Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CompTIA A+_ > Chapter 2 Networking > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Networking Flashcards

1
Q

Computers use port numbers to:

A

identify protocols and keep the different processes sorted out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The protocol HTTP does what?

A

Makes the connection to the web server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does the protocol HTTP work?

A

It selects an unused port on the computer (known as an outbound port) to send and receive data to and from a website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an inbound port?

A

It is a port used by the websites web server that is open at all times, ready to accept sessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) sessions are known as:

A

connection-oriented sessions (this means that every packet that is sent is checked for delivery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) sessions are known as:

A

connectionless sessions (this means the messages are sent without an expectation of communication from the receiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

UDP is used in:

A

streaming media sessions, such as Voice over IP (VoIP) and gaming

and for protocols that use a simple query and response, such as DNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is UDP better than TCP?

A

for time-sensitive information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is TCP more beneficial than UDP?

A

When reliability is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

FTP

A

20 & 21, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

SSH

A

22, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

Telnet

A

23, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

SMTP

A

25, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

DNS

A

53, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

HTTP

A

80, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

POP3

A

110, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

IMAP

A

143, TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

HTTPS

A

443, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

RDP

A

3389, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

NetBIOS/NetBT

A

137-139, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

SMB/CIFS

A

445, TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

SLP

A

427, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

AFP

A

548, TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

DHCP

A

67/68, UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

LDAP

A

389, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Port Number(s), Port Type

SNMP

A

161/162, TCP/UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

File Transfer Protocol is a protocol used by:

A

both web browsers and specialized FTP programs to access dedicated file transfer servers for file downloads and uploads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do you have to do in the command-line FTP program in both Windows and Linux?

A

type ftp

press enter

type help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If any credentials are required for the FTP, they are typically:

A

the username anonymous and the user’s email as a password

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Some FTP sites require the user to log in with:

A

a specified username and password

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

FTP is not considered secure because:

A

FTP users can authenticate in clear-test sign-ins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For greater security, you can use FTP secured with:

A

SSL/TLS (FTPS) or Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Secure Shell (SSH) allows:

A

data to be exchanged computers on a secured channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What protocol is more secure than FTP and Telnet?

A

Secure Shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Secure FTP combats

FTP lack of security by providing:

A

file access over a reliable data stream, generated and protected by SSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Telnet enables:

A

a user to make a text-based connection to a remote computer or networking device and use it as if he were a regular user sitting in front of it rather than simply downloading pages and files he would with an http:// or ftp:// connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Windows and Linux contain a command-line Telnet program. To open a connection to a remote computer:

A

open a command prompt (Windows) or Terminal session (Linux) and type telnet and press the enter key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to:

A

send email from a client system to an email server, which also uses SMTP to relay the message to the receiving email server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Domain Name System (DNS) is the name for:

A

the network of servers on the Internet that translate domain names and individual hostnames into their corresponding IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the protocol used by:

A

web browsers, such as Internet Explorer, Microsoft Edge, Firefox, and Chrome, to access websites and content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure or HTTP over SSL (HTTPS) are:

A

sites that are secured with various encryption schemes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two leading protocols for receiving email?

A

Post Office Protocol version (POP3)

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens to the email in an email system based on POP3?

A

email is downloaded from the mail server to folders on a local system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

POP3 is not a suitable email protocol for:

A

users who frequently switch between computers and mobile devices because email might be spread over computers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Users who utilize POP3 servers to retrieve email typically use SMTP for what?

A

to send messages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is:

A

an email protocol that enables messages to remain on the email server so they can be retrieved from any location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

IMAP also supports folders, so users can:

A

organize their messages as desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the current version of IMAP?

A

IMAP4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

To configure an IMAP-based email account you must:

A

select IMAP as the email server type and specify the name of the server, your username and password, and whether the server uses SSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

NetBIOS is also known as:

A

NetBT (RFC 1001)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

NetBIOS is a protocol that:

A

allows some legacy applications that were developed in the 1980s to work on larger networks and the Internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Server Message Block (SMB) provides:

A

access to shared items such as files and printers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Server Message Block (SMB) uses:

A

packets that authenticate remote computers through what are known as interprocess communication mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Server Message Block (SMB) uses ports 137-139 for:

A

SMB traffic using NetBIOS over TCP (NetBT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Server Message Block (SMB) uses port 445 for:

A

SMB hosted on TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Port 445 is used by:

A

Server Message Block SMB)

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Common Internet File System (CIFS) is an:

A

enhanced version of Microsoft SMB, which is an open, cross-platform protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Common Internet File System (CIFS) has now been widely replaced by:

A

updated versions of SMB (SMB 2.0 and 3.0)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Service Location Protocol (SLP) was designed to:

A

allow networked hosts to find services of other devices such as printers on the local network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

With Service Location Protocol (SLP), devices providing services can:

A

announce their presence to hosts and provide configuration information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Apple Filing Protocol (AFP) was previously known as:

A

Apple-Talk Filing Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Apple Filing Protocol (AFP) uses:

A

TCP/IP for transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used by:

A

Remote Desktop Services (RDS), which is the Windows Server-based companion of Remote Desktop Connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to:

A

automatically assign IP addresses to hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In most SOHO networks, a router uses:

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) to assign IP addresses to the client computers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

You ISP uses:

A

DHCP to assign an IP address to you, and usually your router gets this address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service makes life easier for a network administrator:

A

by automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateway addresses, DNS servers, and so on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If you get your address from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server, you are getting:

A

your address from a DHCP server, you are getting your address assigned dynamically, and it could change periodically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used as:

A

the standard for managing and monitoring devices on a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) manages:

A

routers, switches, and computers and is often incorporated into software known as a network management system (NMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the main software that controls everything Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) based?

A

Network management system (NMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Network management system (NMS) is installed on a computer known as:

A

a manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The devices monitored by Network management system (NMS) is known as:

A

managed devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Network management system (NMS) installs a small piece of software known as:

A

an agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is used to:

A

access and maintain distributed directories of information such as the kind involved with Microsoft domains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Microsoft refers to Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) as:

A

directory services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A router connects:

A

one network to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most routers sold for SOHO configurations are:

A

WiFi (802.11 family) wireless routers with integrated Fast Ethernet or Gigabit Ethernet switches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The switches built into routers are:

A

stackable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

If a router needs more ports, you can add a:

A

switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Routers are:

A

specialized computing devices that are controlled by firmware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When you log into a router to view or change its configuration:

A

the options available are limited by the router’s firmware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Buggy firmware can cause:

A

network problems and can make a network more vulnerable to attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

DD-WRT is:

A

the most popular replacement firmware for routers, and some vendors now use it in their high-end routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A switch provides:

A

connectivity to devices in a local network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Each port on a switch works:

A

independently, allowing more than one concurrent session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A switch makes:

A

a direct connection between the sending and receiving devices by identifying the Media Access Control (MAC) address of each device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In today’s networks, switches are very common in:

A

100Mbps, 1000Mbps, and 10Gbps networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Switches can be stacked to:

A

increase the number of connection ports in a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Stacked switches are:

A

daisy-chained together, and in theory there is no limit to the number of switches possible in a network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A switch resembles a hub but:

A

creates a dedicated full-speed connection between the two computers that are communicating with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Low-cost switches used in SOHO networks cannot be:

A

configured to perform complex switching functions and are considered unmanaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Managed switches are common in:

A

corporate and enterprise networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Managed switches support:

A

Simple Network Mail Protocol (SNMP) for diagnostics and performance measurement,

virtual LANs (VLANs) to enable multiple workgroups to use the same physical switch but keep their traffic separate, and redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Wireless access point (WAP) extends:

A

a wired network to wireless connections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Wireless access point (WAP) is based on:

A

Ethernet, but involves the IEEE 802.11 group of standards, which define wireless LANs (WLANs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

A Wireless access point (WAP) acts as a:

A

central connecting point for computers equipped with wireless network adapters, like a switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A Wireless access point (WAP) identifies each computer by:

A

its MAC address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Using a cloud-based controller, administrators can:

A

manage wireless LANs and branch offices that are located anywhere on the Internet from a central location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A firewall is a:

A

hardware appliance or software application that protects a computer from unwanted intrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

In SOHO, firewall functionality is usually built into:

A

the router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In larger organizations, firewall functionality is usually built into:

A

a device separate from the router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A firewall stops:

A

unwanted connections from the outside and can block basic network attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A network interface card (NIC) is:

A

the interface on a computer (or other device) that connects to the LAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A network interface card (NIC) was traditionally a:

A

circuit board (card) that mounted to the motherboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A network interface card (NIC) is now:

A

built-in interfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A network interface card (NIC) connects to:

A

a cable with an RJ-45 connecter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The network interface card (NIC) is designed to:

A

take communication off the physical cable (or wireless signal from the air) and present it to the computer for processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A network interface card (NIC) has a:

A

unique physical address, known as a MAC address, that identifies the device to other hosts on the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

network interface card (NIC) have evolved to also provide:

A

wireless and virtual access to networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Wireless network signals can be blocked by:

A

masonry

steel

concrete walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Wireless network signals can be weaken:

A

over distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

A signal repeater or extender can:

A

enable areas of weak or no signals to take advantage of a wireless network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

A wireless repeater resembles:

A

a wireless router and might include a switch, but instead of connecting a cable or DSL modem, it connects wirelessly to a wireless router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A hub is the simplest device used on:

A

an Ethernet network for connecting devices to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

A hub features:

A

multiple RJ-45 ports

a power supply

signal lights to indicate network activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Hubs were used to:

A

connect computers together and to boost the communication signal between computers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Hubs have been almost completely replaced by switches because:

A

a hub splits the bandwidth of a connection among all the computers connected to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

A hub broadcasts data to:

A

all computers connected to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

A modem connects:

A

a LAN to an Internet service provider (ISP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A dial-up modem is:

A

a device that allows a computer access to the Internet by changing the digital signals of the computer to analog signals used by a typical land-based phone line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Dial-up modems are:

A

slow devices and are usually used today only if no other Internet option is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The devices most commonly used to connect small networks to the Internet are:

A

Cable modems

DSL modems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

A wireless bridge is:

A

a device (or a setting on many access points) that is used to connect two wireless LANs together in order to expand a wireless network or to connect wireless clients to an Ethernet network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A patch panel is a:

A

box designed as a junction point for twisted pair (TP) cable and fiber cable used in networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Patch panels are typically built into:

A

wiring closets or added to equipment racks in a 1U or taller form factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

After removing any connector on the cable, each wire in the TP cable must be:

A

untwisted before being punched into the appropriate connection on the back of the panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The twisted cables are color codes so:

A

they can be properly terminated at the other end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The most common standards for color-coding for twisted cables are:

A

T568A or T568B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The front of the patch panel uses:

A

RJ-45 connectors for short standard network cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Powerline adapters are sold in:

A

pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Where are the powerline adapter pairs plugged into?

A

One unit into an AC wall socket near the router and is connected to the router via a switch

One unit plugs into an AC wall socket in the room or area that needs network/Internet access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

With a wired extender, you can plug:

A

a computer or switch into the Ethernet port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

With a wireless extender you need to:

A

log into the network via the wireless extender’s SSID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

A Power over Ethernet (PoE) switch is a:

A

switch with added capability (a built-in endspan) to send power out a port using CAT5 or better grades of twisted pair cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

A Power over Ethernet (PoE) enables:

A

wireless access points

IP security cameras

VoIP phones

routers

other Ethernet devices to be installed in areas away from traditional power sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

A power over Ethernet injector installed:

A

between a standard Ethernet switch and a PoE device to provide power only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Wireless Ethernet is also known as:

A

IEEE 802.11

WiFi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Wireless Ethernet is:

A

the collective name for a group of wireless technologies compatible with wired Ethernet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Wireless technologies compatible with wired Ethernet is referred to:

A

wireless LAN (WLAN) standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

A SOHO wired or wireless router can provide:

A

a secure way for users to access the Internet and local network resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

A SOHO wired or wireless router can become a magnet for:

A

attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

To connect to a router open a browser and enter:

A

the IP address of the router in the address bar and press Enter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

The wireless spectrum is divided into:

A

11 channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Part of installing a router on a 2.4GHz wireless network is:

A

selecting an appropriate channel for the signal

For best results, avoid overlapping channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What channels do not overlap with other channels?

A

1

6

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Some routers feature an Auto setting that enables:

A

the router to use the least-active channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

To change the channel used by a wireless network follow these steps:

A
  1. Log into the router
  2. Navigate the wireless configuration dialog
  3. Select a different channel (typically 1, 6, or 11 when using 2.4GHz networking because they have less interference than other channels)
  4. Save your changes and exit the wireless configuration dialog
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Network address translation (NAT) is the process of:

A

modifying IP addresses as information crosses a router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Network address translation (NAT) hides:

A

an entire IP address space on the LAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Whenever an IP address on the LAN wants to communicate with the Internet, the IP address is:

A

converted to the public IP address of the router

152
Q

SOHO routers perform Network address translation (NAT) automatically when:

A

connected to an IPv4 network

153
Q

Port forwarding involves:

A

forwarding external visitors through a router to a specific computer

154
Q

Instead of opening the entire LAN, port forwarding directs:

A

particular traffic where you want it to go

155
Q

Port forwarding is also called:

A

destination network address translation (DNAT)

156
Q

Port triggering involves:

A

a particular service opening an outgoing port or range of ports on demand

157
Q

Port triggering can be used without:

A

being tied to a specific IP address

158
Q

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) allows:

A

outside traffic through a particular IP address on a LAN

159
Q

Ina SOHO router, any device assigned to the DMZ receives:

A

traffic that is not specified for a particular device

160
Q

Using a DMZ host makes sense for:

A

gaming and other types of traffic where you cannot specify in advance the ports needed

161
Q

The DMZ host must have its own:

A

firewall because DMZ hosts are not protects by the router firewall

162
Q

By default, SOHO routers have the:

A

DHCP service turned on so they can provide IP addresses to any wired or wireless devices that connect

163
Q

Most routers enable you to:

A

specify the range and number of IP addresses available via DHCP

164
Q

When do devices switch to Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA)?

A

When a router does not have sufficient IP addresses for the devices that need to connect to it, using the non-routable IP address range 169.254.x.x

165
Q

A SOHO router comes with a:

A

default IP address known as a private address

166
Q

Follow the steps to configure NIC in Windows:

A
  1. Click the Windows icon and select the Windows Settings gear
  2. In the Windows Settings window select the Network & Internet link
  3. When you see the different connection options, select the one you want and click Change adapter options on the right side of the window
  4. Choose the adapter you want to configure and click on the Properties button. A list of items available to the NIC are listed
  5. Double-click on Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4). You now see the window where the IP address is configured dynamically or statically
  6. Assign the address or leave the default DHCP options and click OK to accept any changes
167
Q

A few examples of IoT are:

A

Thermostats

Light switches

Security cameras

Door locks

Voice-enabled smart speakers/digital assistants

168
Q

Quality of service (QoS) is an important feature to:

A

enable on any network that provides streaming media, gaming, or VoIP services

169
Q

Quality of service (QoS) priortizes:

A

real-time and streaming traffic

170
Q

QoS can be configured by:

A

an ISP or by a router

171
Q

Universal plug and play (UPnP) is a:

A

router feature that enables devices on a network to add themselves to a network without the need to reconfigure the router

172
Q

Universal plug and play (UPnP) is widely used for:

A

media streaming across a network

173
Q

Universal plug and play (UPnP) can be vulnerable to:

A

attacks

174
Q

Encryption is a necessity for both:

A

SOHO wired or wireless routers and larger business wireless networks to preserve privacy and to prevent criminals from borrowing the network

175
Q

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is the:

A

oldest and weakest WiFi encryption standard

176
Q

If Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is enabled, all:

A

network devices must use the same WEP key and encryption strength

177
Q

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption key cannot:

A

include punctuation marks

178
Q

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) can be configured using a:

A

pre-shared key (PSK) or

Open System Authentication (OSA)

179
Q

Wifi Protected Access (WPA) uses:

A

a variable-length encryption key (up to 63 ASCII characters, including punctuation marks)

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) 128-bit encryption

180
Q

Wifi Protected Access (WPA) is much more secure than:

A

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

181
Q

Wifi Protected Access (WPA) can use

A

PSK or RADIUS authentication server to generate unique keys

182
Q

Wifi Protected Access (WPA) has been replaced by:

A

WPA2, but some routers can be configured to support both WPA an WPA2 clients on the same network

183
Q

Wifi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) replaces:

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

184
Q

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a:

A

128- to 256-bit encryption protocol used in technologies such as hard drive encryption as well as networking

185
Q

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) can be used exclusively or in conjunction with:

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol, which is the recommended option

186
Q

Wifi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) certification is:

A

mandatory for all new devices that bear the WiFi trademark

187
Q

WiFi Protect Setup (WPS) provides:

A

an easier way to configure a wireless network than entering the router’s IP address on each device connecting to it

188
Q

Routers that support WiFi Protect Setup (WPS) typically have the:

A

default WPS key on the bottom of the device

189
Q

To use WiFi Protect Setup (WPS), use the:

A

setup software provided with a router on each computer and follow the directions on devices such as printers or multifunction devices

190
Q

Note that WiFi Protect Setup (WPS) should be used:

A

only if all devices on a wireless network support it

191
Q

There are two ways to use WiFi Protect Setup (WPS):

A

the default Pin method, in which the PIN on the router is used to set up clients,

a pushbutton method, in which a physical or software button is pushed on the router and clients to set up the network

192
Q

The PIN and the pre-shared key for WPS could be compromised by:

A

brute-force attacks

193
Q

Encryption Type; Key Length; Key Rules; Strength

Open

A

None; N/A; N/A; None

194
Q

Encryption Type; Key Length; Key Rules; Strength

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

A

RC4; 10 hex/5 ASCII characters (64-bit) or 26 hex/13 ASCII characters (128-bit); ASCII: alphanumeric (no punctuation); very weak

195
Q

Encryption Type; Key Length; Key Rules; Strength

WiFi Protected Access (WPA)

A

TKIP (128-bit); Up to 63 ASCII characters; Punctuation is okay, some devices can’t use a full-length encryption key; Strong

196
Q

Encryption Type; Key Length; Key Rules; Strength

WiFi Protect Access 2 (WPA2)

A

AES (128-bit), Up to 63 ASCII characters; Punctuation is okay, some devices can’t use a full-length encryption key; Very strong

197
Q

What are the five different WiFi standards?

A
  1. 11a
  2. 11ac
  3. 11b
  4. 11g
  5. 11n
198
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11b

A

5.5Mbps or slower if necessary; 11Mbps; 2.4GHz with 20MHz-wide channels

199
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11a

A

6Mbps to 48Mbps; 54Mbps; 5GHz

200
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11g

A

6Mbps to 48Mbps; 54Mbps; 2GHz, can optionally support 5GHz as well

201
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11n 2.4GHz

A

Doesn’t specify; 72Mbps per stream (20MHz channel); 2.4GHz

202
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11ac

A

Doesn’t specify; up to 433Mbps per stream when 80MHz-wide channels are used; 5GHz band and supports up to 80 MHz-wide channels

203
Q

Multiple input multiple output (MIMO) support; Estimated Range Indoors/Outdoors; Channel Width/Number of Channels; Interoperable With

802.11a

A

No; 35m/120m; 20MHz/12; Requires dual-mode (802.11a/b or 802.11a/g) hardware

204
Q

Multiple input multiple output (MIMO) support; Estimated Range Indoors/Outdoors; Channel Width/Number of Channels; Interoperable With

802.11b

A

No; 32m/140m; 20MHz/3; 802.11g

205
Q

Multiple input multiple output (MIMO) support; Estimated Range Indoors/Outdoors; Channel Width/Number of Channels; Interoperable With

802.11g

A

No; 32m/140m; 20MHz/3; 802.11b, 802.11n

206
Q

Multiple input multiple output (MIMO) support; Estimated Range Indoors/Outdoors; Channel Width/Number of Channels; Interoperable With

802.11n 2.4GHz

A

Yes; 70m/250m; 20MHz/3; 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11 (on networks also supporting 5GHz frequency)

207
Q

Multiple input multiple output (MIMO) support; Estimated Range Indoors/Outdoors; Channel Width/Number of Channels; Interoperable With

802.11n 5GHz

A

Yes; 70m/250m; 20MHz or 40MHz/12; 802.11a (20MHz-wide channels only)

208
Q

Minimum speed(s); Maximum speed; frequency band

802.11n 5GHz

A

Doesn’t specify; 150Mbps per stream (40MHz channel); 5GHz

209
Q

Compare 2.4GHz to 5GHz band:

A

2.4 GHz band has a longer range but may perform at slower speeds

5GHz band may provide faster rates has a shorter range
5GHz band is less used and has more channels than 2.4, and its channels do not overlap

210
Q

Estimated Range; Channels; Advantages; Disadvantages

2.4GHz

A

50m (160 feet indoors); 11; Longer Range; Slower performance, channels easily overlap

211
Q

Estimated Range; Channels; Advantages; Disadvantages

5GHz

A

15m (50 feet) indoors; 23; Shorter range; Faster performance, channels do not overlap

212
Q

Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) devices are available in the following configurations:

A

1x1 one transmit, one receive antenna

2x2 two transmit, two receive antenna

3x3 “ “

4x4 “ “

5x5 “ “

213
Q

Bluetooth runs in virtually:

A

the same 2.4GHz frequency used by IEEE 802.11(b,g, and n) wireless networks but use a spread-spectrum frequency-hopping signaling method to help minimize interference

214
Q

Bluetooth version 1.2 offers:

A

a data transfer rate of 1Mbps

215
Q

Bluetooth version 2 offers:

A

a data transfer rate of 3Mbps

216
Q

Bluetooth version 3.0 + HS can reach:

A

speeds of up to 24Mbps because it uses Bluetooth only to establish the connection, and the actual data transfer happens over an 802.11 link known as Alternative MAC/PHY (AMP)

217
Q

Bluetooth 5 can provide up to:

A

twice the speed and up to four times the range of Bluetooth 4 while keeping power consumption low

218
Q

Bluetooth Classes Power (mW); Range

Class 1

A

100mW; 100m (328 feet)

219
Q

Bluetooth Classes Power (mW); Range

Class 2

A

2.5mW; 10m (33 feet)

220
Q

Bluetooth Classes Power (mW); Range

Class 3

A

1mW; 1m (3 feet)

221
Q

Class 1 Bluetooth generates:

A

the most powerful signal, and as such has the largest range

222
Q

Near field communication (NFC) is:

A

a feature included in many mobile devices such as tablets for data transfer and shopping

223
Q

Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of:

A

an RFID tag that can broadcast information about an item, as well as an RFID reader to accept the broadcast information and deliver it to a computer system for use

224
Q

Zigbee is similar to:

A

Bluetooth in that it is a near-range wireless protocol designed to allow communication using low power

225
Q

Zigbee is most commonly used to:

A

connect IoT data-sharing devices in a home, industry, or medical environment

226
Q

What are examples of a Zigbee device?

A

motion sensor

leak sensor

227
Q

What frequency does a Zigbee chip operate on?

A

2.4GHz

228
Q

What is Z-Wave?

A

it is a more recent version of Zigbee that uses less power and operates on the much lower 908.42MHz frequency.

229
Q

Zigbee and Z-Wave are not:

A

interoperable

230
Q

Phone network Year Released; New Features

3G

A

1998; Video calling, High-speed Internet, More data

231
Q

Phone network Year Released; New Features

4G

A

2008; Live streaming of HD TV, Video conferencing, 100Mbps Internet speed while moving and 1Gbps when stationary

232
Q

Phone network Year Released; New Features

LTE (Long-Term Evolution)

A

2010; Improved coverage, Faster speed

233
Q

Phone network Year Released; New Features

5G

A

2019/2020; Much faster data, fewer delays

234
Q

Web servers are:

A

specialized computers that host websites and provide various types of content to clients via the Internet

235
Q

A web server uses HTTP to:

A

communicate with computers on other networks that are requesting information

236
Q

A file server is used to:

A

provide shared storage on a network

237
Q

A file server is typically:

A

a computer with a single large drive or a RAID array for storage

238
Q

Dedicated servers are used only for:

A

storage

239
Q

A non-dedicated server is a:

A

computer that shares storage and also performs standalone tasks

240
Q

A network-attached storage (NAS) device is a:

A

special kind of file server designed to store large amounts of data in a central location for users on the network.

241
Q

A print server manages:

A

the printing tasks for multiple users sharing one or more printers in an office

242
Q

A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server supports:

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), the protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses to connected devices on a network

243
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server functions are:

A

included in SOHO routers and are typical roles for domain controllers on small to medium business (SMB) networks

244
Q

A proxy server is:

A

an intermediary between a client and another network, such as the Internet

245
Q

A proxy server stores:

A

web pages that have been requested, and if a client requests a web page, the proxy server checks its cache for the page. If the page exists and is up to date, the proxy server used its cached copy to supply the client request

246
Q

If the proxy server does not have the requested page:

A

it downloads the page on behalf of the client, sends the page to the client, and retains a copy of the page in its cache

247
Q

A proxy server helps reduce:

A

traffic between a network and the Internet, and it can also be used to block requests for undesirable traffic

248
Q

A mail server sends:

A

or receives email on a network

249
Q

What servers are used to send outgoing email?

A

SMTP server

250
Q

What servers are used to receive email?

A

POP3 server

IMAP server

251
Q

An authentication server is used to:

A

examine and verify or deny credentials to a user attempting to log into secured networks

252
Q

Syslog servers track:

A

events that happen on devices (such as logins or crashes) on a network

253
Q

Unified threat management (UTM) devices provide:

A

firewall

remote access

virtual private network (VPN) support

web traffic filtering with anti-malware

network-intrusion prevention

254
Q

Unified threat management (UTM) devices unite:

A

the functions of several earlier devices and have largely replaced IDS and IPS devices

255
Q

An intrusion detection system (IDS) device or program detects:

A

network intrusions that might not be detected by a firewall

256
Q

Typical threats detected by an Intrusion detection system (IDS) includes:

A

attacks against services

malware attacks

data-driven attacks

host-based attacks

257
Q

To detect threats, a typical intrusion detection system (IDS) uses:

A

signature-based detection, detection of unusual activities (anomalies), and stateful protocol analysis

258
Q

An intrusion detection system (IDS) or program must be:

A

updated frequently with new signatures and rules to maintain protection

259
Q

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) uses:

A

methods similar to those used by an IDS, but unlike an IDS, an IPS blocks attacks

260
Q

An end-point management server keeps:

A

track of devices using the network and ensures that they comply with the security parameters of the entire network

261
Q

What are the end points on the end-point management server?

A

the end users

the devices that use the network

262
Q

The term legacy refers to:

A

things handed down from predecessors

263
Q

Legacy systems are systems:

A

that use outdated operating systems, programming languages, applications, or hardware

264
Q

How can the problem of maintaining old hardware be eliminated?

A

If the legacy operating system and its applications can be run in a virtualized environment

265
Q

Embedded systems are:

A

dedicated computing devices used for specific tasks such as machine control, point-of-sale system, or ATMs, are often also legacy systems

266
Q

The biggest risk to both legacy and embedded systems is:

A

security

267
Q

When considering whether and when to update legacy systems or embedded systems, consider these issues:

A
  1. Will the existing data be usable with newer apps?
  2. Can the existing program run with current operating systems?
  3. Will changes in network security, wireless, or Internet standards cause problems with the application?
  4. Can a proprietary application be licensed to run in a virtual machine?
  5. Does existing hardware used in the embedded system work with the new operating system?

Does the embedded application run on current embedded operating systems? If not, is an updated version available?

268
Q

The Internet protocol (IP) is the:

A

communication protocol that computers and other devices use to communicate with computers outside of their local networks

269
Q

What are two current versions of IP addressing commonly in use today?

A

IPv4

IPv6

270
Q

IP addresses are:

A

changeable, logical addresses and are assigned to devices for communicating outside their local networks

271
Q

The term static means:

A

unchanging, or always the same

272
Q

The term dynamic means:

A

constantly changing

273
Q

Static IP address is assigned:

A

to a device by the administrator and not subject to change until reconfigured by the administrator

274
Q

Dynamic (DHCP server-assigned) IP address is assigned:

A

by a DHCP server and will likely change each time a device leaves and then rejoins the network or when the address is used beyond its lease time and expires

275
Q

What it Does; Static IP Address; Dynamic IP Address

IP address

A

Identifies a computer on the network; unique value for each device; entered manually on the device; Automatically assigned by the DHCP server

276
Q

What it Does; Static IP Address; Dynamic IP Address

Subnet mask

A

Determines which bits in the IP address are the network portion and which are the host portion; entered manually on the device, but a default subnet mask appears when the IP address is assigned; Automatically assigned by the DHCP server

277
Q

What it Does; Static IP Address; Dynamic IP Address

DNS Configuration

A

Identifies Domain Name System servers; IP addresses of one or more DNS servers, hostname, and domain name must be entered; Automatically assigned by the DHCP server

278
Q

What it Does; Static IP Address; Dynamic IP Address

Gateway

A

Identifies IP address of device that connects the computer to the Internet or another network, same values for all devices on the network; IP address for the gateway must be entered; Automatically assigned by the DHCP server

279
Q

To configure an IP address in Windows, access:

A

the Internet Protocol Properties window

280
Q

To open the General tab of the Internet Protocol Properties window, open:

A

Network Connections, right-click the network connection, select Properties, click Internet Protocol v4 (TCP/IPv4) or TCP/IPv6 in the list of protocols and features, and click Properties

281
Q

When will a device on a network assign themselves APIPA/link local addresses?

A

When the DHCP server becomes unavailable and an alternate IP address has not been set up

282
Q

If a DHCP problem causes APIPA/link local addresses to be assigned, you can resolve the problem by checking the:

A

device’s network connection and try using the ipconfig/release and ipconfig/renew commands at the command prompt

283
Q

An IP address is divided into two sections:

A

the network portion, which is the number of the network the computer is on

the host portion, which is the individual number of the computer

284
Q

A subnet mask is used to:

A

distinguish between the network portion of the IP and the host portion

285
Q

IP version 6 (IPv6) greatly increases:

A

the number of available IP addresses

286
Q

IPv6 uses:

A

128-bit source and destination IP addresses that are each then divided into eight 16-bit blocks

287
Q

What is zero compression?

A

When a sequence of 16-bit blocks of IPv6 addresses set to zero being represented by double colon (::)

288
Q

An IPv6 address can only include one:

A

zero-compressed block

289
Q

To test your network interface in Windows where IPv6 is enabled by default:

A

type ping::1 at a command prompt

290
Q

IPv6 supports what types of addresses?

A

unicast

multicast

anycast

291
Q

There are five types of unicast addresses:

A

Global unicast addresses

Link local addresses

Site local addresses

Special addresses

Compatibility addresses

292
Q

Global unicast addresses are:

A

used in the same way as IPv4 public addresses.

293
Q

How are the bits comprised in a Global unicast address?

A

first 3 bits are set to 001

the following 45 bits are used for the global routing prefix

the collective 48 bits are known as the public topology

The subnet ID uses the next 16 bits

The interface uses the remaining 64 bits

294
Q

Link local addresses correspond to:

A

the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address scheme used by IPv4 (addresses that start with 169.254)

295
Q

How are the bits comprised in a link local address?

A

the first 10 bits are set to FE80 hex

the next 54 are 0s

the following 54 bits are for the interface ID

296
Q

Site local addresses correspond to:

A

IPv4 private address spaces (10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16)

297
Q

Special addresses include

A

unspecified addresses (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 or ::) and indicates the absence of an IP address; a loopback address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1)

298
Q

Compatibility addresses are used in:

A

situations in which IPv4 and IPv6 are both in use

299
Q

The term one-to-one-to-many association is used to describe:

A

anycast addressing sends information to a group of potential receivers that are identified by the same destination address

300
Q

To view IP information on Linux:

A

Open Terminal

use the command ifconfig-a

301
Q

Two scripts need to be edited in Terminal on Linux:

A

ifcfg-connection name (used to identify IP addresses)

the file resolv.conf (used to identify DNS servers)

302
Q

The most common types of VPNs are:

A

PPTP

L2TP/IPsec

303
Q

PPTP uses:

A

128-bit encryption

304
Q

L2TP uses:

A

256-bit encryption

305
Q

Virtual local area network (VLAN) is a:

A

grouping of some computers on a local area network (LAN) that are configured to behave as if they have their own separate LAN

306
Q

Usually LANs are separated by:

A

a router, but a switch may have the capability of grouping ports together to behave like a LAN inside the switch

307
Q

List the fastest to slowest wired network connection speeds:

A

Fiber

Cable

DSL

ISDN

Dial-up

308
Q

List the fastest to slowest wireless network connection speeds:

A

Cellular

Fixed line-of-sight

Satellite

309
Q

Cable is:

A

broadband Internet service that is provided by a cable TV company

310
Q

Cable can deliver:

A

voice, data, and video at one time

311
Q

Cable Internet can reach what download speeds?

A

3Mbps up to 300Mbps or faster

312
Q

Cable Internet can reach what upload speeds?

A

10-20% of download speeds but vary by vendor

313
Q

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) was originally designed to:

A

work on the same telephone line used by a telephone and fax machine if the telephone line can carry a digital signal

314
Q

For home use, DSL is designed:

A

strictly for Internet access

315
Q

For business use, DSL is designed:

A

for Internet access and can be used for additional services and can be used in site-to-site scenarios between organizations

316
Q

Two major types of DSL use telephone lines are:

A

Asynchronous DSL (ADSL)

Synchronous DSL (SDSL)

317
Q

Two newer types of DSL are:

A

Very High Bit-Rate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL)

Very High Bit-Rate Digital Subscriber Line 2 (VDSL2)

318
Q

Both VDSL and VDSL2 use:

A

fiber for at least part of the signal path

319
Q

Line Type; User Installation Option; Typical Downstream Speeds; Typical Upstream Speeds; Support HDTV Service

ADSL

A

Existing telephone line; Yes; 384Kbps to 24Mbps; 128Kbps to 3.3Mbps; No

320
Q

Line Type; User Installation Option; Typical Downstream Speeds; Typical Upstream Speeds; Support HDTV Service

SDSL

A

New telephone line; No; 384 Kbps to 2.0Mbps; 384Kbps to 2.0Mbps; No

321
Q

Line Type; User Installation Option; Typical Downstream Speeds; Typical Upstream Speeds; Support HDTV Service

VDSL

A

Fiber+telephone line; No; Up to 55Mbps; 15Mbps; Yes

322
Q

Line Type; User Installation Option; Typical Downstream Speeds; Typical Upstream Speeds; Support HDTV Service

VDSL2

A

Fiber+telephone line; No; Up to 200Mbps; Up to 100Mbps; Yes

323
Q

A DSL modem is used to:

A

connect a computer to DSL service

324
Q

A DSL modem connects to:

A

a PC through the RJ-45 (Ethernet) port or the USB port

325
Q

A Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) connection requires:

A

the user to make a connection with a username and password

326
Q

Until the late 1990s, dial-up networking (DUN) was the most:

A

common way for home and small businesses to connect to the Internet

327
Q

Today, dial-up connections are used:

A

when no other Internet connection is available

328
Q

Dial-up is sometimes referred to as:

A

public switched telephone network (PSTN)

plain old telephone service (POTS)

329
Q

Dial-up is relatively slow, with rates ranging from:

A

28.8Kbps to 56Kbps

330
Q

A disadvantage of telephone dial-up is that:

A

voice and data cannot share the wire simultaneously

331
Q

Fiber connections to the home (FTTH) or Fiber to the premises (FTTP) network download speeds can reach:

A

up to 2Gbps

332
Q

An optical network terminal (ONT) is used to:

A

convert the fiber connection entering a home and the Ethernet or coaxial WAN connection to connect a router or gateway

333
Q

An optical network terminal (ONT) is supplied by:

A

the fiber provider and installed in the home

334
Q

Satellite Internet uses:

A

dish antennas to receive and transmit signals between geosynchronous satellites and computers

335
Q

Satellite modems are:

A

external devices used to connect computers to satellite dishes

336
Q

The FCC requires:

A

professional installation for satellite Internet service because an incorrectly aligned satellite dish with uplink capabilities could cause a service outage on the satellite it’s aimed at

337
Q

Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) was originally:

A

developed to provide an all-digital method for connecting multiple telephone and telephony-type devices to a single telephone line and to provide a faster connection for teleconferencing for remote computer uses

338
Q

To make an ISDN connection:

A

a PC needs a device called an ISDN terminal adapter (TA)

339
Q

There are two types of ISDN connections:

A

Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

340
Q

A Primary Rate Interface (PRI) connection provides:

A

1.536Mbps of bandwidth

341
Q

A Basic Rate Interface (BRI) connection provides:

A

64Kbps (single-channel) or 128Kbps (dual-channel)

342
Q

To use USB tethering, follow these steps:

A
  1. Connect a USB cable from your computer to the data port on your device
  2. Select the USB tethering option on your device
  3. If you are connecting a Windows computer, select the network type (Home) on the computer when prompted
  4. Use your computer’s web browser and other network features as usual
  5. When you’re finished, disable USB tethering
343
Q

To use the mobile hotspot feature, follow these steps

A
  1. Enable the mobile hotspot feature in the device’s setup
  2. Select how you want to share the connection wirelessly. Provide the SSID and password listed to any devices that will share the connection
  3. If you decide the permit only allows devices to connect, you must provide a name for each device and its MAD address. The MAC address is listed on a label attached to an external adapter
  4. Open the Allowed Devices, click Add, enter the device name and address, and click OK
  5. Make the connection from your device just as you would with any other wireless Internet router or hotspot
  6. When your devices are finished using the Internet, disable the hotspot setting in your smartphone or tablet
344
Q

Line-of-sight wireless is sometimes referred to:

A

as terrestrial wireless

345
Q

Line-of-sight involves:

A

using small antennas to connect users to Internet service transmitted from microwave towers

346
Q

A network is:

A

a group of computers, peripherals, and software that are connected to each other and can be used together

347
Q

A local area network (LAN) is:

A

a group of connect computers under one administrative organization

348
Q

Wired LANs can have:

A

high-speed connections with Ethernet unshielded twisted pair cable (UTP), shielded twisted pair cable (STP), or fiber

349
Q

A wide area network (WAN) is:

A

a group of one or more LANs over a large geographic area

350
Q

WANs are administered:

A

by several different Internet service providers, and the links are usually slower than LAN connections

351
Q

A Personal area network (PAN) is:

A

larger than a LAN and smaller than a WAN (ex. phone, tablets)

352
Q

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is:

A

a smaller version of WAN (two offices in the same city, makes a high-speed connection between them)

353
Q

A wireless mesh network (WMN) is:

A

a communications network made up a cloud of radio nodes organized in a mesh topology

354
Q

A wireless mesh network (WMN) often consists of:

A

mesh clients, mesh routers, and gateways

355
Q

Management of a wireless mesh network (WMN) is:

A

decentralized

356
Q

A cable stripper is used:

A

to strip a portion of the plastic jacket off the cable to expose the individual wires

357
Q

A crimper attaches:

A

a connector to the end of raw twisted pair (TP or coaxial cable.)

358
Q

There are two types of crimpers:

A

RJ-45 crimping tool

Compression-crimping tool

359
Q

You use an RJ-45 crimping tool when:

A

you are working with TP

360
Q

You use a compression-crimping tool when:

A

you are working with coaxial

361
Q

A punchdown tool punches:

A

the individual wires down into the 110 IDC clips of an RJ-45 jack and the patch panel

362
Q

A multimeter is a:

A

very flexible tool that can be used for testing both coaxial and TP cabling as well as AC and DC voltage

363
Q

When set for DC voltage:

A

a multimeter can be used to test computer power supplies and AC adapters

364
Q

When set for continuity (CONT):

A

it can be used as a cable tester

365
Q

A multimeter can also be used to:

A

test ohm (resistance)

ampere (amp, or current) levels

366
Q

All multimeters are:

A

equipped with red and black test leads

367
Q

When used for voltage tests:

A

the red lead is attached to the power source to be measured, and the black lead is attached to ground

368
Q

Multimeters use two different readout styles:

A

digital

analog

369
Q

A tone generator and probe kit consists of two parts:

A

Tone device

Probing device

370
Q

A tone device on a tone generator and probe connects:

A

to one end of the network cable and when turned on, sends a tone along the length of the cable

371
Q

A probing device on a tone generator and probe can:

A

pick up the tone anywhere along the cable length and at the termination point

372
Q

A cable tester tests:

A

each wire in the cable and makes sure everything is wired properly

373
Q

A loopback plug connects:

A

directly to the RJ-45 port of a PC’s network adapter

374
Q

When you use a loopback plug with a network diagnostic program, it:

A

simulates a network and tests whether the network adapter and TCP/IP are functioning properly

375
Q

A WiFi analyzer provides:

A

an easy-to-use view of both 2.4GHz and 5.0GHz wireless networks in the area

CompTIA A+_ (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions