A female to Type B connectors to enable a single cable with multiple adapter tips to work with various types of peripherals

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157
Q

Serial means:

A

that the data bits flow in a line, one after the other, over the cable

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158
Q

Serial connections were designed for:

A

the relatively low speed of telephone modem communication but were also used for other devices such as keyboards, mice, and other peripheral devices

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159
Q

What were the most common devices to be connected with parallel ports?

A

Printers, but now they are connected with USB cables or via Ethernet cables on networks

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160
Q

Hard drive cables are built to:

A

carry data to and from the motherboard

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161
Q

At one time, hard drives were connected to motherboards with:

A

Advanced Technology Attachment (ATA) cables

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162
Q

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) cables are:

A

next-generation serial cables that carry high-speed data

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163
Q

External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) cables allow:

A

for external drives to be mounted at the same data rate

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164
Q

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) cables are used:

A

inside computer cases and offer not only the advantage of high speed but the benefit of better airflow inside the box

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165
Q

External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) has better:

A

shielding to protect the cable and the data

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166
Q

An Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) cable is a standard cable type for:

A

connecting devices to a motherboard inside a computer case

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167
Q

An Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) cable has how many connectors?

A

3; One for the motherboard and then you can connect two hard drives to the motherboard

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168
Q

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) cables have been replaced by:

A

SATA cables inside computers

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169
Q

What does Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) require to connect to a hard drive?

A

an expansion card

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170
Q

An advantage of a Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) drive system is that:

A

up to 7 (or sometimes 15) SCSI drives can be daisy chained together

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171
Q

A disadvantage of Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is:

A

SCSI is more expensive and complicated to configure

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172
Q

DVI to HDMI adapters usually only:

A

transmitted video but some newer graphics cards allow for HDMI audio over DVI transmission

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173
Q

DVI-I to VGA adapters enable:

A

VGA displays to work with DVI-I ports on video cards

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174
Q

Connector Description; Status;

RJ-11

A

Standard phone jack, smaller than RJ-45; Current

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175
Q

Connector Description; Status;

RJ-45

A

Standard Ethernet cable connector; Current

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176
Q

Connector Description; Status;

RS-232

A

Most commonly found in DB9 or DB15 connections on PCs for printers, mice and modems, mostly replaced by USB cables; In decline

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177
Q

Connector Description; Status;

Bayonet Neill Connector (BNC):

A

the make connector for 10BASE2 coax cables; Legacy

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178
Q

Connector Description; Status;

RG-59

A

Coax cable with 20AWG, common CCTV (non-broadcast); Current

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179
Q

Connector Description; Status;

RG-6

A

Coax with 18AWG; larger copper core than RG-59, so more signal and bandwidth, used for CATV (common cable TV); Current

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180
Q

Connector Description; Status;

USB

A

most common connector currently in use; Current

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181
Q

Connector Description; Status;

Micro-USB

A

about half the size of USB-A, common for external storage, cameras, and so on; Legacy but still in use

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182
Q

Connector Description; Status;

USB-C

A

Newest reversible USB connector, should replace other USB types; Current

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183
Q

Connector Description; Status;

DB9

A

9-pin serial connector once common on PCs, used for peripherals like mice and keyboards; Legacy but still in specialized use

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184
Q

Connector Description; Status;

Lighting

A

Apple mobile device connector used for data and power; Current

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185
Q

Connector Description; Status;

Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

A

Used internally (hard drive) or externally (printers, storage, and so on); Legacy

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186
Q

Connector Description; Status;

eSATA

A

Used for connecting external storage; thicker than internal SATA cables; Current

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187
Q

Connector Description; Status;

Molex

A

Not a networking connector, delivers power from power supply to various drives and motherboard inside a PC; Legacy but still around, replaced by SATA

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188
Q

Installing more RAM improves:

A

transfers between the CPU and both RAM and hard drives

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189
Q

The contents of RAM are:

A

temporary

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190
Q

RAM is much faster than:

A

magnetic or SSD storage

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191
Q

RAM speed is measured in:

A

nanoseconds (billionths of a second)

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192
Q

magnetic and SSC storage is measured in:

A

milliseconds (thousandths of a second)

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193
Q

RAM Notes

RAM

A

Random Access Memory; Volatile memory not for storage

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194
Q

RAM Meaning; Notes

SDRAM

A

Synchronous dynamic random access memory; Combines static RAM and dynamic RAM

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195
Q

RAM Meaning; Notes

SDR SDRAM

A

Single data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory; Legacy

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196
Q

RAM Meaning; Notes

DDR SDRAM
DDR(2,3,4) SDRAM

A

Double data rate single data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory; DDR 2 through 4 are currently in use in most computer

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197
Q

RAM Meaning; Notes

DIMM

A

Dual inline memory module; Form factor used in dekstops

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198
Q

RAM Meaning; Notes

SODIMM

A

Small outline dual inline memory module; Form factor used in laptops

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199
Q

When you upgrade a computer, you need to know a few important details:

A

form factor

memory speed

memory timing

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200
Q

Ram Pins (DIMM); Pins (SODIMM); Common Type; Speed; Defining Characteristic

DDR SDRAM

A

184; 200; PC3200; 400MHz/3200Mbps; Double the transfers per clock cycle compared to regular SDRAM

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201
Q

Ram Pins (DIMM); Pins (SODIMM); Common Type; Speed; Defining Characteristic

DDR2 SDRAM

A

240; 200; DDR2-800; 800MHz/6400Mbps; External data bus speed (I/O bus clock) is 2x faster than DDR SDRAM

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202
Q

Ram Pins (DIMM); Pins (SODIMM); Common Type; Speed; Defining Characteristic

DDR3 SDRAM

A

240; 204; DDR3-1333; 1333MHz/10,600Mbps; External data bus speed (I/O bus clock) is 2x faster than DDR2 SDRAM (4x faster than DDR SDRAM)

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203
Q

Ram Pins (DIMM); Pins (SODIMM); Common Type; Speed; Defining Characteristic

DDR4 SDRAM

A

288; 260; DDR4-2400; 2400MHz/19,200Mbps; External data bus speed (I/O bus clock) is 2x faster than DDR3 SDRAM (8x faster than DDR SDRAM)

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204
Q

Originally, all systems that used SDRAM were:

A

single-channel systems

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205
Q

Since RAM services the CPU, it would be best to have:

A

RAM with enough speed to match the processing the CPU performs

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206
Q

Some systems using DDR and most systems using DDR2 or newer memory technologies support:

A

dual-channel operations

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207
Q

Dual-channel operation is when:

A

two identical modules are installed in the proper sockets, the memory controller accesses them in interleaved mode for faster access

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208
Q

Dual-channel operation is why almost all:

A

RAM upgrades are done in pair of chips

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209
Q

Triple-channel RAM is designed to:

A

triple the speed of the RAM bandwidth

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210
Q

Some triple-channel motherboards use:

A

four sockets, but for pest performance, the last socket should not be used on these systems

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211
Q

Two methods have been used to protect the reliability of memory:

A

Parity checking

Error-correcting code or Error-correction code (ECC)

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212
Q

Both parity checking and ECC depend upon the presence of:

A

an additional memory chip over the chips required for the data bus of the module

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213
Q

Parity checking works like this:

A

Whenever memory is accessed, each data bit has a value of 0 or 1. The totaled value should be odd, called odd parity. If the total is even then there is probably a memory problem

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214
Q

Error-correcting code (ECC) enables:

A

the system to correct single-bit errors and notify you of larger errors

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215
Q

Error-correcting code (ECC) is recommended for:

A

maximum data safety

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216
Q

What should you do before working with any memory modules?

A

Turn off the computer and unplug it from the AC outlet

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217
Q

To install a DIMM module, follow these steps:

A
  1. Line up the modules’ connectors with the socket
  2. Verify that the locking tabs on the socket are swiveled to the outside (open) position
  3. Push the module straight down into the socket until the swivel locks on each end of the socket snap into place at the top corners of the module
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218
Q

When you install memory on a motherboard inside a working system, using the following tips to help your upgrade go smoothly and the module to work properly:

A

If the system is a tower system, consider placing the system on its side to make upgrade easier

Use a digital camera or smartphone set for close-up focusing so you can document the system’s interior before you start the upgrade process

Move the locking tab on the DIMM sockets to the open position before you try to insert the module

If an aftermarket heat sink blocks access to memory sockets, try to remove its fan by unscrewing it from the radiator fin assembly

Move power and drive cables away from the memory sockets so you can access the sockets

Use a flashlight to shine light into the interior of the system so you can see the memory sockets and locking tabs clearly

Use a flashlight to double-check your memory installation to make sure the module is completely inserted into the slot and locked into place

Replace any cables you moved or disconnected during the process before you close the case and restart the system

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219
Q

Optical drives fall into three major categories:

A

Those based on CD technology

Those based on DVD technology

Those based on Blu-ray technology

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220
Q

All three types of optical drives store data in:

A

a continuous spiral of indentations called pits and lands that are burned into the non-label side of the disc from the middle outward to the edge

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221
Q

All three types of optical drives use:

A

a laser to read the data

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222
Q

The difference between the storage capacities of Blu-ray, DVD, and CD is due to:

A

the differences in laser wavelengths

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223
Q

Shorter wavelengths enable:

A

more data to be stored in the same space

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224
Q

Blu-ray uses:

A

a blue laser with a shorter-wave length than DVD or CD

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225
Q

DVD uses:

A

a red laser with a longer wavelength than Blu-ray but shorter than that of CD

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226
Q

CD uses:

A

a near-infrared laser with the longest wavelength, which has the lowest capacity

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227
Q

CD-R and CD-RW drives use:

A

special media types and a more powerful laser than that used on CD-ROM drives to write data to the media

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228
Q

CD-R media is a:

A

“write once: media; that is, the media can be written to during multiple sessions, but older data cannot be deleted

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229
Q

CD-RW media can be:

A

rewritten up to 1,000 times

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230
Q

80-min CD-R media has a capacity of:

A

700MB

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231
Q

Older 74-min CD-R media has a capacity of:

A

650MB

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232
Q

CD-RW media is available in four types:

A

CD-RW 1x-4x

High-speed CD-RW 4x-12x

Ultra-speed CD-RW 12x-24x

Ultra speed+ CD-RW 32x

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233
Q

DVD-R and DVD+R media is:

A

recordable but not erasable

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234
Q

DVD-RW and DVD+RW media uses:

A

a phase-change medium similar to CD-RW and can be rewritten up to 1,000 times

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235
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD-R

A

A single-sided, single-layer, writable/nonerasable media to similar to CD-R; capacity of 4.7GB

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236
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD-R DL

A

A single-side writable/nonerasable media similar to CD-R, but with a second recording layer; capacity of 8.4GB

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237
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD-RW

A

A single-sided rewritable/erasable media similar to CD-RW; capacity of 4.7GB. DVD-RW drives can also write to DVD-R media

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238
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD+RW

A

A rewritable/erasable media; capacity of 4.7GB

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239
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD+R

A

A single-side, single-layer, writable/nonerasable media; capacity of 4.7GB

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240
Q

DVD Notes:

DVD+R DL

A

A writable/nonerasable media with a second recording layer; capacity of 8.4GB

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241
Q

Blu-ray disc (BD) technology is:

A

am enhancement of the DVD technology that offers greater storage capacity

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242
Q

Standard-capacity BD media types include:

A

BD-R

BD-R DL

BD-RE

BDXL

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243
Q

Blu-ray disc notes

BD-R

A

Recordable, not erasable; similar to CD-R, DVD+R, DVD-R; 25GB capacity

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244
Q

Blu-ray disc notes

BD-R DL

A

Dual-layer recordable media; similar to DVD+R DL, DVD-RW DL; 50GB capacity

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245
Q

Blu-ray disc notes

BD-RE

A

Recordable and rewritable; similar to CD-RW, DVD-RW, DVD+RW; 25GB capacity

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246
Q

Blu-ray disc notes

BDXL

A

supports multilayer 100GB and 128GB recordable media (BD-R 3.0) and multi-layer 100 GB rewritable media (BD-RE Revision 4.0)

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247
Q

Drive speeds are measures by:

A

an X-rating

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248
Q

Drive speeds

CD media:

A

1X equals 150KBps, the data transfer rate used for reading music CDs

Multiply the X-rating by 150 to determine the drive’s data rate for reading, writing, or rewriting CD media

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249
Q

Drive speeds

DVD media:

A

1X equals 1.385Mbps, the data transfer rate used for playing DVD-Video content

Multiply the X-rating by 1.385 to determine the drive’s data rate for reading, writing, or rewriting DVD media

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250
Q

Drive speeds

Blue-ray (BD) media

A

1X equals 4.5MBps, the data transfer rate for playing Blu-ray movie

Multiply the X-rating by 4.5 to determine the drive’s rate rate for reading, writing, or rewriting Blu-ray media

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251
Q

You can use the following methods to record files onto optical discs:

A

Built-in recording features in Windows or other operating systems

Third-party disc mastering programs

Third-party drag-and-drop programs

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252
Q

Hard drives are the most:

A

important storage devices used by personal computers

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253
Q

A hard drive stores:

A

the OS and loads it into the computer’s memory (RAM) at startup

store applications

system configuration files used by applications and OS

data files created by the user

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254
Q

A Solid-State Drive (SDD) is:

A

a flash memory drive with no moving parts

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255
Q

Because an SSD does not spin to:

A

retrieve data, it is much faster than a magnetic hard drive for storing and retrieving data

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256
Q

A typical SSD has:

A

a 2.5-inch form factor

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257
Q

While M.2 SSDs are currently more expensive, they have the potential to be both:

A

faster and lighter than standard SSDs

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258
Q

In BIOS, the M.2 drive can be enabled by:

A

locating the drive in the PCI drive settings

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259
Q

To install an SSD in a desktop with a new OS image follow these steps:

A
  1. Be sure the desktop has room for another drive, a bay to hold the drive and a SATA connection on the motherboard, and a Molex cable to power the SSD
  2. Gather a new SSD, adapter bracket and, if necessary, SATA cable
  3. Mount the bracket into the spare drive bay. Attach the SATA cable and Molex power connector
  4. Boot the computer and enter the BIOS to set the boot drive to the USB flash with the new OS
  5. Upon reboot, enter the BIOS and set the boot order to boot from the new SSD with the OS
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260
Q

SSDs are available in these form factors:

A

mSATA

M.2

PCIe card

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261
Q

mSATA is used by:

A

some high-performance laptops and desktops

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262
Q

M.2 are used in:

A

some of the high-performance desktops and laptops but increasingly popular as prices drop

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263
Q

PCIe card are used for:

A

high-performance desktops

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264
Q

SSDs use one of two types of flash memory:

A

multilevel cell (MLC)

single-level cell (SLC)

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265
Q

Compare multilevel cell (MLC) to single-level cell (SLC);

A

lower performance the SLC

doesn’t support as many write cycles as SLC

less expensive per gigabyte than SLC

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266
Q

Why should SSDs not be defragmented?

A

Because unnecessary writing to flash memory causes premature failure

267
Q

Newer SSDs use a feature known as TRIM to:

A

automatically deallocate space used by deleted files and make it available for reuse

268
Q

When Windows 8/8.1/10 detects and SSD, it enables:

A

TRIM (if the drive supports this command)

disables defragment

disables other utilities that are designed for use with traditional hard disks

269
Q

M.2 is an SSD that can:

A

mount directly onto the motherboard or an expansion card, giving the drive more direct access to the CPU for much faster reading than is possible with an SSD

270
Q

A solid-state hybrid drive (SSHD) combines a:

A

solid-state cache with magnetic capacity

271
Q

A SSHD uses a:

A

memory manager to choose the most common files for the fast cache.

272
Q

Cost; Capacity; Speed; Reliability

HDD

A

Least expensive; Highest; Slowest due to moving parts and magnetic storage; Moving parts that can wear over time

273
Q

Cost; Capacity; Speed; Reliability

SSD

A

Most expensive but price is dropping; Lowest but improving; Fastest; no moving parts

274
Q

Cost; Capacity; Speed; Reliability

SSHD

A

Midrange; Blends high HDD capacity with fast SSD cache for most used files; Blends fast solid-state cache with slower magnetic storage; Moving parts that can wear out but spins less than HDD

275
Q

a Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) is a protocol that allows:

A

SSD data to bypass the bottleneck that happens with HDD infrastructure

276
Q

the protocol Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) uses:

A

a process called command queuing to send requested data to the controller and motherboard

277
Q

For the Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) to work:

A

the computer’s BIOS/UEFI and hardware needs to be designed for the high traffic, so only newer computers can physically support NVMe

278
Q

The speed at which hard disk media turns is called the:

A

spin rate

279
Q

The spin rate is measured in:

A

revolutions per minute (rpm)

280
Q

Low-performance hard disks typically spin at:

A

5400rpm

281
Q

Mid-performance hard disks spin at:

A

7200rpm

282
Q

High-performance hard disks spin at:

A

10000rpm

283
Q

RPM Typical Use; Desktop Drive Example; Laptop Drive Example

5400

A

“Green” power-saving drives; WD Blue Seagate 4TB Desktop; WD Blue Seagate Laptop HDD

284
Q

RPM Typical Use; Desktop Drive Example; Laptop Drive Example

7200

A

Midrange performance; WD Black Seagate Barracuda; WD Black Seagate Laptop Thin

285
Q

RPM Typical Use; Desktop Drive Example

A

High performance; WD VelociRaptor,

286
Q

RPM Typical Use; Desktop Drive Example

A

Servers and enterprise; Servers

287
Q

Internal hard disk drives for desktops capacities range:

A

up to 8TB but most installed desktop drives in recent systems have capacities ranging from 500GB to 2TB

288
Q

Internal hard disk drives for desktops use what form factor?

A

3.5-inch

289
Q

Internal hard disk drives or SSDs for laptops use what form factor?

A

SATA 2.5-inch

290
Q

Internal hard disk drives or SSDs for laptops capacities ranges:

A

up to 3TB, but most laptop drives in recent systems have capacities ranging from 500GB to 1TB

291
Q

In a hard disk, the cache is used to:

A

hold recently read information for reuse

292
Q

Processor cache memory enables:

A

the CPU to read cache memory instead of slower main memory to reuse previously read information

293
Q

Hard disks with larger buffers can:

A

reread recently transferred information more quickly from cache than from the drive’s magnetic storage

294
Q

A Hybrid drive combines:

A

a standard SATA hard disk with up to 8GB of the same type of solid-state (SS) memory used in SSDs

295
Q

In a hybrid drive, the SATA hard disk is used for:

A

most of the storage, but the recent files are kept in the SS cache for fast access

296
Q

Hybrid hard disk drives are available in which form factors?

A
  1. 5-inch

3. 5inch

297
Q

Flash memory is:

A

a type of memory that can retain its contents without electricity

298
Q

Flash memory has no:

A

moving parts, so it is very durable

299
Q

Standard flash memory is used in:

A

digital media players, memory cards for cameras and digital media devices, digital camcorders, and USB thumb drives

300
Q

What is flash memory to SSDs?

A

the type of memory the SSDs currently use

301
Q

A card reader enables:

A

flash memory cards to be used with a computer

302
Q

Most card readers assign a:

A

separate drive letter to each slot

303
Q

A common reason for adding storage is to:

A

create a fault-tolerant set of drives that will protect data in case a drive fails

304
Q

Redundant array of independent (or inexpensive) disks (RAID) is:

A

a method for creating a faster or safer single logical hard disk drive from two or more physical drives

305
Q

The most common RAID levels include:

A

RAID Level 0 (RAID 0)

RAID Level 1 (RAID 1)

RAID Level 5 (RAID 5)

RAID Level 1+0 (RAID 10)

306
Q

In RAID Level 0:

A

Two drives are treated as a single drive, and both drives are used to simultaneously store different portions of the same file

307
Q

RAID Level 0’s method of data storage is called:

A

striping

308
Q

Striping boosts:

A

performance, but if either drive fails, all data is lost

309
Q

In RAID Level 1:

A

two drives are treated as mirrors of each other, and changes to the contents of one drive are immediately reflected on other drive

310
Q

RAID Level 1’s method of data storage is called:

A

mirroring

311
Q

Mirroring provides:

A

a built-in backup method and provides faster read performance than a single drive

312
Q

RAID Level 1 is suitable for use with:

A

program and data drives

313
Q

In RAID Level 5:

A

Three or more drives are treated as a logical array, and parity information (used to recover data in the event of a drive failure) is spread across all drives in the array.

314
Q

RAID Level 5 is suitable for use with:

A

program and data drives

315
Q

In RAID Level 1+0 (RAID 10):

A

Four drives combine striping plus mirroring for extra speed plus better reliability

316
Q

RAID Level 1+0 (RAID 10) is suitable for use with:

A

program and data drives

317
Q

RAID Level 1+0 (RAID 10) is a:

A

striped set of mirrors

318
Q

Systems that lack the desired level of RAID support can use:

A

a RAID add-on card

319
Q

RAID Minimum # of Drives Required; Data Protection Features; Total Capacity of Array; Major Benefit over Single Drive; Notes

RAID 0

A

2; None; 2x capacity of either drive (if same size) or 2x capacity of smaller drive; Improved read/write performance; Also called striping

320
Q

RAID Minimum # of Drives Required; Data Protection Features; Total Capacity of Array; Major Benefit over Single Drive; Notes

RAID 1

A

2; Changes to contents of one drive immediately performed on other drive; Capacity of one drive (if same size) OR capacity of smaller drive; Automatic backup, faster read performance; Also called mirroring

321
Q

RAID Minimum # of Drives Required; Data Protection Features; Total Capacity of Array; Major Benefit over Single Drive; Notes

RAID 5

A

3; Parity information is saved across all drives; Capacity of smallest drive (where x equals the # of drives in the array; Full data redundancy in all drives; hot swap of damaged drive supported in most implementations

322
Q

RAID Minimum # of Drives Required; Data Protection Features; Total Capacity of Array; Major Benefit over Single Drive; Notes

RAID 10

A

4; Changes on one two-drive array are immediately performed on the other two-drive array; Capacity of smallest drive x number of drives/2; Improved read/write performance and automatic backup; Also called striped and mirrored

323
Q

A SATA RAID array requires:

A

Two or more drives (best to use same capacity, buffer size, and RPMs)

A RAID-compatible motherboard or add-on host adapter card

324
Q

RAID arrays must be connected to:

A

a motherboard or an add-on card that has RAID support

325
Q

If you are using the motherboard’s RAID interface:

A

start the system BIOS setup program and make sure the RAID function is enabled

326
Q

To add a RAID array to a laptop, 2in1, or all-in-one PC, use:

A

an external RAID drive or drive enclosure that connects to a USB 3.0 (or greater), Thunderbolt, or eSATA port

327
Q

Hot-swappable drives are drives that can:

A

be safely removed from a system or connected to a system without shutting down the system

328
Q

In Windows, the following drives can be hot-swapped:

A

USB drives

eSATA drives

SATA drives

Flash memory drives

329
Q

In most enterprise systems, the RAID drives are:

A

hot swappable

330
Q

To safely eject a hot-swappable drive from a Windows systems, follow these steps:

A
  1. Open the Eject/Safely Remove Hardware and Eject Media icon in the notification area
  2. Select the drive to eject from the menu
  3. When the Safe to Remove Hardware message appears, disconnect the drive
331
Q

To safely eject a USB drive in macOS, follow these steps:

A
  1. Open Finder
  2. Click the up arrow next to the USB drive icon in the left pane
  3. When the drive icon is removed from the left pane of Finder, disconnect the drive
332
Q

The Linux terminal command df can be used to:

A

list mounted devices

333
Q

If the USB drive is not listed as mounted on Linux it can be:

A

removed immediately

334
Q

In Linux if the USB drive is listed as mounted, you can use the following command:

A

sudo unmount /dev/sdb1 (Where sbd1 is the mounted USB drive)

335
Q

Form factor refers to:

A

the size, shape, and other specifications of a motherboard

336
Q

Computer chassis are designed to:

A

accommodate specific form factors

337
Q

An ATX motherboard has the following characteristics:

A

a rear port cluster for I/O ports

Expansion slots that run parallel to the short side of the motherboard

Left-side case opening

338
Q

There are three members of the ATX family:

A

ATX

mATX

mITX

339
Q

Motherboard Max Width; Max Depth; Max # of Expansion Slots; Typical Users

ATX

A

12 in; 9.6 in; 7; Full tower

340
Q

Motherboard Max Width; Max Depth; Max # of Expansion Slots; Typical Users

mATX

A

9.6 in; 9.6 in; 4; Mini tower

341
Q

Motherboard Max Width; Max Depth; Max # of Expansion Slots; Typical Users

mITX

A

6.7 in; 6.7 in; 1; Mini tower

342
Q

Motherboards use expansion slots to provide:

A

support for additional input/output (I/O) devices and high-speed video/graphics cards

343
Q

The most common expansion slots are:

A

PCI Express (also known as PCIe)

344
Q

A PCI slot mounts to the:

A

motherboard

345
Q

A PCI slot is used for:

A

many types of add-on cards, including network, video, audio, I/O, and storage host adapters for SATA drives

346
Q

PCI-X is a:

A

faster version of 64-bit PCI, running at speeds of 133MHz

347
Q

A PCI-X bus supports:

A

two PCI-X slots, but if you install a PCI-X card into a PCI-X slot on the same bus as a PCI card, the PCI-X card runs at the same speed as the PCI card

348
Q

PCI-X slots are typically used in:

A

servers and workstations

349
Q

PCI slots found in desktop compuers is:

A

the 32-bit slot running at 33MHz

350
Q

PCI-X 2.0 supports speeds of:

A

266MHz

533MHz

351
Q

PCI Express (PCIe) slots are available in four types:

A

x1

x4

x8

x16

352
Q

PCI Express (PCIe) x1 and x4 slots were designed to replace:

A

the PCI slot

353
Q

PCI Express (PCIe) x8 and x16 slots were designed to replace:

A

the AGP and PCI-X slots

354
Q

Riser cards are used to:

A

work around limited space in some systems

355
Q

Riser cards can make:

A

multiple ports available from a single slot bracket or slot, or they can enable full-size cards to be mounted horizontally in low-profile systems

356
Q

What are the differences between Intel and AMD processors?

A

Different processor sockets

Differences in multicore processor designs

Cache sizes

357
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 775

A

Intel; Prescott, Presler, Conroe, Wolfdale, Kentsfield, Yorkfield

358
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 1366

A

Intel; Bloomfield, Gulftown

359
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 1156

A

Intel; Clarkdale, Lynnfield

360
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 1155

A

Intel; Sandy Bridge, Ivy Bridge

361
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 1150

A

Intel; Haswell, Broadwell

362
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 2011

A

Intel; Sandy Bridge E, Ivy Bridge E

363
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 2011-v3

A

Intel; Haswell E

364
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket AM3

A

AMD; Thuban, Zosma, Deneb, Propus, Heka, Rana, Callisto, Regor, Sargas

365
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket AM3+

A

AMD; Vishera, Zembezi

366
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket FM1

A

AMD; Llano

367
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket FM2

A

AMD; Trinity, Richland

368
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket FM2+

A

AMD; Kaveri

369
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 1151

A

Intel; Skylake, Kaby Lake, Coffee Lake

370
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

LGA 2066

A

Intel; Skylake-X, Kaby Lake-X

371
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket AM4

A

AMD; Ryzen 7, 5, 3

372
Q

Socket CPU Manufacturer; Compatible Processor Code Name(s)

Socket TR4

A

AMD; Ryzen Threadripper

373
Q

All of the Intel processor sockets use what design?

A

Land Grid Array (LGA)

374
Q

The Land Grid Array (LGA) design uses:

A

spring-loaded lands in the processor socket that connect to bumps on the backside of the processor

375
Q

Processor code names refer to differences in the processor die design such as:

A

the size of the processor

location of cache memory

type of integrated memory controller

376
Q

Starting with the Core i series and its offshoots, the ranking goes like this:

A

Celeron (slowest)

Pentium

Core i3

Core i5

Core i7 (fastest)

377
Q

All AMD sockets use the:

A

micro Pin Grid Array (mPGA) design and have integrated memory controllers

378
Q

the micro Pin Grid Array (mPGA) design uses:

A

pins on the backside of the CPU to connect to pins in the processor socket

379
Q

To hold the CPU in place with the mPGA design a:

A

zero insertion force (ZIF) socket mechanism is used

380
Q

Socket AM3 supports:

A

processors with dual-channel DDR3 or DDR2 memory controllers onboard

381
Q

Desktop processors using Socket AM3 range in speed from:

A

as low as 1.8Ghz to as high as 3.7GHz

382
Q

The motherboard’s Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) connectors replaced:

A

IDE connectors, which were ribbon-like cables that were slower and more cumbersome and that needed to be assigned priority to hard drives

383
Q

An Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface connects:

A

the motherboard to drives like CD-ROM/DVD or a hard drive

384
Q

Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface uses:

A

a ribbon cable that connects two devices with one cable

385
Q

Typical motherboards feature one or more audio connectors designed for different purposes:

A

Front/top-panel audio

Music CD playback from optical drives

SPDIF header

386
Q

Because front-panel leads are small and difficult to install, some motherboard vendors provide:

A

a quick-connect extender for easier installation

387
Q

The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is an:

A

essential component of the motherboard

388
Q

The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is also known as:

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

389
Q

The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is the first:

A

code run by a computer when it is booted

390
Q

If any error occurs during bootup, the BIOS/UEFI will report it as part of:

A

the testing stage, known as the power-on self-test (POST)

391
Q

The BIOS/UEFI resides on:

A

a ROM chip and stores a setup program that you can access when the computer first boots up

392
Q

The changes to the BIOS are made using:

A

the BIOS setup program and then saved to the complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) chip on the motherboard

393
Q

The BIOS configuration program is stored in the:

A

BIOS chip itself

394
Q

How do you access the BIOS program menu?

A

Just press the key or key combination displayed onscreen (or described in the manual) when the system starts booting

395
Q

Compared to a traditional flash ROM, BIOS/UEFI has the following advantages:

A

Support for hard drives of 2.2TB and higher capacity

Faster system startup (booting) and other organizations

Larger-size ROM chips used by UEFI make room for additional features, better diagnostics, the ability to open a shell environment for easy flash updates, and the ability to save multiple BIOS configurations for reuse

396
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Boot Sequence

A

Hard drive, optical, USB, network ROM, order as wanted; To boot from bootable OS or diagnostic CDs or DVDs, place the CD or DVD drive before the hard drive in the boot sequence

397
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Memory Configuration

A

By SPD or Auto (default); manual settings, Fast R-2R turnaround, and so on; Provides stable operation using the settings stores in memory by the vendor

398
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

CPU Clock and Frequency

A

Automatically detected on most recent systems; Faster or higher settings overclock the system but could cause instability

399
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Hardware Monitor

A

Enable display for all fans plugged into the motherboard; Also known as PC Health on some systems, can be monitors from with the OS with vendor-supplied or 3rd-party utilities

400
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Onboard Audio, Modem, or Network

A

Enable or disable; Enable when you don’t use add-on cards for any of these functions, disable each setting before installing a replacement card. Some systems include two network adapters

401
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

USB Legacy

A

Enable when USB keyboard is used; Enables USB keyboard to work outside the OS

402
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Serial Ports

A

Disable unused ports, use default settings for port you use; Also known as COM ports. Most systems no longer have serial ports

403
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Parallel Port

A

Disable unused port, use EPP/ECP mode with default IRQ/DMA when parallel port or device is connected; Compatible with almost any parallel printer or device

404
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

USB Function

A

Enable; When motherboard supports USB 2.0 (Hi-Speed USB) ports, be sure to enable USB 2.0 function and load USB 2.0 drivers in the OS

405
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Keyboard

A

NumLock, auto-repeat rate/delay; Leave at defaults (NumLock On) unless keyboard has problems

406
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Plug-and-Play OS

A

Enable for all except some Linux distributions; When enabled, Windows configures devices

407
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Primary VGA BIOS

A

Varies; Select the primary graphics card type (PCIe or onboard)

408
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Shadowing

A

Varies; Select the primary graphics card type

409
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Quiet Boot

A

Varies; Disable to display system configuration information at startup

410
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Boot-Time Diagnostic Screen

A

Varies; Enable to display system configuration information

411
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Virtualization

A

Varies; Enable to run hardware-based virtualization programs such as Hyper-V or Parallels so that you can run multiple OS, each in its own window

412
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Power Management (Menu)

A

Enable unless you have problem with devices; Enable CPU fan settings to receive warnings of CPU fan failure

413
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

S1 or S3 standby

A

Enable S3; Use S1 (which saves minimal power) only when you use devices that do not properly wake up from S3 standby

414
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

AC Pwr Loss Restart

A

Enable restart or full on; Prevents the system from staying down when a power failure takes place

415
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Wake on LAN (WOL)

A

Enable when you use WOL-compatible network card or modem; WOL-compatible cards use a small cable between the card and the motherboard. Some integrated network ports also support WOL

416
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

User/Power-On Password

A

Blocks system from starting when password is not known; Enable when physical security settings are needed but be sure to record the password in a secure place

417
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Setup Password

A

Blocks access to setup when password is not known; Both passwords can be cleared on both systems when CMOS RAM is cleared

418
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Write-Protect Boot Sector

A

Varies; Enable for normal use, but disable when installing drives or using multiboot system

419
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

Boot Virus Detection

A

Enable; Stops true infections but allows multiboot configuration

420
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

SATA Drives

A

Varies; Auto-detects drive type and settings at startup time

421
Q

Major CMOS/BIOS/UEFI Settings; Notes

SATA Drive Configuration

A

IDE, AHCI, RAID; IDE setting emulates now-obsolete PATA drives

422
Q

Many BIOS firmware versions enable you to automatically configure your system with a choice of these options from the main menu:

A

BIOS defaults

Setup defaults

423
Q

Enabling Fast Boot skips:

A

memory and drive tests to enable faster startup

424
Q

Enabling Boot Up NumLock turns on:

A

the keyboard’s NumLock option

425
Q

General steps to locate a flash BIOS update to install it:

A
  1. For major brands of computer, go to the vendor’s website and look for “downloads” or “tech support” links
  2. Locate the correct BIOS update for your system or motherboard
  3. Determine the installation media needed to install the BIOS image
  4. Be sure to download all files needed to install the BIOS image
  5. If you need to create bootable media, follow the vendor’s instructions to create the media and place the loader and BIOS image files on the media
  6. Installation
    6a. To install from a bootable media, make sure the drive is the first item in the BIOS boot sequence
    6b. For installation from Windows, close all Windows programs before starting the update process. Navigate to the folder containing the BIOS update and double-click it to start the update process
  7. Remove the media and restart the system to use your new BIOS features
426
Q

If the primary system BIOS is damaged, keep in mind that some motherboards venders offer:

A

dual BIOS chips on some products

427
Q

A flash recover jumper is when:

A

the BIOS contains a “mini-BIOS” that can be reinstalled from a reserved part of the chip

428
Q

To update a BIOS on a system with a write-protected jumper, you must follow these steps:

A
  1. Disable the write protection
  2. Perform the update
  3. Reenable the write protection to keep unauthorized people from changing the BIOS
429
Q

Security features of various types are scattered around the typical system BIOS/UEFI dialogs. Features and their locations vary by system and might include:

A

BIOS password

Power-on password

Chassis intrusion

Boot sector protection

430
Q

These features support drive encryption:

A

Trusted platform module (TPM)

LoJack for laptops

Secure Boot

431
Q

The power-on password option in the BIOS prevents:

A

anyone without the password from starting the system

432
Q

When intrusion detection/notification, also known as chassis intrusion, is enabled the BIOS displays:

A

a warning on startup that the system has been opened

433
Q

The boot sector protection option in the BIOS protects:

A

the default system drive’s boot sector from being changed by viruses or other unwanted programs

434
Q

The BIOS password option in the BIOS permits:

A

access to BIOS setup dialogs only for those with the password

435
Q

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) protects:

A

the contents of any specified drive

436
Q

Lojack consists of two components:

A

a BIOS-resident component

the Computrace Agent, which is activated by LoJack when a computer is reported as stolen

437
Q

Secure Boot blocks:

A

installation of other OS and also requires the user to access UEFI setup by restarting the computer in a special troubleshooting mode from within Windows 8 or later

438
Q

Use the SATA configuration options to enable or disable:

A

SATA and eSATA ports and to configure SATA host adapters to run in compatible (emulating PATA, native (AHCI) or RAID modes

439
Q

AHCI supports:

A

native command queuing (NCQ) for faster performance and permits hot swapping of eSATA drives

440
Q

The CMOS battery provides:

A

power to maintain the contents of the CMOS chip

441
Q

a low CMOS battery can cause:

A

problems with drivers and sometimes booting

442
Q

To clear CMOS on most systems:

A

place a jumper block over two jumper cables

443
Q

A processing core is the part of the CPU that:

A

gets instructions from software and performs the calculations for output

444
Q

Two or more physical processors in a system enable:

A

it to perform much faster when multitasking or running multithreaded applications

445
Q

Multicore processors provide:

A

virtually all the benefits of multiple physical processors and are lower in cost and work with any operation system that supports traditional single-core processors

446
Q

Virtualization technology enables:

A

a host program (known as a hypervisor) or a host operating system to support one or more guest operating systems running at the same time in different windows on the host’s desktop

447
Q

Hardware-assisted virtualization enables:

A

virtualized operating systems and applications to run faster and user fewer system resources

448
Q

Hyperthreading technology enables:

A

processing two execution threads within a single processor core

449
Q

The term bus speeds refers to:

A

the speeds at which different buses in the motherboard connect to the different components

450
Q

On a motherboard, the bus is:

A

the path data takes between the internal components of the computer

451
Q

Overclocking refers to:

A

the practice of running a processor or other components, such as memory or the video card’s GPU, at speeds higher than normal

452
Q

Overclocking methods used for processors include:

A

increasing the clock multiplier or running the front side bus (FSB) at speeds faster than normal

453
Q

Increasing the front side bus (FSB) can lead to:

A

greater system instability than changing the clock multipliers

454
Q

What are the cost of Overclocking?

A

Excessive heat can cause problems with the CPU and shorten its life, so it is not a good idea for critical tasks

455
Q

To monitor system clock and bus speed settings, check:

A

the processor and memory configuration dialog typically available on gaming-oriented systems or others designed for overclocking

456
Q

Intel uses three different names to refer to its processor-integrated graphics:

A

HD Graphics refers to base-level 3D graphics in any given processor family

Intel Iris Plus Graphics 655

Intel UHD Graphics 630

457
Q

In the Pin Grid Array (PGA) form factor:

A

the contact pins that insert into the socket are mounted to the CPU itself

458
Q

The basic requirements for proper CPU cooling include:

A

the use of an appropriate active heat sink (which includes a fan)

the application of an appropriate thermal material (grease, paste, or pre-applied thermal or phase-change compound

459
Q

A traditional active heat sinks includes:

A

a cooling fan that rests on top of the heat sink and pulls air past the heat sink in a vertical direction

460
Q

A passive heat sink does not include:

A

a fan but has more fins than an active heat sink to help dissipate heat

461
Q

One typical use for fanless heat sinks is on:

A

low-power processors that are soldered in place on Mini-ITX or similar small form factor motherboard designs

462
Q

Every processor requires a:

A

heat sink

463
Q

A heat sink is a:

A

finned metal device that radiates heat away from the processor

464
Q

What the been the most common material used for heat sinks?

A

Aluminum

465
Q

What is better material than aluminum for heat sinks?

A

Copper because it has better thermal transfer properties, and many designs mix copper and aluminum components

466
Q

Before installing a heat sink bundled with a processor, remove:

A

the protective cover over the pre-applied thermal material (also known as phase-change material) on the sink

467
Q

Before you remove a heat sink, be sure to remove all:

A

residue from both the processor and heat sink using isopropyl alcohol and apply new thermal paste or other thermal transfer material to the top of the CPU

468
Q

A liquid cooling system involves:

A

attaching a liquid cooling unit instead of an active heat sink to the processor and other supported components

469
Q

In a liquid cooling system, a pump:

A

moves the liquid through the computer to a heat exchanger, which uses a fan to cool the warm liquid before it is sent back to the process

470
Q

Liquid cooling systems are designed primarily for:

A

high-performance systems, especially overclocked systems

471
Q

A good video card has a:

A

separate processing chip and a cooling system that takes the load of CPU and frees up space for the CPU to run more efficiently

472
Q

The installation process for a video card includes three phases:

A
  1. Configuring the BIOS for the video card being installed
  2. Physically installing the video card
  3. Installing drivers for the video card
473
Q

Video cards interact differently depending on:

A

the motherboard and BIOS settings

474
Q

When adding a video card, it may be necessary to enter BIOS to:

A

disable the onboard video, and some other systems allow both video systems to interact for better efficiency

475
Q

These are the basic steps for BIOS configuration for video cards:

A
  1. Check and adjust the primary VGA BIOS setting as needed
  2. Choose PCIE or PCIE>PCI if you use a PCIe video card
  3. Choose PCI or PCI>PCIe if you use a PCI video card
476
Q

To delete an old video driver in Windows:

A

open Control Panel

click Device Manager and delete the listing for the current video card

select Uninstall a Program

uninstall the driver or configuration apps used by the current video card

477
Q

Follow these steps to remove an old video card (if present):

A
  1. Shut down the computer and disconnect it from AC power
  2. Turn off the display
  3. Disconnect the data cable attached to the video card
  4. Open the case
  5. Disconnect any power cables running to the video card
  6. Remove SLI (NVIDIA) or CrossFire (AMD) cables connected to any card(s) you are removing
  7. Remove the old video card(s) by removing the screw holding a card bracket in place and releasing the card-retention mechanism that holds video card in place
478
Q

Follow these steps to install the new video card:

A
  1. Insert the new video card into a PCIe x16 slot
  2. Lock the card into position with the card retention mechanism and with the screw for the card bracket
  3. If the card uses power, connect the appropriate PCIe power connector to the card
  4. If the card is running in multi-GPU mode and uses SLI or CrossFire, connect the appropriate bridge cable between the new card and a compatible existing card in the system
  5. Reattach the data cable from the display to the new video card
479
Q

Driver installation takes place when the system is restarted:

A
  1. Turn on the display
  2. Reconnect power to the system and turn on the computer
  3. Provide drivers as requested; you might need to run an installer program for the drivers
  4. If the monitor is not detected as a Plug and Play monitor but as a default monitor, install a driver for the monitor
480
Q

Before installing a sound card, be sure to:

A

disable onboard audio with the system BIOS setup program and uninstall any proprietary mixer or configuration apps used by onboard audio

481
Q

To install a sound card, follow these steps:

A
  1. Shut down the computer and disconnect it from AC power
  2. Open the case to gain access to the PC’s expansion slots
  3. Select an empty PCIe or PCI expansion slot that is appropriate for the form factor of the sound card to be installed
  4. Remove the corresponding bracket from the back of the case
  5. Insert the card into the slot
  6. Secure the card bracket into place, using the screw or locking mechanism removed in step 4
  7. Connect any header cables as needed
  8. Connect speakers, microphone, and line-in and line-out cables as needed to support your audio or home theater subsystem
  9. Close the system
  10. Reconnect AC power and restart the system
  11. Install the driver files provided with the sound card or install updated versions provided by the vendor
  12. If not already installed in Step 11, install the mixer and configuration utilities provided with the new sound card
482
Q

To install a USB audio device, follow these steps:

A
  1. Turn off the computer
  2. Connect the USB audio device to the computer’s USB 2.0 or USB 3.0
  3. Turn on the computer and then turn on the device. The computer installs audio drivers automatically
  4. Install additional or updated drivers downloaded from the vendor’s website or provided with the device, if needed
483
Q

To configure a sound card, onboard audio, or USB audio with Windows:

A
  1. Type Sound settings in the search box
  2. Select the Sounds icon in Control Panel
  3. Select the Playback tab and adjust the settings
  4. Select the Recording tab and adjust the settings
  5. To specify sounds to play during Windows events (startup, shutdown, errors, and program events), use the Sounds tab
  6. Click Apply and then click OK to accept changes
484
Q

To configure a sound card, onboard audio, or USB audio with macOS:

A
  1. Open the Apple menu
  2. Open the System Preferences
  3. Select the Sound icon
  4. Select the Output tab
  5. Select the device to use for sound output
  6. Adjust the balance and volume and then close the window
485
Q

To configure a sound card, onboard audio, or USB audio with Linux:

A
  1. Open System Settings
  2. Open Sound
  3. Select the Output tab
  4. Select the device to use for sound output
  5. Adjust the balance and volume
  6. Select the speaker mode (stereo or surround options)
  7. Click Test Sound to verify proper operation
  8. Close the window to save the changes
486
Q

To install a Plug and Play (PnP) network card, follow these steps:

A
  1. Shut down the computer, disconnect it from AC power, and remove the case cover
  2. Locate an available expansion slot that matches the network card’s design
  3. Remove the slot cover and insert the card into the slot
  4. Reconnect power to the system, restart the system, and provide drivers when requested by the system
  5. If prompted to install network drivers and clients, insert the operating system disc
  6. Connect the network cable to the card
  7. Test for connectivity and then close the computer case
487
Q

Adding a USB 3.2 card is a quick way to upgrade a system with a spare PCIe slot but no USB 3.2 ports so it can connect to external storage devices at full speed. Here’s how:

A
  1. Shut down the computer, disconnect it from AC power, and remove the case cover
  2. Locate an available PCIe or wider expansion slot
  3. Remove the slot cover and insert the card into the slot. Secure the card in the slot
  4. Connect power to the card
  5. Reconnect power to the system, restart the system, and provide drivers when requested by the system
  6. Connect a USB device to the card
  7. After verifying that the device works, close the case
488
Q

The vast majority of desktop and laptop computers in use rely on the Serial ATA (SATA) interface to:

A

connect to internal hard disk drives, SSDs, and optical drives

489
Q

Location; Interface Speeds, Also Known As; Drive Types Supported

eSATA

A

External; 1.5Gbps, 3Gbps; 6Gbps; —; Hard disk drives, SSDs

490
Q

Location; Interface Speeds, Also Known As; Drive Types Supported

SATA1

A

Internal; 1.5Gbps; SATA 1.5Gbps, SATA Revision 1.0; Hard disk drives, optical drives, RAID arrays, SSDs

491
Q

Location; Interface Speeds, Also Known As; Drive Types Supported

SATA2

A

Internal; 3Gbps; SATA 3Gbps, SATA Revision 2.0; Hard disk drives, optical drives, RAID arrays, SSDs

492
Q

Location; Interface Speeds, Also Known As; Drive Types Supported

SATA3

A

Internal; 6Gbps; SATA 6Gbps, Revision 3.0; Hard disk drives, RAID arrays, SSDs, backward compatible with SATA1, SATA2

493
Q

Laser printers are common in:

A

businesses

494
Q

Inkjet printers are common in:

A

homes

495
Q

Automatic document feeder (ADF) scanners are use to:

A

create digital documents from printed documents

496
Q

An automatic document feeder (ADF) scanner can:

A

process a stack of several documents automatically

497
Q

Flat-bed scanner can process:

A

one sheet at a time

498
Q

Some scanners use OCR technology, which:

A

scan to a .pdf file, which then becomes searchable data

499
Q

Scanners for documents and photos are available in the following form factors:

A

Almost every multifunction print/scan/fax/copy device includes a flatbed scanner with resolution up to 2,400dpi

Scanners made for photos typically support resolutions up to 4,800dpi or greater

Scanners made for travel scan a single sheet at a tie and might weigh as little as 1 pound

500
Q

Barcode readers and QR scanners are used:

A

in variety of point-of-sale (POS) retail, library, industrial, medical, and other environments to track inventory

501
Q

A barcode reader uses one of the following technologies:

A

Pen-based readers use a pen-shaped device that includes a light source and photo diode in the tip

Laser scanners are commonly used in grocery and big-box stores

CCD or CMOS readers use a hand-held gun-shaped device to hold an array of light sensors mounted in a row

Camera-based readers contain many rows of CCD sensors that generate an image of the sensor that is processed to decode the barcode information

502
Q

Quick response (QR) codes are:

A

a special type of barcode that are two dimensional and can be read by a scanner on a mobile phone

503
Q

Monitors are used to:

A

display the output of data and video information

504
Q

The immersion effect provided by a VR experience is usually:

A

delivered via a head-mounted device (HMD) that covers the eyes, closing off the external world

505
Q

The head-mounted device (HMD) can monitor:

A

head movements, and a special gaming glove can add hand inputs, so the user can move around the 3D environment

506
Q

A computer mouse is:

A

device that moves the cursor on a display screen, allowing the user to interact with the computer

507
Q

To pair a Bluetooth mouse computer from the desktop:

A
  1. Click the Bluetooth icon in the taskbar
  2. Click Open Settings
  3. Enable Discovery
  4. Enable Allow Bluetooth Devices to Connect to This Computer
  5. Open the Bluetooth icon in the taskbar and click Add a Device
  6. Press the Connect button on the mouse
  7. Select the mouse from the list of Bluetooth devices and click Next
  8. After the mouse is detected and the drivers have been installed, click Close
  9. To prevent connections from unauthorized Bluetooth devices, disable discover until the next time you want to add a Bluetooth device
508
Q

Keyboards are part of the:

A

human interface device (HID) category in Device Manager, and Windows installs HID drivers after a keyboard is connected

509
Q

Touchpads perform most:

A

of the functions of a mouse, with finger motions across the pad guiding the cursor

510
Q

Signature pads are used in:

A

banking, medical, retail, and other environments where signature verification is required

511
Q

Game controllers are usually:

A

handheld devices used to control the interaction with a game on the computer

512
Q

Game controllers include:

A

joysticks

keyboards

mice

controllers controlled by feet for exercise or in-flight games

513
Q

To find the microphone volume control in macOS:

A

open System preferences> Sound> Input

514
Q

To find the microphone volume control in Linux:

A

open System Settings> Sound> Input

515
Q

To install a microphone on a PC with a sound card or integrated audio, follow this procedure:

A
  1. Connect the microphone to the microphone jack, which is marked with a pink ring or a microphone icon
  2. If you see a dialog that asks you to confirm the device you have plugged into the microphone jack, select Microphone from the list of devices
  3. If the microphone has an on/off switch, make sure the microphone is turned on
516
Q

To verify that the microphone is working in Windows, follow this procedure:

A
  1. Open the Sounds icon in Control Panel
  2. Click the Recording tab
  3. Make sure the microphone you installed is enabled and selected as the default device
  4. Click Configure
  5. In the Speech Recognition menu that opens, click Set Up Microphone
  6. Select the microphone type, and click Next
  7. Adjust the microphone position and click Next
  8. Read the onscreen text when prompted and click Next when finished

Click Finish

517
Q

You can connect speakers to a computer in several ways:

A

3.5mm speaker mini-jack

SPDIF digital audio port

Proprietary sound card header cable

HDMI digital A/V port

USB surround audio external device

518
Q

To use a digital speaker or audio output in Windows follow these steps:

A
  1. Click or tap Hardware and Sound
  2. In the Sound category, click or tap Manage Audio Devices
  3. Click or tap a playback device on the Playback tab
  4. To make the selected device your default, click or tap Set Default
  5. Click Apply and then click OK to use your new selection
519
Q

The brightness of an LCD display is measured in:

A

candelas per square meter (cd/m^2) sometimes referred to as “nits”

520
Q

The brightness of a projector is measured in:

A

lumens

521
Q

A keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) switch enables:

A

a single keyboard, display, and mouse to support two or more computers

522
Q

keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) switches are popular in:

A

server rooms and are also useful in tech support environments

523
Q

The simplest KVM switch is a:

A

bow with input connectors for USB or PS/2 mouse and keyboard and VGA or other display and two or more sets of cables leading to the corresponding I/O ports and video ports on the computers that will be hosted

524
Q

KVM switches for server rooms and data centers are known as:

A

local remote KVM and typically use CAT5 or higher-quality cables to run to special interface devices on each server

525
Q

To install a KVM switch, follow this procedure:

A
  1. Shut down the computers and display
  2. Connect the keyboard and mouse and other shared connectors (such as speakers) to the KVM switch
  3. Connect the KVM switch to the computers
  4. Start the computers
  5. Install drivers, if necessary
526
Q

The chip on a chip cards adds:

A

a layer of authentication not provided by a magnetic stripe

527
Q

Near field communication (NFC) enables:

A

two devices to wirelessly talk to each other when they’re close together

528
Q

The power supply is so named because:

A

it converts power from high-voltage alternating current (AC) to low voltage direct current (DC)

529
Q

Power supply capacity is rated in:

A

watts

530
Q

Most power supplies are designed to handle two different voltage ranges:

A

115-120V/60Hz

220-240V/50Hz

(These are known as dual voltage)

531
Q

Almost all power supplies sold today have:

A

a 24-pin connector

532
Q

the 24-pin power connector is used by recent:

A

ATX/microATX/Mini-ITX motherboards requiring the ATX12V 2.2 power supply standard

533
Q

Most motherboards, use power supplies that feature several additional connectors to supply added power,, as follows:

A

Some high-voltage power supplies with 20-pin connectors might also include a 20-pin to 24-pin adapter

The four-wire square ATX12V connector provides additional 12V power to the motherboard

Most recent power supplies use the 4/8 pin + 12V (EPS12V) connector instead of the ATX12V power connector

Some very old motherboards use a 6-wire AUX connector to provide additional power

534
Q

The power supply also powers various peripherals, such as:

A

Hard disks and CD/DVD/BD optical drives

Case fans that do not plug into the motherboard and that use a 4-pin Molex power connector

An L-shaped 15-pin thinline power connector for Serial ATA (SATA) hard disks

A PCI Express 6-pin or 8-pin power cable (PCIe 6/8-pin) for high-performance PCI Express x16 video cards that require additional 12V power

535
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

Molex

A

Yes; Yes; No; Used today primarily for case fans that do not connect to the motherboard or that can be adapted to SATA drives

536
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

Berg

A

Yes; Yes; No; Some add-on cards use this connector for power

537
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

SATA

A

Yes; Yes; Optional; Use Molex to SATA power connector if power supply lacks adequate SATA connectors

538
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

PCIe 6-pin

A

No; Yes; No; Midrange PCIe video cards

539
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

PCIe 8-pin

A

No; Yes; No; High-performance PCIe video cards

540
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

ATX12V

A

No; Yes; No; Most recent and current motherboards except those use EPS12V

541
Q

Power Levels for Different Connector Types:

+5V; +12V; +3.3V; Notes

EPS12V

A

No; Yes; No; Split into two ATX12V-compatible sections

542
Q

If your power supply doesn’t have enough connectors, you can add:

A

Y-splitters to divide one power lead into two, but these splitters can short out and can also reduce the efficiency of the power supply

543
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Red

A

+5V

544
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Yellow

A

+12V

545
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Orange

A

+3.3V

546
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Black

A

Ground (earth)

547
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Purple

A

+5V (standby)

548
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Green

A

PS-On

549
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Gray

A

Power good

550
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

White

A

No connection (24-pin); -5V (20-pin)

551
Q

Standard power supply wires are color-coded thus:

Blue

A

-12V

552
Q

If your wattage calculations or your test agree that it’s time to replace a power supply, make sure the replacement meets the following criteria:

A

Has the same power supply connectors and the same pinout as the original

Has the same form factor (shape, size, and switch location) as the original

Has the same or higher wattage rating as the original; a higher wattage rating is highly desirable

Supports any special features required by your CPU, video card, and motherboard

553
Q

When replacing a power supply, make sure:

A

the new one is robust enough to handle any extra work from upgrades in the past or planned upgrades in the future

554
Q

Power supplies are best:

A

in the middle of their wattage range, and a PC that is underpowered can have many problems that are difficult to diagnose

555
Q

To determine the wattage rating needed for a replacement power supply:

A

add up the wattage ratings for everything connected to your computer that uses power supply. If the total wattage used exceeds 70% of the wattage rating you should upgrade to a larger power supply

556
Q

If you have amperage ratings instead or wattage ratings:

A

multiply the amperage by the volts to determine wattage

557
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Multicore processor

A

Fast rendering of 3D or 2D graphics; 4.0GHz or faster, six cores or more, large cache (8MB or more total cache), 64-bit support; Fastest multicore CPUs available from Intel or AMD

558
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

High-end video

A

Faster rendering of 3D or 2D graphics on applications that support GPU acceleration (AutoCAD, Photoshop CC, and others); PCIe CAD/CAM or 3D cards with 2GB or more RAM optimized for OpenGL 4.x, DirectX 11 or 12, support two or more displays; Fastest GPUs available from AMD or NVIDIA, More GPU RAM provides faster performance when rendering large 3d objects

559
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Maximum RAM

A

Reduces swapping to disk during editing or rendering; 16GB or more DDR3 or DDR4, Use matched memory modules running in multichannel configurations; System should be running 64-bit version of the OS

560
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Specialized audio card

A

higher sampling rates and higher signal-to-noise ratios for better audio quality; 24-bit, 192KHz or better audio performance; upgradable operational amplifier sockets, PCIe interface; PCIe interface is preferred because it is faster than PCI

561
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Specialized video card

A

Faster performance when rendering video; No recommendations; Fastest GPUs on market, HDMI, DisplayPort, or DVI interfaces

562
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Large, fast hard drive, SSD if possible

A

Faster writes during saves, faster retrieval of source material during media editing and creation; No recommendations; If an SSD is used as the main drive, use a fast hard disk drive or hybrid drive for temporary files

563
Q

Graphic CAD/CAM Design Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Dual monitors

A

Editing software menus and playback can be on separate screens, Can render and edit while using secondary display for other applications; 27-inch or larger from many vendors; HDMI or DisplayPort, interfaces recommended, DVI acceptable, avoid VGA-only displays

564
Q

AMD, Intel, Microsoft, and third-party vendors provide various tools to help determine details about a processor, including whether a system supports hardware-assisted virtualization:

A

AMD Virtualization Technology and Microsoft Hyper-V System Compatibility Check Utility

CPU-Z

Intel Processor Identification Utility

Microsoft Windows Hardware-Assisted Virtualization Detection Tool

Gibson Research Corporation’s SecurAble

565
Q

Virtualization Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Maximum RAM

A

By increasing RAM well above the recommended level for a system running a single OS you help ensure sufficient RAM for each VM in use; 16GB or more RAM (64-bit system); Systems running 32-bit versions of Windows cannot use more than 4GB of RAM

566
Q

Virtualization Workstation Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Maximum CPU cores

A

Multiple VMs use more execution threads than a single operation system, so a multicore CPU helps VMs perform better; 3.0GHz or faster, 6-8 cores or more, 8MB or more total cache, 64-bit support; Fastest and most powerful Intel or AMD CPU

567
Q

Gaming PC Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

SSD

A

so much faster performance than HDD; no recommendations; 2TB SSD available in both M.2 and SATA SSD

568
Q

Gaming PC Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Power processor

A

High performance for maximum frame rates, 3D rendering, and audio performance on games where CPU performance is most significant factor; 4GHz or faster, six cores or more, 8MB or more total cache, 64-bit support; Although multicore CPUs are also the fastest CPUs available from Intel and AMD, many games are not yet optimized for multicore processors

569
Q

Gaming PC Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

High-end video/ specialized GPU

A

High performance for maximum frame rates in 3D rendering where GPU performance is most significant; PCIe 3D cards with 2GB or more RAM optimized for OpenGL 4.x, DirectX 11, support for two or more displays; Fastest available GPUs available from AMD and NVIDIA

570
Q

Gaming PC Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

Better sound card

A

5.1 or 7.1 surround audio for realistic, high-performance 3D audio rendering; 24-bit, 96KHz or better audio performance, PCIe interface, hardware acceleration; PCIe sound cards provide faster performance than PCI sound cards

571
Q

Gaming PC Features

Benefits; Recommendations; Notes

High-end cooling

A

Overclocking is common to reach highest system speeds, overclocked systems can overheat if OEM cooling is not supplemented or replaced by more powerful cooling solutions, Heat-pipe based CPU cooler for fan or liquid cooling, heat sinks on RAM, dual-slot video card with high-performance cooler, all optional fan bays on chassis equipped with fans; Be sure to verify compatibility with CPU, clearance around CPU socket, and power requirements for a particular system

572
Q

Network-attached storage (NAS) us an:

A

inhouse backup and storage solution that consists of a storage server with multiple drive bays that hold large hard drives that are accessible on a network

573
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

Number of hard drive disks

A

1 SSD; 2SSDs; 2-8SSDs

574
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

Network medium

A

Wired/wireless; Wired; Wired/Gigabit NIC

575
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

Connection

A

SATA/Ethernet/USB 3.0; Ethernet/USB 3.0; Ethernet/USB 3.0

576
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

RAM

A

8GB; 16GB; 32GB ECC

577
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

Processor

A

Multicore 64-bit; Multicore 64-bit; Multicore 64-bit

578
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

RAID

A

Not required; Recommended; Yes

579
Q

NAS Requirements

Personal; Home Media Streaming; Business

Gigabit NIC

A

Not required; Recommended; Yes

580
Q

Standard Thick Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Desktop applications

A

Perform a broad range of office procedures (word processing, spreadsheets, presentations, database, email, and calendaring); Current versions of Microsoft Offices, OpenOffice or WordPerfect Office; For maximum compatibility with other office apps and data sources, install office apps with options enabled

581
Q

Standard Thick Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Meets recommended requirements for selected OS

A

Good performance with basic office tasks; —-; Some older systems might require memory upgrades to meet recommended requirements

582
Q

Standard Thick Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Account settings

A

Local access or domain account access; Local login;—-

583
Q

Thin Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Basic applications

A

Perform basic office procedures (web browsing, word proccing, spreadsheets); Current version of Edge, Firefox, Chrome, or other web browser, Microsoft Office Word and Excel or OpenOffice; For maximum compatibility with other office apps and data sources, install office apps with all options enabled

584
Q

Thin Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Meets minimum requirements for using selected OS

A

Runs OS at basic performance levels; —-; Some older systems might require memory upgrades to meet minimum requirements for desired OS

585
Q

Thin Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Network connectivity

A

Fast network connection because server handles most computational tasks; Wired: Gigabit Ethernet or faster, Wireless: Wireless-AC; Routers and switches must also support Gigabit Ethernet or Wireless-AC standards

586
Q

Thin Client Features

Benefits; Implementation; Notes

Account settings

A

Secure authentication; Managed by network administrator; Normal security rules apply

587
Q

To customize the settings on a touchpad in Windows 10 follow these steps:

A

open Windows Settings

click (or tap) on the Devices icon to open the Bluetooth & Other Devices window

select Touchpad from the left column

588
Q

To customize the settings on a touchpad on a Mac follow these steps:

A

access the settings by clicking the Apple icon in the top-left corner

select System Preferences

589
Q

A touchscreen can easily be recalibrated if it is not responding properly. To do this follow these steps:

A
  1. Open Control Panel and select Tablet PC Settings
  2. Click the Calibrate button and then choose your option for calibrating the screen for pen or touch input
  3. Follow the instructions to perform the calibration
  4. If you a happy with the settings, click Yes to save the settings
590
Q

The many types of applications have different requirements and procedures. But a few basic steps apply to all applications:

A
  1. Determine if the PC has enough resources to efficiently run the application
  2. Find the .exe file for the downloaded application
  3. Double-click the .exe file to run the Setup program and see a dialog box asking for storage and shortcut preferences
  4. Follow the instructions to complete the install and then reboot if necessary
591
Q

Synchronization is:

A

the matching up of files, email, and other types of data between one computer and another, with mobile devices, or with cloud storage and cloud applications to be used

592
Q

We use synchronization to:

A

bring files in line with each other and to force devices to coordinate their data

593
Q

When installing applications, setup and settings issues include:

A

updating passwords and other account settings, such as payment information for subscription services, depending on the functionality of the applications

594
Q

Typical configuration options for printers or multifunction devices include:

A

Duplex (double-sided) printing

Collate setting

Orientation

Print quality

595
Q

Most recent printers and multifunction devices include software with an integrated print server with support for Ethernet network printing. To configure them for sharing:

A
  1. Connect the printer or multifunction device to the network via an Ethernet (RJ-45) cable
  2. Configure the printer or multifunction device to use Ethernet
  3. Name the printer so it can be located on the network
  4. Specify whether the printer or device will get an IP address from a DHCP router
  5. If you need to configure the printer’s or device’s IP address manually, determine which IP addresses on the network are not in use by DHCP and manually assign the printer or device to one of those addressees
  6. Record the configuration information for reuse
596
Q

The two major network protocols used for wireless device is:

A

Bluetooth

802.11 (WiFi)

597
Q

In ad hoc mode:

A

each device is connected directly to other devices. No router is used

598
Q

Infrastructure mode supports:

A

WPA2 encryption

599
Q

Ad hod mode supports:

A

only WEP encryption, making it unsuitable for secure networking

600
Q

Ad hoc wireless networking in Linux is sometime referred to as:

A

an independent basic service set (IBSS) network

601
Q

Cloud and remote printing require the following:

A

A printer or multifunction device that can be accessed from the cloud or remotely via the Web

An app that supports remote or cloud printing

602
Q

A laser printer is:

A

a page printer that stores the entire contents of a page to be printed in its memory before printing it

603
Q

The major components of a laser printer include:

A

Imaging drum

Developer

Fuser assembly

Transfer belt (transfer roller)

Pickup rollers

Paper separation pad (separate pad)

Duplexing assembly (optional)

604
Q

A laser printer’s imaging drum applies:

A

the page image to the transfer belt or roller; frequently combined with the tones supply in a toner cartridge

605
Q

A laser printer’s developer pulls:

A

toner from the toner supply and sends it to the imaging drum

606
Q

A laser printer’s fuser assembly fuses:

A

the page image to the paper

607
Q

A laser printer’s transfer belt (transfer roller) transfers:

A

the page image from the drum to the page

608
Q

A laser printer’s pickup rollers picks:

A

up paper

609
Q

A laser printer’s paper separation pad enables:

A

pickup rollers to pick up only one sheet of paper at a time

610
Q

A laser printer’s duplexing assembly switches:

A

paper from the front to the back side so that the printer can print on both sides of the paper

611
Q

A laser printer is an example of a:

A

page printer

612
Q

a page printer does not start printing until:

A

the entire page is received

613
Q

The laser printing process often is referred to as:

A

the electrophotographic (EP) process

614
Q

Before the seven-step laser printing process can take place, the following events must occur:

A

a printer must receive an entire page before it can start printer

the printer pulls a sheet of paper into the printer with its feed rollers

615
Q

The laser printer imaging process is:

A
  1. Processing
  2. Charging
  3. Exposing
  4. Developing
  5. Transferring
  6. Fusing
  7. Cleaning
616
Q

The laser printer process

Processing

A

the printer’s raster image processing engine receives the page, font, text, and graphics data from the printer driver, creates a page image, and stores it in memory. If there is not enough memory to store the page image, a memory error is triggered

617
Q

The laser printer process

Charging

A

the cylinder-shaped imaging drum receives an electrostatic charge of -600VDC (DC voltage) from a conditioning roller

618
Q

The laser printer process

Exposing

A

a mirror moves the laser beam across the surface of the drum. The laser beam temporarily records the image of the page to be printed on the surface of the drum

619
Q

The laser printer process

Developing

A

the drum has toner applied to it from the developer; because the toner is electrostatic. The toner stays on only the portions of the drum that have been reduced in voltage to create the image

620
Q

The laser printer process

Transferring

A

while the sheet is being fed into the printer, it receives an electrostatic charge from a corona wire or roller; this enables it to attract toner form the drum, which is negatively charged

621
Q

The laser printer process

Fusing

A

the printed sheet of paper is pulled through fuser rollers, using high temperatures (approx 350 degrees Fahrenheit) to heat the toner and press it into the paper

622
Q

The laser printer process

Cleaning

A

toner that is not adhering to the surface of the drum is scraped from the drum’s surface for reuse

623
Q

Color laser printers differ from monochrome laser printers in two important ways:

A

they include four different colors of toner (cyan, magenta, yellow, and black(

the imaging drum is separate from the toner

624
Q

the major elements in laser printer maintenance include:

A

replacing toner

applying maintenance kits

calibration (color lasers only)

cleaning

625
Q

The printer calibration process on a color laser printing adjusts:

A

image density settings to make up for changes caused by environmental differences or aging print cartridges

626
Q

To keep the paper path and rollers clean, use cleaning sheets made for laser printers as follows:

A
  1. Insert the sheet into the manual feed tray on the laser printer
  2. Create a short document with Notepad, WordPad, or some other text editor and then print it on the sheet
627
Q

What is the most popular type of printer in SOHO use?

A

Inkjet printers

628
Q

Inkjet printers are character/line printers which means:

A

they print one line at a time of single characters or graphics up to the limit of the print head matrix

629
Q

Inkjet printers use ink cartridges filled with:

A

liquid ink

630
Q

An inkjet printer is only as good as:

A

its print head and ink cartridges

631
Q

Inkjet printers use two major methods to create the ink dots that make up the page:

A

heat the ink to boiling and create a tiny bubble of ink that is allowed to escape through the print head onto the paper

a piezoelectric crystal to distribute the ink through the print head

632
Q

The inkjet print process works as follows:

A
  1. The paper or media in a feed tray is pulled into position by a roller mechanism
  2. The print head is suspended on a carriage over the paper and is moved across the paper by a belt. As the print head moves across the paper, it places black and color ink droplets as directed by the printer driver
  3. At the end of the line, the paper or media is advanced, and the print head either reverses direction and continues to print or returns to the left margin before printing continues
  4. After the page is completed, the media is ejected
633
Q

The major elements in maintaining an inkjet printer are:

A

ink cartridge replacement

calibration

nozzle check

head cleaning

jam clearing

634
Q

Inkjet printers might require or recommend:

A

some type of printer calibration, most typically print head alignment

This process involves printing one or more sheets of paper and selecting the print setting that produces straight lines

635
Q

Some inkjet printers can use two printing methods:

A

unidirectional

bidirectional

636
Q

A unidirectional printing method is when the printer:

A

prints only when the print head is moving from left to right

637
Q

A bidirectional printing method is when the printer:

A

prints when the print head is moving in either direction

638
Q

A thermal printer uses:

A

heat transfer to create text and graphics on the paper

639
Q

Thermal printers are available using three different technologies:

A

Dye sublimation for high quality printing

Thermal wax transfer, similar to laser quality

Direct thermal, the most common use of thermal printing, used in retail POS receipt printing

640
Q

Thermal transfer printers use:

A

wax or resin-based ribbons, which are often bundled with paper made especially for the printer

641
Q

The basic process of thermal printing works like this:

A
  1. The print head has a matrix of dots that can be heated in various combinations to create text and graphics
  2. The print head transfers text and graphics directly to heat-sensitive thermal paper in direct thermal printing or to a ribbon that melts onto the paper in thermal transfer printing
  3. If a multicolor ribbon is used on a thermal transfer or dye-sublimation printer, each ribbon is moved past the print head to print the appropriate color
  4. When all colors have been printed, the paper is ejected
642
Q

Direct thermal printers use:

A

special thermal (heat-sensitized) paper, and thermal transfer printers might use either standard copy paper or glossy photo paper, depending on their intended use

643
Q

The elements of thermal printer maintenance include:

A

replacing the paper when it runs out

cleaning the heating element as directed

removing the debris from the heating element

rollers

644
Q

For inkjet prints, many vendors recommend cleaning:

A

the print head after each roll of thermal transfer ribbon

645
Q

What can you use to clean print heads?

A

isopropyl alcohol (wipes, pens, pads, and swabs)

the ribbon must be removed before using the alcohol

646
Q

Impact dot-matrix printers have a number of parts moving in coordination with each other during the printing process. The steps are:

A
  1. The paper is moved past the print head vertically by pull or push tractors or by a platen
  2. The print head moves across the paper horizontally, propelled along the print head carriage by a drive belt, printing as it moves from left to right
  3. As the print head moves, the pins in the print head are moving in and out against an inked printer ribbon as the print head travels across the paper to form the text or create graphics
  4. The ribbon is also moving to reduce wear during the printing process
647
Q

The most common types of print heads include:

A

9-pin

18-pin (two columns of 9 pins each)

24-pin (produces near letter quality NLQ)

648
Q

The basic elements of impact printer mainenance are:

A

Replace ribbon

Replace print head

Replace paper

649
Q

The term virtual printer aplies to:

A

any utility that is used as a printer by an app but creates a file instead of a printout

650
Q

There are three major categories of virtual printers:

A

Print to file

Print to PDF or XPS

Print to image

651
Q

Print to file is used to:

A

create a file that can be copied to a specific printer for output

652
Q

Print to file contains:

A

not only the text and graphics but also specific printer control sequences and font references for the targeted printer

653
Q

To print to a file in Microsoft Windows follow these steps:

A
  1. Open the Print dialog
  2. Select the printer
  3. Check the Print to File box
  4. Click Print
  5. You are typically prompted for a file location. The file is stored with the .prn file extension
654
Q

Print to file is intended for use primarily with:

A

printers using the parallel (LPT) port and is not available with all apps

655
Q

With macOS, use the Print dialog and open the PDF menu to select the type and destination for the PDF file, the types are:

A

Save as PDF

Fax PDF

Mail PDF

Save as PDF-X

Save PDF to iPhoto

Save PDF to Web Receipts

656
Q

3D printing technically known as:

A

additive manufacturing (AM)

657
Q

There are two basic types of 3D printing:

A

Fused deposition modeling (FDM)

Stereolithography

658
Q

in the Fused deposition modeling (FDM) printing process:

A

an object is created by adding layers of material to form a complete object

659
Q

the most common material for the Fused deposition modeling (FDM) printing process is:

A

a strand of plastic filament that is fed from a spool to a moving printer head

660
Q

The 3D printer extruder:

A

takes in the plastic filament and melts it

661
Q

The 3D printer nozzle is:

A

a small spray hole that emits the melted filament

662
Q

The 3D printer bed is:

A

the platform on which the object is created

663
Q

The process of Fused deposition modeling (FDM)

is essentially:

A
  1. Design an object using computer-aided design (CAD) software
  2. Convert the model to an STL (printing code) format
  3. Set the print speed (slower speeds mean higher-quality printing)
  4. Ensure that the correct temperature is chosen, as different filaments (and even colors) can have variable melting points
  5. Print
664
Q

The elements of maintaining 3D printers are:

A

Lubrications need to be heat resistant, or they may melt and become part of the printed object

Different brushes are needed to clean different parts; stiff brass brushes are good for cleaning the outside of nozzles, for example

Cleaning the filament between print jobs is important to ensure that the next job starts with filament that is clean and at the correct temperature

CompTIA A+_ (28 decks)

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