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Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

.. is the heart of all human interaction, and … is the heart of all small-group efforts.

A

Social interdependence

cooperation

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2
Q

what are the 2 steps to setting group goals

A

First, operational goals and the paths to achieving the goals must be clearly specified and measurable. Second, positive interdependence (i.e., cooperation) must be structured among group membersFirst, operational goals and the paths to achieving the goals must be clearly specified and measurable. Second, positive interdependence (i.e., cooperation) must be structured among group members

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3
Q

what underlies the 2 steps to becoming an effective group

A

trust

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4
Q

what 3 elements make up groups that successfully meet their goals

A

trust, social interdependence and group goals

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5
Q

Groups cannot exist unless the activities of their members are directed toward achieving something true or false

A

true

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6
Q

Group goals ..6… the behavior of group members

A

direct, channel, guide, energize, motivate, and coordinate

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7
Q

It is the power of goals to … members to engage in needed behaviors that makes goals essential to an effective group

A

influence

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8
Q

what are the 4 reasons goals are important

A
  1. goals guide action
  2. goals motivate behavior
  3. goals provide the basis for resolving conflicts
  4. goals are prerequisite for assessment and evaluation
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9
Q

what is a goal

A

an ideal, desired place to where people are working. a state of affairs people value

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10
Q

what are the 3 ways individuals goals can be socially interdependent

A

Individuals’ goal attainments can be positively related (i.e., cooperation), negatively related (i.e., competition), or independent from one another (i.e., individualistic efforts).

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11
Q

what is a group goal

A

is a future state of affairs desired by enough members of a group to motivate them to work toward its achievement.

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12
Q

A … is an ideal and unique image of the future.

A

vision

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13
Q

Do groups have goals, or are there only the various individual goals of the group’s members?

A

both are possible.
people who say no assert hat group membership is just a way to achieve personal goals
people who say group goals do exist say The success of the group, rather than their personal gain, seems to be the major source of their satisfaction

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14
Q

how can group goals outpreform personal goals

A

Group goals provide a unity, a common fate, that cannot readily be identified simply by noting the individual goals of group members. secondly, group goals result in higher group performance, goal acceptance, and cooperation among group members.

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15
Q

are group goals just a combination of personal goals?

A

no definitive answer. Perhaps the safest conclusion is both group and individual goals exist, and the group goals are relevant to the individual needs of the members.

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16
Q

There are two ways to induce member commitment to the group’s goals. what are they

A

the first is to ensure that the goals meet the START criteria
The second way is to involve group members in the process of forming the goals

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17
Q

what is the start criteria

A

To be effective, goals need to be specifically defined (so it is clear what needs to be done step-by-step), trackable (so progress can be measured), challenging but achievable (50 percent chance of success), relevant to members’ interests, and aimed at competencies that will be transferred to other situations

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18
Q

are there any other factors influencing commitment?

A

how desirable the goal seems

the ways in which members relate to one another in working toward the accomplishment of the goal

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19
Q

what part of start technique does this fall into: Goals must be operationalized so that the steps to achieving the goals are clear and understandable

A

trackable

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20
Q

Goals must be challenging enough that the group has a … chance of achieving them

A

50/50

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21
Q

Goals must be … if group members are to achieve them

A

clear

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22
Q

what are the symptoms of unclear goals

A

high level of group tension, joking or horseplay, distraction by side issues, and the failure to use good ideas

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23
Q

what is an operational goal

A

goals for which specific steps to achievement are identifiable (i.e., observable, countable, and specific).

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24
Q

what kind of goals dont make it evidnet when it is acheived

A

nonoperational goals

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25
Q

several of them are better than one when telling a group what accomplishing the goal looks like t or f

A

t

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26
Q

what are the advantages of operational goals

A
  1. facilitate communication
  2. evaluate group process and product
  3. help plan and carry out tasks
  4. aid in rational conclusions in times of conflict
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27
Q

the more time a group spends clarifying and operationalizing its goals, the less time is needed to achieve them. t or f

A

t

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28
Q

clear goals are usually decided upon in advance to group meeting t or f

A

f

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29
Q

what are the 2 types of goals

A

performance and mastery

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30
Q

what are mastery goals

A

Mastery goals are aimed at becoming more competent on a task or skill.

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31
Q

what are performance goals

A

Performance goals are aimed at demonstrating competence by outperforming others and thereby receiving favorable judgments of ability from others.

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32
Q

People who set performance goals are often focused on …

A

winning, looking good, and being evaluated well.

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33
Q

task oriented vs ego oriented students can be said to focus on which goals

A 
task= mastery
ego= performance
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34
Q

Ego-involved students can become very anxious or discouraged in the face of failure because …

A

such failure challenges their self-concept.

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35
Q

what are the 2 types of performance goals

A

performance approach goals (i.e., striving to win) and performance avoidance goals (i.e., striving not to lose).

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36
Q

which goals have the worst

A

performance avoidance goals

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37
Q

Group goals reflect the members’ …

A

aspirations

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38
Q

what is Level of aspiration (LOA)

A

is the compromise between ideal goals and more realistic expectations

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39
Q

does your LOA stay the same throughout task?

A

no As one gains experience, individuals revise their ideal expectations to match the reality of the situation.

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40
Q

groups set goals that are slightly optimistic or pessimistic

A

optimistic

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41
Q

what’s the problem with optimistic bias (usually beneficial)

A

set overoptimistic goals year after year, the continued failure decreased morale, work enjoyment, and group efficiency.

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42
Q

Individual goals that are markedly different from the group’s goals may become …

A

hidden agendas

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43
Q

what are hidden agendas

A

personal goals that are unknown to other group members and are at cross-purposes with the dominant group goals.

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44
Q

5 ways to ensure consensus on group goals?

A
  1. discuss the goals thoroughly = ownership of goals
  2. recognize two levels of of operation: toward the achievement of the group’s goals and toward the achievement of individual members’ goals
  3. give hidden agendas different amounts of attention
  4. don’t scold hidden agendas
  5. evaluate groups ability to deal with hidden agendas
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45
Q

what are the 2 ways of helping groups set effective goals

A

Two methods of helping groups set effective goals are the survey-feedback method and program evaluation and review method

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46
Q

what is the survey feedback method

A

begins with interviewing group members about group goals and the priorities of the group

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47
Q

what happens during an annual survey feedback exchange

A

During this meeting the group plans its short-term goals, ranks the goals in terms of priority, defines specific responsibilities for working on the tasks, and sets goals for increasing group effectiveness

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48
Q

what is the critical path method

A

groups specify the end state they want to achieve. Working backward from this final goal, the group details what must happen immediately before the goal is achieved and what tasks and subgoals are needed to accomplish the goal

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49
Q

3 main perspectives of group theories?

A

Social interdependence perspective
cognitive- developmental perspective
behavioural- social perspective

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50
Q

which perspective focuses on resource and role interdependence

A

cognitive

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51
Q

which perspective focuses on goal interdependence

A

social interdependence perspective

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52
Q

which perspective focuses on reward and task interdependence

A

behavioural social perspective

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53
Q

which two perspectives promote interaction

A

social and cognitive

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54
Q

which perspective focuses on increased motivation

A

behavioural

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55
Q

review figure 3.1

A

.

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56
Q

what are the three general theoretical perspectives that have guided research on cooperation

A

cognitive-developmental, behavioral, and social interdependence

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57
Q

Piaget proposed that when individuals cooperate on the environment, sociocognitive conflict occurs that creates cognitive disequilibrium, which in turn stimulates ….

A

perspective-taking ability and cognitive development

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58
Q

The cognitive-developmental perspective is largely based on the theories of …

A

Piaget and Vygotsky.

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59
Q

by far the most important theory dealing with cooperation and competition is social…

A

interdependence theory.

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60
Q

what does interdepednace theory focus on

A

the balance of rewards and costs in social exchange among interdependent individuals

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61
Q

the essence of a group is the interdependence among members that results in the group being a … so that a change in the state of any member or subgroup changes the state of any other member or subgroup.

A

dynamic whole

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62
Q

how are group members made interdependent

A

through common goals

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63
Q

T: exists when the outcomes of individuals are affected by their own and others’ actions

A

social interdependance

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64
Q

2 types of social interdependence

A

positive (when the actions of individuals promote the achievement of joint goals) and negative (when the actions of individuals obstruct the achievement of each other’s goals)

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65
Q

T: exists when the goal achievement of person A is affected by person B’s actions, but the reverse is not true

A

social dependance

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66
Q

exists when the goal achievement of person A is unaffected by person B’s actions and vice versa

A

social independence

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67
Q

T:exists when neither the person nor others can influence goal achievement.

A

social helplessness

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68
Q

the 3 ways interdependence can be structured in a situation are

A

positive( cooperation) negative (competition) and no interdependence

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69
Q

positive interdependence creates the psychological processes of …

A

substitutability

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70
Q

what is substitutability

A

the degree to which actions of one person substitute for the actions of another person

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71
Q

T:the investment of positive psychological energy in objects outside of oneself, such as friends, family, and work

A

positive cathexis

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72
Q

T: the openness to being influenced by and to influencing others

A

inducability

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73
Q

No interdependence can be characterized by the absence of these three psychological processes.what are they

A

inducability, positive cathexis and substitutability

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74
Q

what does promotive interaction look like

A

occurs as individuals encourage and facilitate each other’s efforts to accomplish the group’s goals

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75
Q

review figure and table 3.2

A

.

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76
Q

what does oppositional interaction look like

A

occurs as individuals discourage and obstruct one another’s efforts to achieve

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77
Q

even during postdetoxification (a period of protracted abstinence) the reward system still bears … changes

A

allostatic

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78
Q

review figure 5.3

A

.

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79
Q

what is an allosteric state

A

Allostasis, refers to situa-tions where the set point is not constant but changes in response to changes in the individual’s environment

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80
Q

both the acute, positively reinforcing effects of drug use and the negative motivational effects of drug withdrawal are pro-posed to involve increases or decreases in …5…neurotransmission within the mesolimbic dopamine sys-tem

A

dopamine, opi-oid, cannabinoid, serotonin, GABA, and glutamate

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81
Q

during acute withdrawal, there are increases in … such as corticotropin-releasing hormone

A

stress hormones

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82
Q

how does drug use influence prefrontal functions :

A

neuroadaptations have rendered the prefrontal cortex hypofunctional, which promotes a disinhibition of activity in subcortical structures that drive addiction

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83
Q

what are the 3 stages of addiction according to hedonic

A

binge/intoxication, withdrawal/negative affect, and preoccupation/anticipation

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84
Q

sensi-tization contributes to the development of addiction only during the early stages when it stimulates drug intake why is that

A

sensitization is eventually overcome by the processes of hedonic dysregulation, the term used to describe the lowering of the mood set point

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85
Q

this dysphoria can be thought of as a psychological with-drawal syndrome that can be alleviated only by taking more drug- what theory does this support

A

dependance theory

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86
Q

The concept of …permits hedonic dysregulation theory to explain relapse long after the withdrawal symptoms created by homeostatic mechanisms have disappeared.

A

allostasis

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87
Q

all drugs of abuse activate the …, which plays a pivotal role in drug addiction

A

mesolimbic dopamine system(surge of dopamine in nucleus accumbans)

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88
Q

They propose that drug addiction involves a dysfunction in information processing and integration among multiple brain regions that comprise four interrelated circuits. what are the 4

A

reward/ salience
motivation and drive
memory and conditioning
inhibitory control and executive function (all these circuits are connected

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89
Q

These circuits regulate … (e.g., nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental area), … (e.g., orbitofrontal cortex and motor cortex), … (e.g., amygdala and hippocampus), and i… (e.g., dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate

A

reward/saliency
motivation/drive
memory/conditioning
nhibitory control/executive function

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90
Q

One neuroadaptation associated with long-term drug

use is a decrease in dopamine function how does this present

A

less D2 receptors

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91
Q

how does addiction influence the prefrontal cortex?

A

Addicts show deficits in metabolic activity and/or gray matter volume in a number of cortical areas

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92
Q

chronic drug use evokes a transition in brain activity from prefrontal cortical to striatal control over …, as well as a shift in activity from the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens) to the … (caudate and putamen)

A

drug-seeking and drug-taking behavior

dorsal striatum

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93
Q

how can we explain the loss of incentive salience for natural rewards

A

Under baseline conditions (in the absence of drug and drug-associated cues), lack of pre-frontal cortical activity and, subsequently, of glutamatergic stimulation of the nucleus accumbens

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94
Q

in what way is the prefrontal cortex of addicted brain actually hyperactive

A

the hypoactive prefrontal cortex is super-sensitive to drug-associated stimuli.= motivation for drug

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95
Q

Normally, activation of these circuits would be kept in check by the prefrontal cortex. However, what happens with drug

A

a dysfunctional prefrontal cortex cannot properly regulate dopamine neu-ron activity, and, therefore, the motivational/drive and memory/conditioning circuits are left uninhibited, result-ing in compulsive drug intake

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96
Q

why is so hard for adits to admit they have a problem

A

this denial may actually be the product of dys-functional cortical circuits that mediate insight and self-awareness.

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97
Q

review 10 principles of drug addiction treatment p.114

A

/

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98
Q

is there a single treatment that works for everyone

A

no

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99
Q

drug treatment should focus solely on addiction

A

Effective treatment attends to multiple needs of the individual, not just his or her drug abuse.

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100
Q

Research indicates that most addicted individu-als need at least … in treatment to significantly reduce or stop their drug use and that the best outcomes occur with longer durations of treatment.

A

3 months

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101
Q

what is the most common addiction therapy

A

Behavioral therapies—including individual, family,

or group counseling

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102
Q

Medications are an important element of treatment

A

t

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103
Q

Many drug-addicted individuals also have other

mental disorders.

A

t

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104
Q

detoxification alone is sufficient to help addicted individuals achieve long-term abstinence.

A

f

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105
Q

Treatment does not need to be voluntary to be effec-tive

A

t

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106
Q

a users actions should be monitored for effective treatment

A

t

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107
Q

HOW DOES detoxification and medicaLLy managed WithdraWaL WORK

A

Detoxification is gener-ally considered a precursor to or a first stage of treatment as it does not address the psychological, social, and behav-ioral problems associated with addiction and therefore does not typically produce lasting behavioral changes nec-essary for recovery

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108
Q

what treatment program works best for those with jobs

A

outpatient treatment costs less than residential treatment and often is more suitable for people with jobs or exten-sive social supports. promotes drug free lifestyples

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109
Q

Short-term residential programs provide intensive but relatively brief treatment based on a modified 12-step approach how long

A

3-6weeks

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110
Q

The best-known long-term residential treatment model is the … (TC), which provides 24-hour a day care with planned lengths of stay between 6 and 12 months.

A

thera-peutic community

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111
Q

TCs focus on the … of the individual.

A

resocialization

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112
Q

what kind of therapy? are designed to engage people in treatment, provide incentives for them to remain abstinent, modify their attitudes and behaviors related to drug use, and increase their life skills to handle stressful circum-stances and environmental cues that may trigger intense craving for drugs and relapse.

A

Behavioral therapies

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113
Q

what kind of treatment: Individuals learn to identify and correct problematic behaviors through techniques intended to enhance self-control by exploring the positive and nega-tive consequences of continued use, self-monitoring to recognize drug cravings early on and to identify high-risk situations for use, and developing strategies for coping with and avoiding high-risk situations and the desire to use.

A

CBT focuses on coping strategies

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114
Q

which treatment? are based on operant conditioning principles of reinforcing drug-free urine samples with low-cost incentives such as prizes or vouchers exchangeable for food items, movie passes, and other personal goods

A

Contingency manage-ment interventions

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115
Q

what kind?Motivational interviewing principles are used to strengthen motivation to stop drug use and build a plan for change

A

motiVationaL enhancement theraPy (met)

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116
Q

what kind? such as those of Alcoholics Anonymous, Narcot-ics Anonymous, and Cocaine Anonymous are some of the most well-known behavioral treatments for addiction

A

Twelve-step pro-grams,

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117
Q

Three key aspects predominate 12 step programs

A

acceptance
surrender
active involvement

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118
Q

should adolescences treatment be the same as adult

A

nofamily involvement is very important

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119
Q

what kind? for adolescents is an outpatient approach that views adolescent drug use in terms of a network of influences (individual, family, peer, and community).

A

Multidi-mensional Family Therapy (MDFT)

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120
Q

…what kind? targets family interactions that are thought to maintain or exacerbate adolescent drug abuse and other co-occurring problem behaviors such as oppositional behavior, delinquency, associating with antisocial peers, aggressive and vio-lent behavior, and risky sexual behavior

A

Brief Strategic Family Therapy (BSFT)

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121
Q

what kind? addresses the factors associated with serious antisocial behavior of adolescents who abuse drugs.

A

Multisystemic Therapy (MST)

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122
Q

2 main subgroups of pharmacological treatments?

A

medications that reduce the aversive (withdrawal) effects of drug cessation or reduce drug reward, craving, and the likelihood of relapse

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123
Q

what are substation or replacement therapies

A

treats withdrawal by The drug of abuse could be replaced with a gradually decreasing dose of a pharmacologically similar, longer-acting medica-tion until the individual was drug free

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124
Q

Unfortunately, … is the only treatment received by the majority of addicts

A

detoxification

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125
Q

what kind of drugs act on reducing drug reward

A

These drugs may be full agonists, such as the nicotine patch or methadone, which activate the same neurotransmitter receptors as the drug of abuse

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126
Q

if drugs enter the brain more slowly; fail to produce the fast, high surge of nucleus accumbens dopa-mine; do they loose their reinforcing effects

A

yes

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127
Q

how is it productive to just administer the drug or one like it to prevent drug craving

A

Stable levels of the medication are maintained within the brain so that the user does not experience the
fluctuations of a high followed by a crash and produces cross tolerance

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128
Q

The ultimate

goal of addiction pharmacotherapy is to develop a medication capable of …

A

preventing or reversing the pathological neuroadaptations that result from chronic drug use.

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129
Q

what are biologic treatments

A

Approaches include using vaccines that stimulate the immune system to produce drug antibodies, monoclonal antibodies that bind to a drug of abuse eliminating the need for an immune system response, and genetically modified enzymes that accelerate the metabolism of abused drugs

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130
Q

how could vaccines prevent a high

A

Vaccines are developed by chemically bonding a minute amount of drug to a protein against which the immune system builds antibodies antibodies latch on to the drug molecules forming a complex that is too large to pass through the blood–brain barrier

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131
Q

what are the 9 types of positive interdependence

A 
positive goal interdependence 
positive celebration/ reward interdepedance 
positive resource interdependence 
positive role interdependence 
positive identity interdependence 
environmental independence 
positive fantasy interdependence 
positive task interdependence 
positive outside enemy interdependence
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132
Q

The group establishes a mutual identity through a name, flag, motto, or song.:T

A

positive identity interdependence

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133
Q

s putting people in a specific area in which to work. is what type of interdependence

A

enviro

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134
Q

what is Positive Fantasy Interdependence

A

A task is given that requires members to imagine that they are in a life-or-death situation and must collaborate in order to survive.

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135
Q

The numerous variables that are affected by cooperation can be subsumed within three broad and interrelated outcomes

A

(a) effort exerted to achieve, (b) quality of relationships among participants, and (c) participants’ psychological adjustment.

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136
Q

what is a meta analysis

A

is a method of statistically combining the results of a set of independent studies that test the same hypothesis and using inferential statistics to draw conclusions about the overall result of the studies.

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137
Q

The essential purpose of a meta-analysis is to summarize a set of related research studies, so that the … on the dependent variable is known.

A

size of the effect of the independent variable

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138
Q

what is one of the largest bodies of research in psychology

A

social interdepedance theory:The study of cooperative, competitive, and individualistic efforts is commonly recognized as the oldest field of research

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139
Q

The many diverse dependent variables examined in studies on social interdependence over the past 110 years can be subsumed within three broad categories

A

effort to achieve, positive interpersonal relationships, and psychological health.

140
Q

how does cooperation compare to competitive or individualistic efforts

A

2 thirds better achievement. also better attraction, self esteem and social support

141
Q

what is process gain

A

occurs when new ideas, solutions, or efforts are generated through groups that are not generated when persons work individually.

142
Q

cooperations spend more time on a task

A

t

143
Q

the pay of all members depended on the productivity of the group as a whole how does this influence productivity

A

work doubled the efficiency of the workers, increased their pay about 25%, and reduced their costs substantially compared to the flat rate previously paid to each individual.

144
Q

what’s the difference between process loss vs gain

A

Process loss occurs when fewer ideas, fewer solutions, and less effort on a learning or problem-solving task are generated within groups than by persons working individualistically

145
Q

groups produce greater group-to-individual transfer than individual-to-individual transfer what does this mean

A

individuals perform higher on individual measures of achievement after learning in cooperative groups than after learning alone

146
Q

caring and committed relationships are a luxury

A

f are necessity

147
Q

what is social judgement theory

A

The social judgments that individuals make about each other result in either a process of acceptance, resulting in mutual liking and respect, or a process of rejection, resulting in mutual dislike and lack of respect.

148
Q

which theory focuses on relationships among diverse individuals

A

social judgement theory

149
Q

The processes of acceptance and rejection are self-perpetuating what does this mean

A

Any part of the process tends to elicit all the other parts of the process.

150
Q

Any part of the process tends to elicit all the other parts of the process.:T

A

group cohesion

151
Q

doing well on a task tends to increase group cohesiveness

A

t

152
Q

is there a link between productivity and cohesivness

A

yes more cohesive is more productive

153
Q

An important question is whether the relationships formed within cooperative groups will continue voluntarily in subsequent nontask situations

A

the relationships formed within cooperative groups among heterogeneous peers do seem to generalize to post-task situations.

154
Q

Another question is whether the quality of interpersonal relationships among students is related to academic achievement.

A

if teachers want to increase early adolescents’ achievement, they should facilitate the development of friendships

155
Q

cooperative predispositions predicted the engagement in … and the absence of engaging in harm-intended aggression

A

prosocial behavior

156
Q

… is the ability to develop, maintain, and appropriately modify interdependent relationships with others to succeed in achieving goals

A

Psychological health

157
Q

cooperativeness is positively related to emotional maturity, well-adjusted social relations, strong personal identity, ability to cope with adversity, social competencies, basic trust and optimism about people, self-confidence, independence and autonomy, higher self-esteem, and increased …skills

A

perspective-taking skills

158
Q

what are perspective-taking skills

A

the ability to understand how a situation appears to other people

159
Q

how does competitiveness relate to psychological health

A

Competitiveness was in some cases positively and in some cases negatively related to psychological health

160
Q

cooperation promotes self esteem

A

t

161
Q

whereas competitive and individualistic experiences tend to promote …(being unaware of perspectives other than your own

A

egocentrism

162
Q

One of the most important sets of social competencies involves …

A

managing conflicts

163
Q

both positive and negative interdependence create conflicts among individuals

A

t

164
Q

what are 2 conflict resolution programs used in schools

A

(a) the Teaching Students to Be Peacemakers program, in which students are taught how to resolve conflicts of interest constructively by engaging in integrative negotiations and peer mediation (Johnson & Johnson, 2005b) and (b) the Academic Controversy program, in which students are taught how to challenge intellectually each other’s ideas, reasoning, and conclusions

165
Q

The higher the level of an individual’s … (e.g., depression, anger, anxiety), the less able he or she is to develop and maintain caring and committed relationships.

A

psychological pathology

166
Q

it is through … that many of the attitudes and values essential to psychological health (such as self-efficacy) are learned and adopted.

A

cooperative efforts

167
Q

Ethics, morals, and character are inherently …

A

social.

168
Q

what are the 3 ways we learn ethics

A

One is direct: professors tell students what the students’ professional ethics should be. Another is inspirational by authority figures’ exemplary modeling of ethics.
a process approach in which the group experience is structured so that members engage in ethical behavior moment-to-moment. (most effective)

169
Q

Two of the most powerful tools groups have for teaching members ethics and moral values are …

A

cooperation and constructive controversy.

170
Q

it is adaptive to have one’s self-interests thereby include the interests of others and the community as a whole

A

t

171
Q

The … region of the brain is involved in pain sensation and in defensive behavior.

A

Periaqueductal Gray (PaG)

172
Q

Stimulation of the PAG causes an imme-diate loss of pain sensation (that is, analgesia). This is because …

A

the PAG is rich in receptor sites for opioid drugs (e.g., morphine) and their endogenous counterparts, endorphins and enkephalins

173
Q

where do the PAG neurons send signal>

A

to raphe nuclei of the hindbrain which, in turn, project downward to release serotonin in the spi-nal cord, indirectly stimulating further release of endor-phins in the spinal cord to inhibit pain

174
Q

Also located in the PAG is a system that has been

described as a “…” system

A

punishment

175
Q

The PAG also receives input from a limbic structure called the …, a center that mediates fear and fear conditioning.

A

amygdala

176
Q

what are 2 highly connected motor areas

A

substantia nigra and basal ganglia

177
Q

what causes Parkinson’s disease

A

Degeneration of sub-stantia nigra dopamine cells is associated with Parkinson’s disease. (malfunction of the basal ganglia)

178
Q

figure 4.9

A

.

179
Q

what does the

ventral teGMental area (vta) do

A

component of reward circuit dopamine production sent to other areas also GABA production

180
Q

stimulation of the medial fore-brain bundle projection that runs between the … and… is associated with pleasure and has been implicated in drug euphoria and addiction, as well as in schizophrenia

A

VTA and the nucleus accumbens

181
Q

which structures are in the forebrain

A

basal ganglia

182
Q

structures in the midbrain?

A

Reticular formation
PAG
substantia nigra
VTA

183
Q

what do basal ganglia do

A

voluntary movement, classical conditioning and memory for locations

184
Q

how many nuclei does basal ganglia have

A

many

185
Q

The … is the largest component of the basal ganglia and is the major input center for information from the cortex and thala-mus.

A

striatum

186
Q

??The striatum can be subdivided as follows: the dor-sal striatum includes the caudate nucleus and the putamen (together, referred to as the neostriatum), along with the fundus which links them; the ventral striatum includes the olfactory tubercule and the nucleus accumbens, which you recall is part of the medial forebrain bundle—the brain’s pleasure pathway.

A

/

187
Q

Projections from the striatum are sent to the … which is the output side of the basal ganglia

A

globus pallidus (or pallidum)

188
Q

The globus pallidus projects to an additional component of the basal ganglia called the … nucleus, and also sends projections back via the thalamus to a motor area of the cortex

A

subthalamic

189
Q

what 3 things make up the motor loop

A

basal ganglia, thalamus and cortex

190
Q

is substantia nigra in the basal ganglia

A

sometimes considered apart of the structure

191
Q

why do Parkinson’s take L dopa not dopamine

A

can pass through blood brain barrier

192
Q

what would be a side effect of antipsychotic drugs that block l dopa

A

pseudopar-kinsonism—symptoms that resemble Parkinson’s disease

193
Q

The system that connects the motor cortex to the muscles is called the …

A

pyramidal motor system

194
Q

the system involv-ing the basal ganglia and substantia nigra is called the …

A

extrapyramidal motor system.

195
Q

what are the parts of the limbic system?

A

thalamus, hippocampus, mammillary bodies, and cingulate gyrus (the insular cortex, orbitofrontal cortex, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex, subcallosal gyrus, and parahippocampal gyrus olfactory bulb, amygdala, septal nuclei, and fornix)

196
Q

the ventral tegmental area, which is a midbrain structure, may also be considered part of the limbic system …why

A

due to their intricate connections and extensive communication with other limbic structures.

197
Q

placement and job of hippocampus

A

The hippocampus is a large limbic structure located beneath the cortex in the temporal lobe
learning and memory

198
Q

what happens if you remove hippocampus

A

amnesia and an inability to form new declarative memories. no spatial memory

199
Q

what does stress do to hippo

A

shrinks it

200
Q

do drugs interact with hip

A

yes may be apart of state dependant learning and association of place and drug

201
Q

function of amygdala

A

the processing of emotions, especially negative emotions such as fear and rage; in the formation of emotional memory; and in behav-ioral reactivity, especially aggression

202
Q

what disorder causes lots of Amy activity

A

PTSD (destruction causes calm placid state

203
Q

review figure 4 10

A

.

204
Q

location and job of thalamus

A

centre of brain

relay center, transmitting information from sensory organs to where it needs to be processed

205
Q

job and position of hypothalamus

A

tiny with lots of nuclei
primary recipient of information flowing from the limbic system regulates body temperature, blood pressure, fluid balance, and concentrations of glu-cose and sodium

206
Q

how are the forebrain structures functions similar

A

they are all concerned with maintain-ing homeostasis, or functional balance, in the body

207
Q

what It governs instinctual behavior and emotions.

A

hypothalamus

208
Q

does the hypothalamus deal with hormones

A

yes sometimes releases hormones directly

209
Q

2 routes hypothalamus uses?

A

to medulla

to pituitary

210
Q

what in the medulla that hypothalamus signals want to get to

A

descending reticular formation wherein control centers for the autonomic nervous system are located.(can control control heart and breathing rates, digestion, perspiration, vasoconstrictionect)

211
Q

2 routes from the hypo to the pituitary

A

tuberoinfundibular tract or the hypothalamo-hypophysial tract

or the hypophyseal portal system

212
Q

how does hypo communicate with pit thorough portal

A

control the pituitary gland in a more indirect way, secreting hormones (called releasing factors or releasing hormones) into a set of blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus and the anterior (front) portion of the pituitary. stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete its own hormones, such as ACTH or luteinizing hormone, into the bloodstream.

213
Q

lesion that what area causes excessive drinking and eating

A

hypothalamus

214
Q

They have also been called pleasure centers because humans sometimes report experiencing pleasure when these areas of the brain are stimulated electrically what are they actually

A

motivation centers

215
Q

The benzodiaz-epines enhance … and this increased inhibition in the limbic system may be one mechanism reduce aggression in nonhumans and produce a calming effect

A

the inhibitory effects of GABA

216
Q

how thick is cortex covering the brain …

A

3 mm

217
Q

what does cortex relationship with sensory info

A

integration of sensory info

218
Q

Information from sense organs is projected to different parts of the cortex. what are these areas called

A

somatosensory, auditory, visual

219
Q

The … cortex is the principal area responsi-ble for commanding voluntary motor actions

A

primary motor

220
Q

where is primary motor located

A

frontal loves

221
Q

Cell bodies residing in the primary motor cortex send their axons down through the midbrain and pons, into the lower portion of the medulla where they cross over to the contralateral (opposite) side of the body and enter the spi-nal cord. what does crossover mean

A

Because of the crossover in the lower medulla, neurons originating in the left side of the motor cortex initiate movement on the right side of body and vice versa

222
Q

Motor commands are anticipated and planned outside of the primary motor cortex, in …

A

asso-ciation motor areas.

223
Q

While sensory and motor functions are handled mainly by central and posterior parts of the cortex where are higher mental processes governed

A

mental processes of thought and cognition are governed mostly in rostral areas of the brain

224
Q

All of the cortex that sits rostral to the primary motor cortex and its adjacent association motor areas in the frontal lobe is referred to as the …

A

prefrontal cor-tex.

225
Q

where does prefrontal recieve info from

A

prefrontal

226
Q

what part of brain deals with reinforcers

A

prefrontal

227
Q

which disorder effects the prefrontal cortex

A

alz

228
Q

…2 (limbic structures) mediate attention; response competition and selection; suppression of prepotent response tendencies; conditioned drug seeking; and craving, learning, and memory.

A

The cingulate cortex and entorhinal cortex

229
Q

review figure 4 11

A

.

230
Q

Drugs that cause such malformations are called ….

A

teratogens

231
Q

2 REASONS BEHAVIOUR ALTERING DRUGS ARE ESPECIALLY POTENT TETROGENS ?

A

in order to be behaviorally active, drugs must readily penetrate the brain. This prop-erty also gives these drugs easy access across the placenta to the body of the developing fetus. Second, drugs that act to alter the functioning of neurotransmitters are particu-larly dangerous because of the way the nervous system develops.

232
Q

when do baby neurons form

A

form during the first 12 weeks after conception, at a rate of 150,000 cells per minute!

233
Q

Nerve cells develop in babies in the part of the brain that they are destined to occupy during adulthood.

A

f have to migrate

234
Q

The formation, differentiation, and migration of cells;

the projection of axons; and the formation of synapses are all under ….

A

chemical control. = very susceptible to drug disruption in brain development

235
Q

disruptions may appear mild and be detectable only with careful system-atic observation of an individual’s behavior :T

A

functional or behavioural teratology

236
Q

Functional distur-bances may include from drugs during pregnancy ?

A

learning disability, deficits in executive functioning (decision-making, planning, prob-lem-solving, and memory), and communication and social difficulties.

237
Q

are all chemicals that act in the brain NT?

A

no

238
Q

4 criteria to be an NT?

A

(a) the sub-stance is synthesized within the neuron by coexisting enzymes, (b) the substance is released in response to cell depolarization, (c) the substance binds to receptors to alter the postsynaptic cell, and (d) the substance is removed or deactivated by some mechanism within the synaptic cleft

239
Q

how many NT found

A

50

240
Q

Most neurotransmitter substances are …. which are stored in synaptic vesicles and released from the terminal button in response to an action potentia

A

small molecule

neurotransmitters

241
Q

These neurotransmitters are synthesized from precursors under the guidance of … created in the neuron’s cell body and then transported to the axon terminal. Small molecule neurotransmitters act principally in their …. to stimulate ionotropic or metabo-tropic receptors in a rapid, brief manner.

A

enzymes

release zone

242
Q

Dif types of NT?

A

small molecule NT

large molecule NT

243
Q

what make up large molecule NT

A

comprised of short chains of amino acids

244
Q

figure 4.12

A

?

245
Q

what cleave (chop) the larger amino acid chain into its smaller neuropeptide forms.

A

enzymes

246
Q

When released, many neuropeptides act as …, diffusing away from their release zone and almost always binding to metabotropic receptors to produce slow, long-lasting effects

A

.neuromodulators

247
Q

how does the reuptake of neuropeptides and small NT differ

A

Neuropeptides are degraded in the synaptic cleft by enzymes and do not undergo reuptake into the terminal button, as small molecule neurotrans-mitters do.

248
Q

For years, many of the neuroactive peptides have been

known as …

A

hormones

249
Q

what is a hormones

A

a chemical messenger released into the bloodstream by a gland or by endocrine cells of some organs

250
Q

can a body use a peptide as both a NT and a hormone

A

yes

251
Q

difference between hormones and NT?

A

Whereas neurotransmitters carry messages over very short distances, a hormone circulates throughout the body and has an effect on some biological process distant from the place where it is released.

252
Q

NT or hormone? be released near a brain structure and may exert effects on many synapses simultaneously

A

These substances are acting more as a hormone than a transmitter and are sometimes called neurohormones when they act in this capacity

253
Q

best understood NT?

A

acetylcholine (ACh), which is a small molecule neurotransmitter

254
Q

Another family of small molecule neurotransmitters, called …., is composed of: the catecholamines, which include dopamine (DA), norepinephrine (NE), and epinephrine (E); the indolamine serotonin, which is often called 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT); and the imidazolamine histamine (H)

A

biogenic amines or monoamines

255
Q

can an amino acid be a small NT?

A

yes

256
Q

4 most common amino acid NT?

A

glutamate
aspartame
GABA
glycine (also serve metabolic and biological functions)

257
Q

The large molecule neuropeptides include the …, which are morphine-like molecules such as beta-endor-phin, enkephalins, dynorphins, endomorphins, and nociceptin.

A

opioid pep-tides

258
Q

every neuron pro-duced a single neurotransmitter and released that same substance at every one of its synapses:T

A

dales law

259
Q

why is dales law proven false

A

many neurons produce and release more than one substance from their synapses, usually a small molecule neurotransmitter and a neuropeptide

260
Q

how do we classify neurons

A

off of the primary NT they release

261
Q

NT that release acetylcholine are called … neurons.

A

cholinergic (Those that use dopamine are dopaminergic, those that use serotonin are serotonergic, and so on.)

262
Q

does each neuron usually have the same effect

A

no depends on receptor site it binds to

263
Q

a substance released from a neuron into the synaptic cleft can be either … or … and … or …

A

an excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmitter or a neuromodulator

264
Q

do we need to know table 4.1

A

.

265
Q

where do drugs have their effect

A

neurotransmitter synthesis, release, action, and deactivation.

266
Q

—they are drug actions that facilitate either excitatory or inhibitory cell communication of a par-ticular neurotransmitter.:T

A

agonistic

267
Q

they are drug actions that impede either excitatory or inhibitory cell communication by a particular neurotransmitter.
:T

A

antagonistic

268
Q

When an externally administered drug binds to and activates a receptor, mim-icking the effects of a neurotransmitter, it is referred to as a ….

A

direct agonist

269
Q

When a drug increases or facilitates the effect of a neurotransmitter, but does not mimic its action, it is called an …

A

indirect agonist.

270
Q

what is non-competitive binding

A

binds to sites but does not prevent main NT from binding

271
Q

T: receptor attraction and holding tenacity

A

binding affinity

272
Q

what is a partial agonist

A

A drug that has a high binding affinity (that is, receptor attraction and holding tenacity) for a particular receptor but that activates that receptor only weakly, to a lesser degree than would its natural ligand (neurotransmitter), is referred to as a partial agonist

273
Q

A mixed agonist–antagonist is a drug that …

A

acts as an agonist at one receptor subtype while acting as an antag-onist at another receptor subtype.

274
Q

figure 4;13

A

!

275
Q

how can you tell facilitating inhibitory over impeding excitatory ?

A

??

276
Q

receptor blockers, direct antagonists, or competitive antagonists is the same name for what function

A

bind to receptor sites but do not activate them at all, instead preventing the neurotransmitter from binding and exerting its effect.

277
Q

the drug produces an effect opposite that of the neurotransmitter. what kind of drug action

A

antagonistic or inverse agonists

278
Q

naloxone facilitators (agonists) of an opposite (inverse) response is what kind of drug

A

inverse agonist

279
Q

what do Indirect antagonists

A

binding site on a

receptor complex and interfere with neurotransmission, but without blocking the binding site for the neurotransmitter.

280
Q

When drugs act as receptor blockers, binding will decrease neurotransmis-sion to what 2 areas

A

to the postsynaptic cell as well as activity in the auto-receptor.

281
Q

what is the effect When drugs act as receptor blockers, binding will decrease neurotransmis-sion to the postsynaptic cell as well as activity in the auto-receptor. This decrease in autoreceptor activity stimulates the cell to produce more neurotransmitter to compensate for the decreased activity at the postsynaptic site

A

thus can-celing the effect of the receptor blocker on the postsynaptic cell.

282
Q

need to know table 4.2

A

?

283
Q

what combines to make Ach

A

It is synthesized in cholinergic cells by com-bining acetate and choline with the help of the enzyme cho-line acetyltransferase.

284
Q

ACh molecules that leak from
presynaptic storage vesicles and those released into the synaptic cleft in response to an action potential are quickly …

A

degraded by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase (AChE).

285
Q

what happens to the rest of Ach

A

choline molecule is taken back into the presynaptic cell by choline receptor transporter proteins located in the mem-brane of the axon terminal.

286
Q

There are two major systems of cholinergic neurons

that project through the brain

A

from mesopontine tegmentum area

or from basal forebrain area

287
Q

review 4.14

A

.

288
Q

4 major NT system?

A

Ach
seretonin
dopamine
nonepinepherine

289
Q

Within the basal forebrain complex sit two

structures called the basal nucleus of Meynert and the medial septal nuclei what do their axons release

A

Ach

290
Q

what system plays a large role on memory and learning

A

cholinergic system

291
Q

what disease has a loss of Achievement neaurotransmition

A

ALz

292
Q

what are the 2 major ACH systems

A

basal nucleus of Meynert and the medial septal nuclei in basal forebrain complex
in a part of the pons called the mesopontine tegmentum area

293
Q

does the mesopontine tegmentum area play a role in sleep

A

yes REM

294
Q

recep-tors for ACh are also found in the ventral tegmental area, which you’ll recall is a vital component of the brain’s …

A

reward system.

295
Q

how does aCH relate to drug abuse

A

reward and diccitve properties of drugs

296
Q

can ACH reeptor sites be influenced by other substances

A

yes

297
Q

Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are iono-tropic. When stimulated, the ion channel opens to allow influx of Na+ ions and efflux of K+ ions, producing EPSPs. They are stimulated by nicotine (a direct agonist) and inhib-ited by a drug called curare (a receptor blocker). what does curare do

A

paralyses muscles= dead
nicotinic receptors are also present at neuromuscu-lar junctions, where terminal buttons of motor neurons syn-apse with muscle fibers in the PNS

298
Q

how does botox work

A

blocks ACH at muscular junctions preventing muscles from contracting

299
Q

Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are classified into five different subtypes (M1–5), based on their …

A

pharmacological activity

300
Q

what happens when Ach binds to Muscarinic cholinergic receptors

A

metatropic action

acti-vates second messenger systems to open K+ and Cl–ion channels and hyperpoloarize the cell.

301
Q

In the PNS, muscarinic recep-tors are involved in the functioning of the …

A

autonomic ner-vous system

302
Q

The catecholamines—DA, NE, and E—and the indolamine 5-HT are all monoamines, meaning …

A

they are synthesized from a single amino acid.

303
Q

In the case of the catecholamines, the amino acid precursor is .., which is not only pro-duced by the body but also consumed in foods.

A

tyrosine

304
Q

Tyrosine hydroxylase is referred to as a rate-limiting enzyme, meaning …

A

that the amount of catecholamine synthesized depends on the availability of that enzyme.

305
Q

When axon terminal neu-rotransmitter levels rise significantly, tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited; when the neuron is firing at a high rate and neurotransmitter is being released quickly, tyrosine hydrox-ylase is facilitated

A

are these not saying the same thing?

306
Q

review figure 4.15

A

.

307
Q

The synaptic vesicles of noradrenergic neurons

contain an enzyme that dopaminergic neurons do not; this enzyme is called dopamine beta-hydroxylase and it converts …

A

DA into NE.

308
Q

reread 4.5.3 monoamines

A

pls

309
Q

Dopaminergic neurons form four major systems in the brain. how does it act in all 4

A 
tuberoinfundibular pathway (dopamine acts as a neu-rohormone) 
3 others acts as an NT
310
Q

nigrostriatal pathway, dopamine cell bodies in the substantia nigra of the midbrain project their axons to the dorsal striatum how can you tell this from the name

A

The location of dopamine cell bod-ies is indicated by the first part of the pathway’s name, and the location of axon terminals is indicated by the second part.

311
Q

what are the 4 dopamine pathways

A

nigrostriatal pathway
tuberoinfundibular pathway
mesocortical pathway
mesolimbic pathway

312
Q

nigrostriatal pathway does what

A

(degeneration of feels here = Parkinson’s)plays an important role in the control of motor movement,

313
Q

where are meso dopamine systems located

A

in Ventral tegmental area

314
Q

why are meso dopamine areas of interest to researchers

A

play in the positively reinforc-ing and motivational aspects of drug use, and because they are implicated in schizophrenia

315
Q

All highly addictive drugs, including amphetamine, cocaine, nicotine, and alcohol, increase activity of these meso pathways and, in particular, elevate dopamine release in the …

A

nucleus accumbens

316
Q

Dopaminergic activity is greatly modulated by a number of other neurotransmitter systems whose afferents terminate in the …

A

VTA.

317
Q

Drugs used to treat psychotic disorders selectively block ..receptors, but some of the newer anti-psychotic drugs also have effects on other dopamine receptors

A

D2

318
Q

The major noradrenergic system in the brain consists of cell bodies that reside in an area of the
pons called the …

A

locus coeruleus

319
Q

what does nonepinepherine do

A

Norepinephrine plays a role in attention, sleep and wakefulness, feeding behaviors,

320
Q

Dysfunction of the NE system is linked with …

A

depression and attention-deficit disorders

321
Q

All four norad-renergic receptor subtypes are …: alpha1, beta1, and beta2 are excitatory whereas alpha2 is inhibitory and acts as an autoreceptor

A

metabotropic

322
Q

what do NE receptors do in the PNS

A

mediate hormonal control of various organs by catecholamines and activation of the autonomic nervous system.

323
Q

The major collections of cell bodies for sero-tonin sit within seven brainstem …which project to different regions of the CNS

A

raphe nuclei

324
Q

The raphe nuclei of the medulla oblongata project to the lower brainstem and spinal cord where they control the release of enkephalins to decrease …

A

pain sensitivity

325
Q

…—the strengthening of connections between neurons—is the neurochemical foundation of learning and memory

A

synaptic plasticity

326
Q

what happens if NMDA receptor acitvation is impeded

A

impede learning and memory Modification of this system, brought about by chronic drug use, has also been linked with craving and addiction

327
Q

This provides an anatomical basis for DA-glutamate interactions in regulating …

A

addiction.

328
Q

GABA is synthesized in GABAergic cells from the amino acid …, which is converted to glutamate by the enzyme glutaminase

A

glutamine

329
Q

In GABAergic neurons, there is an additional enzyme called glutamic acid decarboxyl-ase (GAD) that is not present in glutamatergic neurons or in glia. GAD is the rate-limiting enzyme that con-verts glutamate to GABA what coenzyme is needed for this

A

vitamin B6

330
Q

A diet deficient in vitamin B6 can lead to a decrease in GABA synthesis, resulting in …

A

convulsions and possibly death

331
Q

Following exocytosis, GABA is taken back into the presynaptic cell via reuptake transporters, and into glial cells where it is converted into …

A

glutamate and then glutamine.

332
Q

This provides an anatomical basis for DA-glutamate interactions in regulating …

A

addiction.

333
Q

GABA is synthesized in GABAergic cells from the amino acid …, which is converted to glutamate by the enzyme glutaminase

A

glutamine

334
Q

In GABAergic neurons, there is an additional enzyme called glutamic acid decarboxyl-ase (GAD) that is not present in glutamatergic neurons or in glia. GAD is the rate-limiting enzyme that con-verts glutamate to GABA what coenzyme is needed for this

A

vitamin B6

335
Q

A diet deficient in vitamin B6 can lead to a decrease in GABA synthesis, resulting in …

A

convulsions and possibly death

336
Q

Following exocytosis, GABA is taken back into the presynaptic cell via reuptake transporters, and into glial cells where it is converted into …

A

glutamate and then glutamine.

337
Q

GABA binds to two classes of receptors: GABAA receptors and GABAB receptors what’s the difference between these 2

A

GABAA receptors are ionotropic

GABAB receptors are metabotropic G-protein-linked receptors

338
Q

GABA a has an orthosteric site what does this means

A

?

339
Q

what are gabab effects

A

. Their activation influences intracellular enzymes, such as adenylate cyclase, to modulate synthesis of the second-messenger cAMP. GABAB receptor stimulation also inhibits Ca2+ channel conductance and enhances the opening of K+ channels, hyperpolarizing the neuron.

340
Q

GABAB receptors are found presynaptically on GABAergic axon terminals and on the dendrites and cell bodies of GABAergic neurons corresponding to the location of GABAergic terminals; here, they act as autoreceptors to …

A

inhibit GABA release

341
Q

what is a negative allosteric modulator

A

If the effects of GABA are diminished, the drug is a negative allosteric modulator;

342
Q

how are NMDA and GABA a similar

A

Like NMDA receptors, GABAA receptors contain

numerous binding sites, located both externally and internally

343
Q

GABA a has an orthosteric site what does this means

A

?

344
Q

In addition to an orthosteric site, the GABAA receptor complex contains .. binding sites to which other ligands, such as drug molecules, can attach.

A

allosteric

345
Q

If there is an enhancement of GABAergic trans-mission, the drug is called a ..; alcohol, for example, is a positive allosteric modulator.

A

.positive allosteric modulator

346
Q

what is a negative allosteric modulator

A

If the effects of GABA are diminished, the drug is a negative allosteric modulator;

414 (7 decks)

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