chapter 20, 14, and diseases Flashcards

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1
Q

Define Drug

A

any chemical that can affect human physiology in any way

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2
Q

Define Chemotherapy/chemotherapeutic agent

A

drug used to treat disease

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3
Q

Define Anti-microbial drug/agent or anti-microbial chemotherapy

A

chemotherapeutic agent used to treat infectious disease

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4
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

an anti-microbial agent used to treat bacterial infections, that is produced by another organism

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5
Q

Give the 4 different classes of anti-microbials

A
  • Anti-bacterial drugs
  • Anti-viral drugs
  • Anti-fungal drugs
  • Anti-protozoal and Anti-helminthic
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6
Q

What is a semi-synthetic antibiotic?

A

An antibiotic that’s been altered. Part from nature, part made in lab
( a modified antibiotic )

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7
Q

What is a synthetic antibiotic?

A

An anti-bacterial drug that is synthesized entirely in a lab

an antimicrobial that has synthetic structure

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8
Q

Anti-microbial drugs are chemicals that are intended to have selective toxicity against microbes. Antibiotics are one of these.
What is selective toxicity?

A

they kill microbial cells but not the host cell

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9
Q

What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

A

active against most bacteria. Used when they aren’t quite sure what’s wrong

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10
Q

Define Narrow Spectrum Antibiotics

A

they are much more specific than broad spectrum. active against some bacteria, usually gram + or -

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11
Q

High toxicity in microorganisms and low toxicity in humans= good ___________ _____

A

therapeutic index

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12
Q

Define Therapeutic index and tell whether a high or large number is good or bad

A

the ratio of the toxic dose to the therapeutic dose.

high therapeutic index = less toxic to the patient

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13
Q

Antimicrobials that have a high therapeutic index are less toxic to the patient.
true or false?

A

true

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14
Q

What 2 things are the sources for most of our common Antibiotics and semi-synthetics?

A
  • Fungi

* * Bacteria

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15
Q

Which bacteria do 50% of our antibiotics come from?

A

Streptomyces spp.

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16
Q

Describe process of making antibiotics

3 steps

A
  • grow organism in proper conditions
  • siphon off liquid extract antibiotic and purify
  • make changes in lab if necessary
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17
Q

Define drug pipeline

A

a set of drug candidates that a pharm. company has under discovery or development and is testing at any given point.

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18
Q

What are they testing for in clinical trials?

A

I. Safe?
II. Effective?
III. Relative Effectiveness

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19
Q

List the different ways that Anti-bacterial drugs have selective toxicity. Explain what they target in bacteria to weaken/inhibit or kill it

A
  • Inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • Inhibit protein synthesis
  • Inhibit Nucleic Acid replication & transcription
  • Injury to plasma membrane
  • Inhibit essential metabolite synthesis (effecting enzyme)
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20
Q

Give 3 examples of Anti-bacterial drugs

A
  • Penicillin
  • Vancomycin
  • Streptomycin
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21
Q

Give examples of Cell wall inhibitors

A
  • Penicillin
  • Vancomycin ( polypeptides )
  • antimycobacterium inhibit as well
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22
Q

tell us a little about penicillin. What is the natural form called?

A
  • Penicillin G : natural
  • people are allergic to it
  • it comes from fungi
  • natural penicillin is gram +
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23
Q

What enzyme do some people have that makes it so that penicillin is not an effective drug for them?

A

Penicillinase

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24
Q

Name a few protein synthesis inhibitors (anti-bacterial drugs)

A

Tetracyclins

Aminoglycosides

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25
Q

What do we call the nutrients taken to feed normal flora?

generally fibers that humans cannot digest

A

Pre-biotics

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26
Q

What are probiotics?

A

bacteria taken to replenish normal flora lost during antibiotic treatment

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27
Q

Are there many anti-fungals out there?

A

no, not many

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28
Q

Are anti-fungals natural and synthetics?

A

yes

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29
Q

Are anti-fungals normally narrow spec or broad spec?

A

broad spec

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30
Q

What types of selective toxicity do antivirals have?

A
  • Fushion inhibitors
  • Nucleic Acid inhibitors
  • Assembly Inhibitors
  • Exit inhibitors
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31
Q

Give two facts about antiviral drugs

A
  • Extremely narrow spectrum (1 type of virus)

* Synthetic

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32
Q

Give two facts about antiprotozoan/ antihelminthic drugs

A
  • very few

* Natural and synthetic

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33
Q

What does antibiotic resistance, initiation and spread have to do with?

A

mutations

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34
Q

Which category of mechanism or mutation does Penicillinase do, and explain how?

A

Drug Inactivation

Penicillinase is an enzyme that changes a portion of the penicillin (molecule) and renders it inactive

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35
Q

List all 5 mechanisms or mutations which make microorganisms resistant to a drug

A
  • Drug Inactivation
  • Decreased Permeability
  • Activation of Drug Pumps
  • Change in drug binding site
  • Alternate metabolic pathway
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36
Q

What happens with Decreased Permeability?

A

The receptor that transports the drug is altered so that the drug cannot enter the cell

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37
Q

What occurs with the Activation of drug pumps as a mechanism?

A

Specialized membrane proteins are activated and continually pump the drug out of the cell

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38
Q

What happens when there’s a change in drug binding site?

A

The binding site on the target (ribosome), is altered, so the drug has no effect

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39
Q

What happens with the use of an alternate metabolic pathway?

A

When the drug has blocked the usual metabolic pathway, so the microbe circumvents (gets around) it by using an alternate, unblocked pathway (route) that achieves the required outcome.

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40
Q

Define transformation

A

the genetic alteration of a cell as a result of the cell picking up (through cell membrane) and using DNA that’s freely floating around

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41
Q

Define Transduction

A

a process of genetic recombination in bacteria in which genes from a host cell (bacterium), are incorporated into the genome of a bacterial virus (bacteriophage) and then carried to another host cell when the bacteriophage initiates another cycle of infection

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42
Q

define process of conjugation

A

One bacteria is the donor and one is the recipient. The donor bacteria carries a DNA sequence called fertility factor (F-Factor). the F-Factor allows the donor to create a pilus that connects the two bacteria. Donor bacteria transfers genetic material to recipient bacteria, usually in the form of a plasmid. The genetic material transferred during conjugation typically provides the recipient Bacteria with a genetic advantage. In many cases conjugation serves to transfer plasmids that carry antibiotic resistance genes

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43
Q

What 4 ways do mutations spread?

A

Transformation
Transduction
Conjugation

then Binary Fission!

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44
Q

How can we slow the spread of antibiotic resistance within the bacterial population?

A
  • limit use of same antibiotic over and over again
    (rotate drugs)
  • Agricultural
    (ex: stop using antibiotics to fatten livestock)
  • Appropriate dosing
  • Drug Combinations
  • new variations of drugs
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45
Q

Has the overuse of Antibiotics in animal agriculture, led to antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria?

A

Yes.

The risk of resistance rises each time bacteria are exposed to antimicrobials

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46
Q

It is estimated that over one half of the antibiotics in the US are used in food animal production.
true or false?

A

true

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47
Q

Name the 5 general ways normal flora acquired?

A
  • Birth
  • breathing
  • Touch
  • Liquids
  • Solid food
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48
Q

What part of the human body is “ topographically outside of the body, so to speak” ?

A

the Gastrointestinal Tract (GI Tract)

49
Q

Name all the places that you can harbor a normal flora

8 different areas

A
  • skin/ mucous membranes
  • Upper Respiratory tract
  • GI tract (various places)
  • Outer opening of urethra
  • External Genitalia
  • Vagina
  • External ear and Canal
  • External eye (lids/lash follicles
50
Q

What Anatomical Sites and Fluids should be sterile (Microbe-Free)
(give broad answers)

A

All Internal Tissues and Organs

Fluids within an Organ or Tissue

51
Q

List some of the Internal Tissues and Organs that should be Microbe-Free (sterile)

A
  • Heart/ CV system
  • Liver
  • Lungs
  • Brain/Spinal cord
  • Kidneys/bladder
  • Bones/ Muscles
52
Q

List some of the fluids found within an Organ or tissue that should be Microbe-free (sterile)

A
  • Blood
  • Urine in kidneys, ureters, bladder
  • CSF
  • Semen prior to entering urethra
  • Saliva prior to entering oral cavity
  • Amniotic fluid surrounding the embryo and fetus
53
Q

Name three broad groups of bacteria that are found in humans

A
  • Normal flora : Microorganisms that have a mutual relationship with the human host
  • Pathogens: microorganisms that cause disease in a healthy person
  • Opportunistic Pathogens : Normal flora that can cause disease under specific circumstances
54
Q

Define Infection

A

Any microorganism replicating in tissues of the body

55
Q

When does something considered a Disease?

A
  • Disruption of normal body processes

* Collection of signs and symptoms

56
Q

What do we call a disease that is caused by microorganisms?

A

Infectious disease

57
Q

HIV is the infection that leads to AIDS which is the _______

A

disease

58
Q

What is a Primary Infection?

A

Original Pathogen

59
Q

What is a Secondary Infection?

A

A second pathogen that gains entry because of the first Pathogen

60
Q

If chicken pox is the primary Infection and the child scratches so hard it breaks the skin and S. aureus gets in and causes an infection, what is S. aureus considered?

A

Secondary Infection

61
Q

Define Infectious Dose

A

the quantity of a pathogen (measured in number of organsims) required to cause an infection in the host.
(different for different pathogens)

62
Q

What is the Infectious dose of Measles Virus?

A

1

that’s why its so scary

63
Q

Which can be seen or measured by an outside observer, signs or symptoms?

A

signs

64
Q

What are symptoms?

A

things felt by the patient that cannot be measured by an outsider.
subjective

65
Q

Out of malaise, increase in WBC count, and a fever, which are signs and which are symptoms?

A

Malaise: Symptom
WBC Count: Sign
Fever: Sign

66
Q

What would be examples of non-living reservoirs?

A

Soil and water

67
Q

What is the word for when a disease is transmitted from animal to human?

A

Zoonoses

68
Q

Name the 3 types of Reservoirs

A
  • Human Reservoirs
  • Animal Reservoirs
  • Non-living Reservoirs
69
Q

Define Reservoir

A

Habitat of the pathogen in the natural world

70
Q

Define endemic

A

Infectious disease predictable, stable transmission (each year)
around the same amount of people getting sick or dying

71
Q

Define Sporadic

A

Infectious disease number is low, so sporadic it can’t be predicted how/when it’ll occur

72
Q

Anytime a new pathogen jumps into the human species, the number was clearly non-existent before and now there is a number of cases, so what would this be considered?

A

Epidemic

73
Q

What is an Epidemic?

A

More than the expected amount of cases

74
Q

When is something a Pandemic?

A

When there is more than the expected amount on more than one continent

75
Q

How do you calculate Morbidity Rate?

A
# of new cases during a specific time
--------------------------------------------------------
     # of individuals in population
76
Q

How do you calculate Mortality Rate?

A

size of total population with the disease

77
Q

What does it mean if Morbidity rate is 10%?

A

1/10 of people will get it

of total population

78
Q

What does it mean if Mortality rate is 10%?

A

1/10 of the people who get the disease will die from it

79
Q

What does it mean if you are a “carrier” ?

A

You have the infection and/or disease but you are asymptomatic.
(don’t have any symptoms from it but can still spread it)

80
Q

define Zoonosis

A

disease caused by a pathogen with an animal reservoir

81
Q

what is a Communicable disease?

A

Transmissable to others

82
Q

What is a Contagious Disease?

A

EASILY transmissable from one person to another

83
Q

What is a Noncommunicable disease?

A

Not transmissable from one person to another

84
Q

What is the surface called involved in indirect contact transmission?

A

fomite

85
Q

What is direct contact transmission?

A

you must touch, person to person

86
Q

What is droplet transmission?

Is it considered Airborne?

A
  • transmission via droplets, less than 1 meter

* not considered airborne

87
Q

Waterborne, foodborne, and airborne are what type of transmission. define?

A

Vehicle Transmission

transmission by an inanimate reservoir

88
Q

Define Vector transmission

A

animals/insects/spiders that transmit organisms

89
Q

define biological vector

A

when the insect/animal has the disease and then drinks your blood or bites you and transmits it

90
Q

define mechanical vector

A

when the insect steps in organism and then lands on you or your food, you eat your food and get sick, he’s a mechanical vector

91
Q

What portion of an antigen do antibodies see?

A

Fc portion

not the Y

92
Q

Can Staph aureus do transformation (pick up naked DNA)?

A

Yes

93
Q

What is Protein A?

A

a surface protein found in cell wall of staph. aureus
that can bind the Fc region of an antibody
Protein A covers itself with antibodies

94
Q

Which two enzymes can most staph aureus make?

A

Coagulase
Staphylokinase
it can build a blood clot up around itself to protect it and then dissolve it once it feels safe

95
Q

What are virulence factors?

A

Toxins

96
Q

s. aureus is notorious for gaining antibiotic resistance and is known as a tissue _________

A

destroyer

97
Q

What is Panton-Valentine Leukocidin?

A

enzyme that kills neutrophils

98
Q

What toxin is known to chop up desmosomes?

A

Exfoliative toxin

99
Q

How many different enterotoxins are there?
what do enterotoxins induce?
(hint: entero tube down you)

A

5 (A,B,C,D,E)

Diarrhea and vomitting

100
Q

What is the resistant form of staph aureus found in hospitals?

A

MRSA

50% of Nosocomial infections are MRSA

101
Q

what % of US population are carriers of staph aureus ?

A

33%

102
Q

Most common way staph aureus is spread?

A

contact transmission (direct/indirect)

103
Q

Best antibiotics against Staph Aureus?

A

“cillins” but not original Penicillin
BEST Methicillin and Oxacillin (only 2% resist)
90% of staph produce penicillinase

104
Q

What do you treat MRSA with?

A

Vancomycin

Linezolid

105
Q

Which pH is staph aureus sensitive to?

what temp does it like (thermo, meso, psychro?)

A

sensitive to acid

mesophile

106
Q

What makes us sick when we cook our food at high temps to kill staph aureus and other things?

A

toxins

they are heat stable

107
Q

Half the strains of staph make enterotoxins. What 2 things are enterotoxins stable in that help them easily make us sick through food?

A

acid stable and heat stable

108
Q

What’s the difference between Pyrogenic and Pyogenic and which one is staph. aureus?

A

pyrogenic: fever
pyogenic: pus staph. aureus is pyogenic

109
Q

List the skin issues associated with staph. aureus

A
  • impetigo : blisters/patches/pus/scab
  • folliculitis : like a zit but surrounding area inflamed, staph aureus stuck inside
  • Boil-furuncle : folliculitis that gets worse. hair follice gets plugged and infection spreads
  • Carbuncle: a boil that continues to get worse, huge, or multiples coming together. when your boil starts making you feel sick and you can feel cytokines
110
Q

define systemic infection

A

bacteria widespread through body

111
Q

define bacteremia

A

infection, bacteria in bloodstream

112
Q

define pneumonia

A

bacterial infection causing immune response in your lungs. fluid build up in lung sacs

113
Q

bacteria growing====>immune activation===>cytokine production=====> ______

A

sepsis

114
Q

What causes sepsis?

A

cytokines from many infections
you vasodilation all over to get WBC out
blood pressure very low
heart rate high

115
Q

How does sepsis turn into septic shock?

A

your organs start shutting down from low BP

BP becomes refractory to treatment meaning it is too low and wont respond to drugs anymore

116
Q

mortality rate for septic shock?

A

50/50

117
Q

define toxic shock syndrome

A

all signs of sepsis but progressed very quickly to septic shock

118
Q

what make toxic shock syndrome progress so quickly

A

staph aureus turn on gene TSST-1 giving it superantigens which cause every TH to think its a match and then a cytokine storm occurs. no stopping it