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Anatomy & Physiology II Lecture > Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune System Powerpoint Outline > Flashcards

Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune System Powerpoint Outline Flashcards

1
Q

agents capable of producing disease

includes viruses, bacteria, and fungi

A

Pathogens

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2
Q

There are ______ lines of defenses against pathogens

A

three

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3
Q

First line of defense includes:

A

skin and mucous membranes

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4
Q

Second line of defense includes:

A

several nonspecific defense mechanisms

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5
Q

Third line of defense includes:

A

the adaptive immune system. (defeats a pathogen, and leaves the body with a “memory” of it so it can defeat it faster in the future)

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6
Q
  • guard equally against a broad range of pathogens
  • they lack capacity to remember pathogens
  • three kinds (protective cells, protective proteins, & protective processes)
A

Nonspecific Defenses

Nonspecific Resistance

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7
Q
  • body must develop separate immunity to each pathogen

- body adapts to a pathogen and wards it off more easily upon future exposure

A

Specific or Adaptive Immunity

Nonspecific Resistance

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8
Q
  • toughness or keratin
  • too dry and nutrient poor for microbial growth
  • produces dermicidin, defensins, and cathelicidins that kill microbes
A

Skin
(External barrier)
(1st Line of Defense)

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9
Q
  • mucus physically traps microbes
  • lysozyme: enzyme destroys bacterial cell walls
  • four systems = reproductive, digestive, respiratory, urinary
A

Mucous membranes
(External barrier)
(1st Line of Defense)

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10
Q
  • lower pH inhibits bacterial and fungal growth

- sweat, sebum, vagina, stomach

A

“Acid mantle”

1st Line of Defense

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11
Q
  • penetration of microbes slowed by moving them out of susceptible area
  • urination, salivation, lacrimation, mucus-ciliary escalator
A

“Fluid flow”

1st Line of Defense

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12
Q

What consists of:

  • protective cells = leukocytes, macrophages, and natural killers (NK) cells
  • protective proteins = interferons and complement proteins
  • protective responses = fever and inflammation
A

2nd Line of Defense

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13
Q

Name this WBC:

  • kill bacteria using phagocytosis
  • can kill by producing a respiratory burst
  • lysosomes degranulate releasing bactericidal chemicals
  • creates a killing zone around this WBC
A

Neutrophils

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14
Q

Name this WBC:

  • guard against parasites, allergens, (allergy-causing agents), and other pathogens
  • kills tapeworms and roundworms by producing superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, and toxic proteins
A

Eosinphils

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15
Q

Name this WBC:

  • secrete histamine: promotes inflammation
  • secretes heparin: inhibits clot formation
  • Mast cells also secrete these substances; similar to this WBC but found in other connective tissue
A

Basophils

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16
Q

Name this WBC:

-leaves blood and transform into macrophages

A

Monocytes

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17
Q
  • wandering macrophages actively seek pathogens
  • Fixed macrophages phagocytize only pathogens that come to them
    What system is this?
A

Macrophage System

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18
Q
  • type of lymphocyte that is not a B-cell or T-cell
  • continually patrol body looking for pathogens and diseased host cells
  • attack and destroy bacteria, transplanted cells, cells infected with viruses, and cancer cells
A

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

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19
Q
  • proteins that inhibit microbial reproduction and provide short-term, nonspecific resistance to pathogenic bacteria and viruses
A

Protective Proteins

2nd Line of Defense

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20
Q

List the two families of antimicrobial proteins

A
  • interferons

- complement system

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21
Q
  • secreted by certain cells infected by viruses
  • of no benefit to the cell that secretes them
  • alerts neighboring cells and protects them
A

Interferons

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22
Q

What happens to the original cell that secreted the interferon?

A

It dies; it tried to protect everyone around it

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23
Q
  • group of 30 or more proteins

* four methods of pathogen destruction when activated

A

Complement System

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24
Q

Inflammation, Immune Clearance, Phagocytosis, and Cytolysis are mechanisms of _________ _________

A

Complement System

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25
Q

Stimulates mast cells and basophils to secrete histamine

A

Inflammation

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26
Q
  • binds with antigen-antibody (Ag-Ab) complexes to RBCs
  • when these RBCs circulate through liver and spleen, macrophages strip off and destroy the Ag-Ab complexes leaving RBCs unharmed
  • principal means of clearing foreign antigens from the bloodstream
A

Immune Clearance

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27
Q

*assists phagocytes by opsonization (coating microbial cells)

A

Phagocytosis

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28
Q
  • forms a membrane attack complex
  • forms a hole in the target cell
  • electrolytes leak out, water flows in rapidly, cell ruptures
A

Cytolysis

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29
Q

Protective responses:

2nd Line of Defense

A
  • fever
  • inflammation
  • both slow the spread of infections
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30
Q
  • Hypothalamus elevates body temperature

- Response to pyrogens (exogenous or endogenous)

A

Fever

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31
Q

Moderate fever is helpful:

A
  • promotes interferon activity
  • elevates metabolic rate and accelerates tissue repair
  • inhibits reproduction of bacteria and viruses
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32
Q
  • local response to tissue injury, including trauma and infection
  • general purposes of inflammation; limits spread of pathogens then destroys them, removes debris from damaged tissue, initiates tissue repair
A

Inflammation

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33
Q

List the four cardinal signs of inflammation

A
  • redness, swelling, heat, and pain
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34
Q

How many steps does inflammation have?

A

5

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35
Q

Release of inflammatory chemicals such as cytokines (ex. histamine)

Which step of inflammation is this?

A

Step 1

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36
Q

Vascular Changes: the chemicals cause vasodilation which increases blood flow to the area - produces redness & warmth; the chemicals will increase permeability of the capillaries, which increases leakage into the interstitial areas - produces swelling (edema) & pain - moves material into lymphatic vessels

Which step of inflammation is this?

A

Step 2

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37
Q

Clotting factors (now in the interstitial area) form clots to wall off the area. Prevents spread of bacteria. Heparin prevents clotting directly at the injury site.

Which step of inflammation is this?

A

Step 3

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38
Q

Attraction of neutrophils, then macrophages to the area (phagocyte mobilization)

Which step of inflammation is this?

A

Step 4

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39
Q

Tissue Repair

Which step of inflammation is this?

A

Step 5

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40
Q

How many steps does phagocyte mobilization?

A

4

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41
Q

Leukocytosis: release of neutrophils from bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors from injured cells

Which step of phagocyte mobilization is this?

A

Step 1

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42
Q

Margination: neutrophils cling to walls of capillaries in inflamed area

Which step of phagocyte mobilization is this?

A

Step 2

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43
Q

Diapedesis of neutrophils

Which step of phagocyte mobilization is this?

A

Step 3

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44
Q

Chemotaxis: inflammatory chemicals promote positive chemotaxis of neutrophils

Which step of phagocyte mobilization is this?

A

Step 4

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45
Q
  • mobilization of defenses
  • neutrophil behavior
  • selectins cause leukocytes to adhere to blood vessel walls
A

Margination

46
Q
  • mobilization of defenses
  • neutrophil behavior
  • leukocytes squeeze between endothelial cells into tissue space
A

Diapedesis (emigration)

47
Q

Containment/destruction of pathogens

  • name the WBC that quickly responds to and kills bacteria
  • phagocytosis
  • respiratory burst
A

Neutrophils

48
Q

Containment/destruction of pathogens

  • name the cells that stimulate leukopoiesis
  • neutrophilia = 5,000 cells/ul to 25,000 cells/ul in bacterial infection
  • eosinophilia - allergy or parasitic infection
A

Macrophages and T-cells

49
Q
  • accumulation of dead neutrophils, bacteria, cellular debris, and tissue fluid
A

Puss

50
Q

Which WBC is the primary agent of tissue cleanup and repair?

  • they arrive in 8 to 12 hours and become macrophages
  • engulf and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, and dead and dying neutrophils
A

Monocytes

51
Q

Edema contributes to:

A
  • tissue cleanup

- forces more fluid into lymphatic system

52
Q

Platelet-derived growth factor stimulates:

A

fibroblasts

53
Q

Lists the two characteristics of Adaptive (Specific) Immunity

A
  • Specificity

- Memory

54
Q
  • immunity directed against a particular region

Which characteristic of adaptive (specific) immunity is this?

A

Specificity

55
Q
  • when reexposed to the same pathogen, the body reacts so quickly that there is no noticeable illness

Which characteristic of adaptive (specific) immunity is this?

A

Memory

56
Q

The forms of immunity are:

A
  • Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity
  • Humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity
  • Natural active immunity
  • Artificial active immunity
  • Natural passive immunity
  • Artificial passive immunity
57
Q
  • T-cells directly attack and destroy foreign cells or diseased host cells
  • Gets rid of intracellular pathogens by killing the cell

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity

58
Q
  • B-cells —> plasma cell —> antibodies
  • Antibodies do not directly destroy a pathogen but tag it for destruction
  • Primarily works on extracellular infections

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity

59
Q

*Production of one’s own antibodies or T cells as a result of infection or natural exposure to antigen

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Natural active immunity

60
Q

*Production of one’s own antibodies or T cells as a result of vaccination against disease

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Artificial active immunity

61
Q
  • consists of dead or attenuated (weakened) pathogens that stimulate the immune response without causing the disease
A

Vaccine

62
Q
  • periodic immunizations to stimulate immune memory to maintain a high level of protection
A

Booster Shots

63
Q
  • Temporary immunity that results from the injection of immune serum (antibodies) from another person or animal
  • Treatment for snakebite, botulism, rabies, tetanus, and other diseases

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Artificial passive immunity

64
Q
  • Temporary immunity that results from antibodies produced by another person
  • Fetus acquires antibodies from mother through placenta, breastmilk

Which form of immunity is this?

A

Natural passive immunity

65
Q
  • any molecule that triggers an immune response
  • usually large complex molecules
  • regions of an antigen that stimulate immune response: epitopes
A

Antigens

66
Q
  • too small to be antigenic by themselves
  • but if combined with a host macromolecule, can trigger an immune response
  • cosmetics, detergents, industrial chemicals, poison ivy, animal dander, penicillin
A

Haptens

67
Q

List the major cells of the immune system:

A
  • lymphocytes
  • macrophages
  • dendritic cells
68
Q

The three classes of lymphocytes:

A
  • T lymphocyte (T cells)
  • B lymphocyte (B cells)
  • Natural Killer (NK cells) - 2nd line of defense
69
Q

Three stages in life of T Cell:

A
  • born in bone marrow
  • educated in thymus
  • deployed to carry out immune function
70
Q

Within the thymus, T Cells:

A
  • develop surface antigen receptors
  • with receptors, the T cells are now immunocompetent: capable of recognizing antigens presented to them
  • T cells tested: need to be able to recognize self-antigens, not react to the self antigen, only 2% of T cells pass the test
71
Q

immunocompetent T cells that have not yet encountered foreign antigens

A

naive lymphocyte pool

72
Q

naive T cells leave thymus and colonize lymphatic tissues and organs everywhere in the body

A

deployment

73
Q

Three stages in life of B cell:

A
  • born in bone marrow
  • educated in bone marrow
  • deployed to carry out immune function
74
Q

Immunocompetent B and T cells

A
  • Each B cell and T cell displays a unique type of receptor that responds to a specific antigen
  • It is genes, not antigens, that determine which foreign substances our immune system will recognize and resist
75
Q

T cells cannot recognize antigens on their own, so this type of cell is required.
- dendritic cells, macrophages, reticular cells, and B cells function as this type of cell

A

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

76
Q

Function of APCs depends on this protein.

  • act as cell “identification tags” that label every cell of your body as belonging to you
  • structurally unique for each individual, except for identical twins
A

Major histocompatibility (MHC) complex proteins

77
Q

Two classes of MHC proteins:

A
  • MHC-1

* MHC-II

78
Q

The class of MHC proteins that:

  • are produced by all nucleated cells
  • will display either normal self-antigens (ignored) or abnormal viral/cancer antigens (attached)
  • only Cytoxic T cells respond to this protein
A

MHC-1

79
Q

The class of MHC proteins that:

  • occur only in APCs
  • display only foreign antigens
  • only helper T cells respond to this protein
A

MHC-II

80
Q
  1. APC encounters antigen
  2. Internalizes it by endocytosis
  3. Digests it into molecular fragments
  4. Displays fragments (epitopes) in the grooves of the MHC protein
A

Antigen-Presenting Cells / Antigen Processing

81
Q
  • wandering T cells inspect APCs for displayed antigens
  • if APC only displays a self antigen, the T cell disregards it
  • if APC displays a nonself antigen that the T cell is programmed to recognize, the T cell initiates an immune attack
A

Antigen-Presenting Cells / Antigen Presenting

82
Q

List the 4 classes of T-cells

identified by protein markers {CD receptors}

A
  • Cytotoxic T cells
  • Helper T cells
  • Regulatory T cells
  • Memory T cells
83
Q
  • killer T cells have CD8 receptors
  • “effectors” of cellular immunity; carry out attack on enemy cells

which class of T-cells is this?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

84
Q
  • have CD4 receptors
  • help promote Tc cell and B cell action and nonspecific resistance

which class of T-cells is this?

A

Helper T cells

85
Q
  • inhibit multiplication and cytokine secretion by other T cells; limit immune response
  • have CD4 receptors

which class of T-cells is this?

A

Regulatory T cells

86
Q
  • responsible for memory in cellular immunity

which class of T-cells is this?

A

Memory T cells

87
Q

Both cellular and humoral immunity occur in three stages:

A
  • recognition (recognize)
  • attack (react)
  • memory (remember)
88
Q
  • a defensive gamma globulin

- found in blood plasma, tissue fluids, body secretions, and some leukocyte membranes

A

Immunoglobulin (Ig)

89
Q

Five categories of Immunoglobulins:

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE

90
Q

(Immunoglobulin)

  • 80% of total
  • most abundant and diverse; able to cross the placenta; protects against a wide diversity of bacteria, viruses, and toxins
A

IgG

91
Q

(Immunoglobulin)

  • 10-15% of total
  • prevents attachment of pathogens to mucosa; found in saliva, tears, breast milk (too large to cross placenta)
A

IgA

92
Q

(Immunoglobulin)

  • 5-10% of total
  • found primarily in blood; first to be formed in primary response {indicates a current infection}; responsible for ABO incompatibility response
A

IgM

93
Q

(Immunoglobulin)

  • 0.2% of total
  • important in B cell activation
A

IgD

94
Q

(Immunoglobulin)

  • 0.002% of total
  • binds to mast cells and basophils, causing histamine release when activated
A

IgE

95
Q

Antibodies have four mechanisms of attack against antigens:

A
  • neutralization
  • complement fixation
  • agglutination
  • precipitation
96
Q
  • antibodies mask pathogenic region of antigen
A

neutralization

97
Q
  • leads to inflammation, phagocytosis, immune clearance, or cytolysis
A

complement fixation

98
Q
  • antibody has 2 to 10 binding sites; binds to multiple enemy cells, immobilizing them from spreading
A

agglutination

99
Q
  • antibody binds antigen molecules (not cells); creates antigen-antibody complex that precipitates, allowing them to be removed by immune clearance or phagocytized by eosinophils
A

precipitation

100
Q

Classes of Antibodies:

A
  • B cells can switch antibody but retain antigen specificity
  • IgM at first; then IgG
  • secondary responses are mostly IgG
101
Q

(Immunological Memory)

  • have a lag period during the first exposure to a specific antigen {3 to 6 days}
  • peak levels of the antibody in about 10 days
A

Primary immune response

102
Q

(Immunological Memory)

  • reexposure to the same antigen
  • memory cells respond within hours, not days
  • antibody (mostly IgG) levels peak in 2 to 3 days at much higher levels than in the primary response
A

Secondary (anamnestic) immune response

103
Q

Cellular Immunity:

  • Best for:
  • Effector cells:
  • Memory:
A
  • intracellular pathogens, cancer cells, transplanted tissues
  • cytotoxic T cells (helped by Helper T cells)
  • T cell recall response
104
Q

Humoral Immunity:

  • Best for:
  • Effector cells:
  • Memory:
A
  • extracellular pathogens, toxins, venoms, allergens, mismatched RBCs
  • plasma cells (develop from B cells and helped by Helper T cells)
  • secondary (anamnestic) response
105
Q

Immune response may be:

A
  • too vigorous
  • too weak
  • misdirected against wrong targets
106
Q

an excessive immune reaction against antigens that most people tolerate

A

hypersensitivity

107
Q

four types of hypersensitivity disorders:

A
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV
108
Q
  • acute (immediate) hypersensitivity
  • very rapid response
  • based on antibodies
A

Type I

109
Q
  • subacute hypersensitivity
  • slower onset (1 to 3 hours after exposure)
  • last longer (10 to 15 hours)
  • based on antibodies
A

Type II and Type III

110
Q
  • delayed cell mediated response
  • signs appear 12 to 72 hours after exposure
  • cosmetics, poison ivy, graft rejection, TB skin test
A

Type IV

Anatomy & Physiology II Lecture (5 decks)

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