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AA3. VMCB 311 > Chapter 3 > Flashcards

Chapter 3 Flashcards

1
Q

population of bacteria grown in the laboratory is referred to as

A

culture

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2
Q

contains only one single type of bacteria

A

pure culture

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3
Q

bacterial cultures must be periodically transferred to new media to keep the bacterial population growing

A

subcultured

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4
Q

means using practices and procedures to prevent contamination from pathogens. It involves applying the strictest rules to minimize the risk of infection.

A

aseptic technique

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5
Q

Indications for various culture methods

A
  1. Isolate bacteria in pure culture and identify the same by performing various tests.
  2. Demonstrate biochemical, antigenic, and other phenotypic and genomic
    properties of the isolated colonies.
  3. Demonstrate susceptibility of the isolated bacteria to antibiotics, bacteriophages, bacteriocins, etc.
  4. Prepare antigens for various uses.
  5. Maintain stock culture. 6. Estimate viable counts.
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6
Q

most effective way to isolate a single type of bacteria from a source that contains many by diluting the individual cells by
spreading them over the surface of an agar plate using a platinum or inoculating
loop of 2–4 mm diameter

A

streak plate method

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7
Q

piles of bacterial cells observed after an incubation period are called

A

colonies

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8
Q

Lawn culture method is used for (3)

A

(a) Antibiotic susceptibility testing by disk diffusion method

(b) Bacteriophage typing

(c) For preparation of bacterial antigens and vaccines

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9
Q

prepared by flooding the surface of the plate with a liquid culture or suspension of the bacterium, pipetting off the excess inoculum and incubating the plate

A

lawn culture

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10
Q

Stab culture is used for (4)

A

(a) mainly for demonstration of gelatin
liquefaction

(b) demonstration of oxygen requirement of the bacterium under
study

(c) for the maintenance of stock cultures

(d) to study motility of bacteria in
semisolid agar

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11
Q

used to determine approximate
number of viable organisms in liquids, such as water or urine

A

pour plate culture

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12
Q

a deep culture of agar or gelatin through which the inoculum is evenly distributed by shaking before the medium is solidified and which is used chiefly for the demonstration of anaerobic colonies

A

shake culture

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13
Q

liquid culture is used for (3)

A

(a) blood culture and for sterility
(b) dilution in the medium
(c) large yields culture

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14
Q

does not provide a pure culture from mixed inocula—the major disadvantage, nor identify a bacteria

A

Liquid culture

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15
Q

examples of organisms that grow better in air supplemented with 5-10 % CO2

A

Pneumococcus and gonococcus

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16
Q

a method routinely employed in clinical bacteriology and enables the isolation of distinct colonies which may be picked out, if necessary for further purification and study

A

Surface Plating

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17
Q

majority of organisms likely to be associated with those for which the media are used will not grow, and the isolation of pure cultures is thus facilitated

A

selective media

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18
Q

media such as selenite broth for Salmonella sp, favor the multiplication of particular species as a step towards their isolation in pure culture

A

enrichment media

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19
Q

media, such as Willis and Hobbs medium for Clostridium sp, contain ingredients that change in appearance with particular
organisms and so assist their isolation

A

indicator media

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20
Q

What are the two forms in selective treatment of the specimen before culture?

A

i. Heating at 65°C for 30 minutes or at higher temperatures for shorter period

i. Heating at 65°C for 30 minutes or at higher temperatures for shorter period

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21
Q

This consists of a tube of semisolid agar, with a narrow tube open at both ends placed in the center of the medium in such a way that it projects above the level of the agar

A

cragie’s tube

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22
Q

Pathogenic bacteria may be isolated from mixtures by inoculation into appropriate animals due to the fact that laboratory animals are highly susceptible to certain organisms for example, the mouse to the pneumococcus

A

animal inoculation

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23
Q

Elements of aseptic environment

A
  1. Quiet area
  2. Work surface
  3. Personal Hygiene
  4. Reagents media
  5. Cultures
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24
Q

Sterile Handling

A
  1. swabing
  2. capping
  3. flaming
  4. handling bottles and flasks
  5. pippeting
  6. pouring
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25
Q

air blows from the side facing you, parallel to the work surface, and
not circulated

A

horizontal safety cabinet

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26
Q

air blows down from the top of the hood onto the
work surface and is drawn through the work surface and either recirculated or vented

A

vertical safety cabinets

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27
Q

major source of contamination

A

humidified incubators

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28
Q

suggested agar as a base for culture media

A

Fannie Eilshemius Hesse

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29
Q

developed the pour plate method and was the first to use solid culture media
for culture of bacteria

A

Robert Koch

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30
Q

developed petri dish

A

Richard Petri

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31
Q

A nutrient material prepared for the growth of microorganisms in a
laboratory

A

culture medium

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32
Q

microbes are introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth

A

inoculum

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33
Q

microbes that grow and multiply in or on a culture medium

A

culture

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34
Q

process of growing microorganisms in culture by taking bacteria
from the infection site (i.e. in vivo environment) by some means of specimen
collection and growing them in the artificial environment of the laboratory (i.e. the in
vitro environment)

A

cultivation

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35
Q

laboratory culture containing a single species of organism

A

pure culture

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36
Q

What are the different purposes of bacterial cultivation?

A
  1. Grow and isolate all bacteria present in an infection.
  2. Infection and contaminants or colonizers: To determine which of the bacteria that
    grow are most likely causing infection and which are likely contaminants or
    colonizers.
  3. Identification and characterization.
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37
Q

Tap water with low mineral content is often suitable for culture media. What is the best used water for culture media?

A

glass-distilled or demineralized water

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38
Q

agar is derived from?

A

seaweed

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39
Q

complex mixture of partially digested proteins

A

peptone

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40
Q

does not add to the nutritive properties of a medium and is not affected by the growth of bacteria

A

agar

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41
Q

contains a wide range of amino acids, growth factors and inorganic salts

A

yeast extract

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42
Q

used mainly as a comprehensive source of growth factors and may be substituted for meat extract in culture media

A

yeast extract

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43
Q

consists mainly of maltose (about 50%), starch, dextrins and glucose, and contains about 5 percent of proteins and protein breakdown products, and a wide range of mineral salts and growth factors

A

malt extract

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44
Q

used for enriching culture media

A

blood and serum

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45
Q

Used for obtaining bacterial growth from blood or water when large volumes have to be tested, and for preparing bulk cultures of antigens or vaccines

A

liquid (broth) media

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46
Q

made by adding a solidifying agent to
the nutrients and water

A

solid agar media

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47
Q

most common solidifying agent

A

agarose

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48
Q

For special purposes where agar is added to media in concentrations that are too low to solidify them. At 0.2 to 0.5 percent it yields a semisolid medium through which motile, but not non motile, bacteria may spread

A

semisolid media

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49
Q

include nutrient broth and peptone water, which form the basis of other media

A

simple (basal) media

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50
Q

an example of a simple liquid medium that consists of peptone, meat extract, sodium chloride, and water

A

nutrient broth

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51
Q

an example of a simple solid medium. The medium is used routinely for isolation of many bacteria from clinical specimens

A

nutrient agar

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52
Q

media that contain some ingredients of unknown
chemical composition

A

complex media

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53
Q

a synthetic kind of medium which contains known quantities of all
ingredients used but does not contain any animal, yeast, or plant tissue

A

defined media

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54
Q

Defined media consists of?

A

(1) Trace elements and vitamins

(2) A defined carbon source and nitrogen source required by certain microbes

55
Q

invariably solid media that facilitate growth of certain fastidious bacteria. These media are prepared by adding substances like blood, serum, and egg to the basal media in order to meet the nutritional requirements of more exacting and more fastidious bacteria

A

enriched media

56
Q

Give examples of enriched media.

A

Blood agar, chocolate agar, Loeffler’s serum slope

57
Q

liquid media that stimulate the growth of certain bacteria or suppress the growth of others for isolation of desired pathogenic bacteria

A

enrichment media

58
Q

selenite-F broth or tetrathionate broth) are used for the isolation of?

A

Salmonella typhi, Shigella spp. from feces

59
Q

solid media that contain substances that inhibit the growth of all but a few bacteria but at the same time facilitate isolation of certain bacteria

A

selective media

60
Q

distinguish one microorganism from another growing on the same media by their growth characteristics

A

differential or indicator media

61
Q

differential for lactose
and sucrose fermentation

A

Eosine methylene blue

62
Q

differential for lactose fermentation

A

MacConkey

63
Q

differential for mannitol fermentation

A

Mannitol salt agar (MSA)

64
Q

differential for lac operon mutants for detection of recombinant strains of bacteria for study in molecular biology

A

X-gal plates

65
Q

used to maintain the viability of certain delicate organisms in clinical specimens during their transport to the laboratory

A

transport media

66
Q

transport media contains mainly?

A

buffers and salt

67
Q

give example of transport media and its bacteria

A

Stuart’s transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

68
Q

used for the short-term storage of bacterial
cultures

A

refrigeration

69
Q

a process in which a pure culture of microbes is placed in a suspending liquid and quick-frozen at temperatures ranging from - 50º to -95°C

A

deep freezing

70
Q

a suspension of microbes is quickly frozen at temperatures ranging from -54º to -95ºC, and the water is removed by a high vacuum (sublimation)

A

lyophilization (freeze drying)

71
Q

common method of preserving strains of bacteria

A

cold storage

72
Q

a process by which an article, surface, or medium is freed of all living microorganisms either in the vegetative or in the spore state

A

sterilization

73
Q

any material that has been subjected to sterilization

A

sterile

74
Q

a chemical agent that is used to perform sterilization because of their
ability to destroy spores

A

sterilants

75
Q

also called a microbicide, is any chemical agent that kills pathogenic microorganisms either on inanimate (nonliving) materials or on living tissue but not resistant microbial cells

A

germicide

76
Q

use of a chemical agent that destroys or removes all pathogenic organisms; used only on inanimate objects because they can be toxic to human and other animal tissue, when used in higher concentrations

A

disinfection

77
Q

defined as the growth of microorganisms in the body or the presence of microbial toxins in blood and other tissues

A

sepsis

78
Q

refers to any practice that prevents the entry of infectious agents into
sterile tissues and thus prevents infection

A

asepsis

79
Q

chemical agents applied directly to the exposed body surfaces
(e.g., skin and mucous membranes), wounds, and surgical incisions to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens

A

antiseptics

80
Q

any cleansing technique that mechanically removes
microorganisms (along with food debris) to reduce the level of contaminants

A

sanitization

81
Q

a compound (e.g., soap or detergent) that is used to perform sanitization

A

sanitizer

82
Q

reduces airborne microbes in hospital rooms, veterinary clinics, and laboratory installations

A

air sanitation with UV lamps

83
Q

a process usually involves scrubbing the skin or immersing it in chemicals, or both

A

degerming/antisepsis

84
Q

What are the methods of controlling microorganisms?

A
  1. Sterilization
  2. Disinfection
  3. Antimicrobial
85
Q

a natural method of sterilization of water in tanks, rivers, and lakes.

A

sunlight

86
Q

one of the most dependable method of sterilization

A

heat

87
Q

occurs in the form of hot water, boiling water, or steam (vaporized water) and the temperature usually ranges from 60 to 135°C

A

sterilization by moist heat

88
Q

kills microorganisms by denaturation and coagulation of
proteins

A

moist heat

89
Q

a technique in which heat is applied to liquids to kill potential agents of infection and spoilage, while at the same time retaining the liquid’s flavor and food value

A

pasteurization

90
Q

product is exposed to heat at 72°C for 15–20 seconds followed by a
sudden cooling to 13°C or lower

A

flash method

91
Q

product is
exposed to a temperature of 63°C for 30 minutes followed by cooling to
13°C or lower, but not less than 6°C

A

holder method

92
Q

True or false.

Pasteurization inactivates most viruses and destroys the vegetative stages of 97–99% of bacteria and fungi, it does not kill endospores or thermoduric species (mostly nonpathogenic lactobacilli, micrococci, and yeasts)

A

True.

93
Q

Two types of sterilization at a temperature of 100°C

A

Boiling and Steam sterilizer at 100°C

94
Q

substances are exposed to steam at
atmospheric pressure for 90 minutes during which most vegetative
forms of the bacteria except for the thermophiles are killed by the moist
heat

A

Steam sterilizer at 100°C

95
Q

carried out over a period of 3 days and requires a chamber to hold the materials and a reservoir for boiling water

A

tyndallization

96
Q

the temperature is adequate to kill all the vegetative forms of the
bacteria, yeasts, and molds but not sufficient to kill spores.

A

1st day

97
Q

surviving spores are allowed to germinate to vegetative forms and are killed on re-exposure to steam

A

2nd day

98
Q

re-ensures killing of all the spores by their germination to vegetative forms

A

3rd day

99
Q

makes use of air with a low moisture content that has been heated by a flame or electric heating coil

A

sterilization by dry heat

100
Q

Sterilization of inoculating loop or wire, the tip of forceps, searing spatulas, etc., is carried out by holding them in the flame of the Bunsen burner till they become red hot.

A

flaming

101
Q

an excellent method for safely destroying infective materials by burning them to ashes.

A

incineration

102
Q

electrically heated and is fitted with a
fan to ensure adequate and even distribution of hot air in the chamber

A

hot air oven

103
Q

remove contaminating microorganisms from solutions rather than directly destroying them

A

filtration

104
Q

excellent sterilizing agent
with very high penetrating power. These radiations penetrate deep into objects and destroy bacterial endospores and vegetative cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic but not that effective against viruses

A

ionizing radiations

105
Q

used for sterilization of antibiotics, hormones, sutures, catheters, animal feeds, metal foils, and plastic disposables, such as syringes, meat and other food items

A

gamma rays

106
Q

Use of high-frequency sound (sonic) waves beyond the sensitivity
of the human ear are known to disrupt cells

A

sonication

107
Q

transmits vibrations
through a water-filled chamber to induce pressure changes and create intense points of turbulence that can stress and burst cells in the vicinity

A

sonication

108
Q

The process of inactivating microorganisms by direct exposure to chemical or physical agents

A

disinfection

109
Q

are products or biocides that destroy or inhibit the growth of
microorganisms on inanimate objects or surfaces

A

disinfectants

110
Q

are biocides or products that destroy
or inhibit the growth of microorganisms in or on living tissue

A

antiseptics

111
Q

What are the properties of ideal disinfectant?

A
  1. Wide spectrum of antimicrobial activity.
  2. Act in the presence of organic matter.
  3. Not toxic to human or corrosive.’
  4. Stable during storage and not undergo any chemical change.
  5. Odorless or with pleasant odor.
  6. Soluble in water nd lipids for penetration into microorganisms.
  7. Effective in acidic as well as alkaline in media.
  8. Have speedy action.
  9. If possible, should be relatively inexpensive.
112
Q

What are the actions of disinfectants?

A
  1. Produce damage to the cell wall and alter permeability of the cell membrane, resulting to exposure, damage, or loss of the cellular contents.
  2. Alter proteins and form protein salts or cause coagulation of proteins.
  3. Inhibit enzyme action and inhibit nucleic acid synthesis or alter nucleic acid molecules.
  4. Cause oxidation or hydrolysis.
113
Q

Factors Influencing Activity of Disinfectants

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Type of microorganisms
  3. Physiological state of the cell
  4. Environment
114
Q

most widely used antiseptics and disinfectants in laboratories and hospitals worldwide

A

phenolic compounds

115
Q

effective against
vegetative forms of bacteria but not suitable for application to skin or mucous
membrane

A

phenol

116
Q

are more germicidal and less poisonous than phenol but corrosive to living tissues. They are used for cleaning floors (1% solution), for disinfection of surgical instruments, and for disinfection of contaminated objects

A

cresol

117
Q

They are used as skin antiseptics and for
the cleaning of wound surfaces especially hexachlorophene because once applied it persists on the skin and reduces growth of skin bacteria for longer periods. However, it can cause brain damage and is now used in hospital
nurseries only after a staphylococcal outbreak

A

halogenated diphenyl compound

118
Q

give disinfectants highly effective against both Gram- positive and Gram-negative bacteria

A

hexachlorophene and chlorhexidine

119
Q

fluorine, bromine, chlorine, and iodine—a group of
nonmetallic elements that commonly occur in minerals, sea water, and salts

A

halogens

120
Q

kills not only bacterial cells and endospores but also fungi and virus

A

chlorine

121
Q

rapidly penetrates the cells of microorganisms, where it apparently disturbs a variety of metabolic functions by interfering with the hydrogen and disulfide bonds of proteins

A

iodine

122
Q

most widely used disinfectants and antiseptics effective at a
concentration of 60–70% in water

A

alcohols

123
Q

WHat are the most popular alcohol sporicidal and virucidal?

A

ethyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol

124
Q

are highly reactive molecules that combine with nucleic and
alkylating molecules; sporicidal and can be used as chemical sterilants

A

aldehydes

125
Q

It is used to: preserve fresh tissue specimens, destroy anthrax spores
in hair and wool, prepare toxoids from toxins, sterilize bacterial vaccines, and kill
bacterial cultures and suspensions.

A

formaldehyde

126
Q

used for sterilization of large volume of heat-sensitive disposable
items and also instruments

A

gases

127
Q

ethylene oxide and betapropiolactone are examples of what disinfectants?

A

gases

128
Q

alter energy relationship at interfaces producing a reduction in surface tension

A

surface active agents

129
Q

organic molecules that serve as wetting agents and emulsifiers because they have both polar hydrophilic and nonpolar hydrophobic ends thus are very effective cleansing agents

A

detergents

130
Q

This group includes halogens, hydrogen peroxide, potassium permanganate, and sodium perborate. They are good disinfectants
and antiseptics but are less effective in the presence of organic matter.

A

oxidizing agents

131
Q

used extensively as skin and wound antiseptic

A

dyes

132
Q

Soluble salts of mercury, silver, copper, arsenic, both have bactericidal and bacteriostatic. They combine with proteins, often with their sulfhydryl groups and inactivate
them or may also precipitate cell proteins

A

heavy metals

133
Q

They kill microorganisms by
hydrolysis and altering the pH of the medium.

A

acids and alkaliss

AA3. VMCB 311 (6 decks)

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