Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Law Enforcement > Chapter 2 Legal > Flashcards

Chapter 2 Legal Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
MBE flashcards MPRE flashcards Civil Procedure 1L flashcards
0
Q

When a person engages in conduct that causes substantial emotional distress in a person and serves no legitimate purpose.

A

Harass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The suspect is deprived of freedom in a significant way.

A

Custody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is misdemeanor or ordinance violations, the option for an offender to be released at the scene provided he or she signs a notice promising to appear in court.

A

Notice to appear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spouses, former spouses, people related by blood or marriage, people who reside together or who have resided together in the past in the same dwelling unit, and people who are parents of a common child.

A

Family or household member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The process where a creditor may take possession of the collateral after default without a court order, if the repossession can be done without breach of the peace.

A

Self help repossession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An unlawful interference with the fundamental rights of another inhabitant of the United States.

A

Civil rights violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A legal concept derived from the common law idea that the king and his agents can do no wrong, which is applied to employees or agents of a governmental entity, or to the governmental entity as an organization, to preclude the award of damages in a civil lawsuit.

A

Sovereign immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A rule that involves relying on the collective knowledge of other officers in taking law enforcement action.

A

Fellow officer rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A situation in which the offender agreed, conspired, combined, or confederated with the person(s) alleged to the cause a crime to be committed F.S. 777.04(3).

A

Conspiracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The items used by the defendant to commit the crime.

A

Instrumentalities of crime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

To communicate words, images, or language through the use of electronic mail or electronic communication to a specific person, causing substantial emotional distress to that person and serving no legitimate purpose.

A

Cyber talk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To legally deprive a person of liberty or freedom to go as he or she chooses; to take a person into custody to be held to answer for a crime.

A

Arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The standards set fourth in the Constitution and decisions and interpretations of the Constitution handed down by
U.S. District and Supreme Courts.

A

Constitutional law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A court review of all factors known to the officer at the time of the incident.

A

Totality of circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When an officer comes into voluntary contact with a citizen under circumstances in which a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about his or her business.

A

Consensual encounter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A failure to use due or reasonable care in a situation that results in harm to another.

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Committing an act, beyond thinking or speaking, towards carrying out a crime; a situation in which a person would have committed a crime except that he or she failed or was prevented from doing so by an outside occurrence or person.

A

Attempt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An act that occurs when the government affects a person’s right to have or control his or property, usually by taking that property.

A

Seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The liability incurred when an officer is found guilty of committing a crime and is sentenced to incarnation or other property.

A

Criminal liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The enclosed space of ground and the outbuildings immediately surrounding a structure.

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When a person purposely does what the law declares to be a crime.

A

Intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A criminal or non criminal act punishable by law.

A

Offense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A defense that requires the person committing the act to reasonably believe that the only way to avoid death or great bodily harm to self or a third party is to commit the crime.

A

Duress or coercion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A part of the Fourteenth Amendment that expands the restrictions the Bill of Rights places on the federal government to state and local governments and states, „No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges and immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any person within its jurisdiction of the equal protection of the laws.”

A

Due process clause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A civil proceeding in which the law enforcement agency asks the court to transfer ownership of property from the defendant to the government.

A

Forfeiture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A sworn, written statement by a law enforcement officer establishing certain facts and circumstances to justify an arrest.

A

Probable cause affidavit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The oral, anal, or vaginal penetration by or union with the sexual organ of another; anal or vaginal penetration of another by any other object.

A

Sexual battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A defendant who helped another person commit or attempt to commit a crime and whose actions must be treated as if he or she had done all the things the

A

Principal in the first degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A motor vehicle, vessel, ship, aircraft, railroad vehicle or car, trailer, or sleeping car.

A

Conveyance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The legal requirements that must be met before a jury is allowed to see or hear evidence.

A

Admissibility of evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A failure of the defendant to act in a reasonable manner.

A

Breach of duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The presentation of evidence sufficient to prove the guilt of each elements of the crime beyond a reasonable doubt.

A

Proof beyond a reasonable doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A criminal offense committing within a state where the maximum penalty is incarceration in a county jail for up to one year.

A

Misdemeanor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transporting, soliciting, recruiting, harboring, providing, or obtaining another person for transport.

A

Human trafficking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When an officer acts or purports to act in performance of official duties under any law, ordinance, or regulation.

A

Color of law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An offense, also known as a citizen infraction, for which the only penalty may be fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty.

A

Noncriminal violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A legal defense that is used when the accused does not possess the mental state required to commit a criminal offense because of a reasonably mistaken belief about the facts relating to the circumstances; not to be confused with diminished mental capacity or insanity.

A

Mistake or ignorance of fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When a law enforcement officer induces or causes a suspect to commit a crime so that the officer may then arrest the suspect; can be used as a legal defense.

A

Entrapment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A legal defense in limited circumstances when it negates an essential element of the crime, such as the ability to form criminal intent in the commission of certain offense.

A

Intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Certain emergencies, such as evidence destruction, an emergency scene, or fresh pursuit that justify a warrant less entry.

A

Exigent circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Intelligent, knowing, and voluntary consent that does not induce coerced submission; a legal defense that claims that the acts in question were committed with the victim’s consent and permission.

A

Consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A person believed to have committed a crime or offense.

A

Suspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Any unmarried person under the age of 18 who has not been emancipated by order of the court and who has been found or alleged to be dependent, in need of service, or form a family in need of services; or any married or unmarried person who is charged with a violation of law occurring prior to the time that person reached the age of 18 yrs. F.S. 985.03(6).

A

Child juvenile youth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anything presented in a court of law to prove or disprove the validity of information.

A

Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Any force a person may legally use to defend against the use of force by another Chapter 776, F.S.

A

Justifiable use of force

45
Q

The level of justification needed to support a legal stop or investigative detention where an officer can articulate the facts that support a suspicion of a law violation.

A

Reasonable suspicion

46
Q

A hunch or gut feeling based on law enforcement training and knowledge but it is not acceptable justification for interfering with someone’s rights.

A

Mere suspicion

47
Q

A child 12 years of age or younger who is alleged to have committed a violation of sexual battery, prostitution, lewdness, indecent exposure, abuse of a child, obscenity, or any violation of law or delinquent act involving juvenile sexual abuse.

A

Juvenile sex offender

48
Q

Any building of any kind, either temporary or permanent, which has a roof over it, and the enclosed space of ground and outbuildings immediately surrounding that structure.

A

Structure

49
Q

When a person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person, even though the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury.

A

Vicarious liability

50
Q

Force that is likely to cause death great bodily harm to death.

A

Deadly force

51
Q

The objects obtained by the defendant as a result of committing a crime.

A

Fruits of crime

52
Q

Any evidence that requires an inference or presumption to establish a fact.

A

Circumstantial or indirect evidence

53
Q

Consciously doing an act or following a course of conduct that the person must have known or reasonably should have known was likely to cause death or great bodily injury.

A

Culpable negligence

54
Q

A suspect or defendant’s claim that he or she was not present when the alleged act was committed.

A

Alibi

55
Q

A legal defense which recognizes that a criminal defendant will be judged on his or her present ability to assist counsel by participating in the criminal defense.

A

Mental incompetence

56
Q

A special mental element of intention to cause a particular result, which is required over and above any mental state required for the offender to commit the act.

A

Specific intent

57
Q

A statement that is made out of court by someone not testifying at a trial or hearing which offers evidence to prove or disprove the truth of the matter asserted.

A

Hearsay

58
Q

A rule which states that evidence obtained illegally by law enforcement will not be admissible at trial.

A

Exclusionary rule

59
Q

A court order authorizing law enforcement to take the individual named on the warrant into custody.

A

Arrest warrant

60
Q

When an officer neglects to perform what the law or duty requires.

A

Omission

61
Q

An offense in which a person assists an offender while having knowledge that the felony is being or has been committed F.S. 777.03.

A

Accessory after the fact

62
Q

An offender’s intention to make the bodily movement which becomes the act to commit a criminal offense.

A

General intent

63
Q

Not a specific crime but actions that include any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, sexual assault, sexual battery, stalking, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another.

A

Domestic violence

64
Q

Anything written or printed which is offered to prove or disprove a fact.

A

Documentary evidence

65
Q

A presentation of a series of photographs in a non suggestive manner to a victim or witness in order to identify a suspect.

A

Photo array

66
Q

The presentation of a number of individuals, which may include a known suspect, to a victim or witness in a non suggestive manner for the purpose of identification.

A

Live lineup

67
Q

Evidence which proves a fact without an inference or presumption and which, if true, conclusively establishes that fact.

A

Directive evidence

68
Q

A defense against liability that allows an officer to react instinctively to sudden peril without being held to the same legal standard of care as he would have been had there been times to reflect upon the circumstances.

A

Emergency doctrine

69
Q

A link between the breach of duty and the harm caused.

A

Proximate cause

70
Q

A liability which arises in cases where the officer committed an intentional or negligent tort in violation of the employing agency’s orders or policies.

A

Direct liability

71
Q

A Latin term meaning the „ body of the offense “describing the legal principle that claims it must be proven that a crime has occurred before a person can be convicted of committing that crime.

A

Corpus Delicti

72
Q

A person harmed by a crime.

A

Victim

73
Q

A defense which protects government officials from liability for civil damages insofar as their conduct does not violate clearly established statutory or constitutional rights of which a reasonable person would have known.

A

Qualified immunity

74
Q

Any government intrusion into a place in which a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy.

A

Search

75
Q

A common legal term describing a person’s authority to take reasonable steps, including the use of force (except deadly force) to the extent that a person reasonably believes that it is necessary to protect his or her possessions from trespass or theft to terminate these acts.

A

Defense of property

76
Q

An improper act in law.

A

Tort

77
Q

The liability that occurs when a person preaches a duty to confirm to a particular standard of conduct with others.

A

Criminal negligence

78
Q

The legal action a person takes to resolve a dispute with another person.

A

Civil liability

79
Q

A law that bars the state from prosecuting an individual after a certain period of time has elapsed since the criminal act occurred.

A

Statute of limitations

80
Q

A one on one identification of a suspect in the field by a victim or witness orchestrated by a law-enforcement officer a short time after the commission of an offense.

A

Show up

81
Q

Any mental disorder so severe that it prevents a person from having legal capacity and excuses that person from criminal or civil responsibility.

A

Insanity

82
Q

Evidence comprised of the statements solicited from witness on the stand.

A

Testimonial evidence

83
Q

A person believed to have committed a crime or offense.

A

Suspected perpetrator

84
Q

The intent that is present when an unintentional act harms a unintended second victim.

A

Transferred intent

85
Q

A common legal term that describes the justifiable use of force that is necessary to protect oneself.

A

Self defense

86
Q

A stop made by an officer on the basis on a traffic infraction when there is not enough information for a reasonable suspicion to make the stop but for the objective purpose of looking inside the vehicle for evidence of a criminal activity.

A

Pretext stop

87
Q

A court order to recover property that is in the wrongful possession of another.

A

Writ of replevin

88
Q

Any evidence that requires an inference or preassumption to establish a fact.

A

Indirect evidence

89
Q

The reasonable and foreseeable activities that an employee engaging in while carrying out the employer’s business.

A

Acting within the scope of employment

90
Q

Anything that is illegal to possess.

A

Contraband

91
Q

A criminal offense committed within A state in which the maximum penalty is death or incarceration in a state correctional facility for a period exceeding one year.

A

Felony

92
Q

The area of law that allows individuals to resolve their disputes through legal action.

A

Civil law

93
Q

The part of statutory law that defines unacceptable behavior and government prosecution of those who commit them.

A

Criminal law

94
Q

A section of the Florida statutes that says an individual has; no duty to retreat when faced with imminent harm; has a right to stand his hair ground, and may meet force with force including deadly force when he reasonably believes it is necessary to do so to prevent death or great bodily harm. F.S. 776.013

A

No retreat law

95
Q

A strong, negative belief or feeling about a person, group, or subject that is formed without reviewing all available facts or information.

A

Bias / prejudice

96
Q

Damages awarded in addition to actual damages when the defendant acted with recklessness, malice, or deceit.

A

Punitive damages

97
Q

A person who has information about some element of a crime or about evidence or documents related to a crime and who may have heard statements or observed events before, during, or after a crime; a person who see, knows, or vouches for something and makes a sworn statement about that information.

A

Witness

98
Q

The written laws enacted by Congress, state legislatures, or local governing authorities in response to a perceived need to clarify the function of government.

A

Statutory law

99
Q

A legal doctrine that permits a law-enforcement officer to rest a fling suspect who crosses jurisdictional lines.

A

Fresh pursuit

100
Q

A stop that may be made only if an officer has reasonable suspicion that the person stopped was committing, is committing, or is about to commit a law violation; also known as a Terry stop.

A

Investigative stop

101
Q

A court order that authorizes law enforcement to conduct a search and seizure.

A

Search warrant

102
Q

The body of law that is formed by the decisions of the court system.

A

Case law

103
Q

An improper act.

A

Crime

104
Q

An interview in which the person is not under arrest and a reasonable person would believe that he or she is free to leave at any time during the interview.

A

Noncustodial stop

105
Q

A person who aids or contributes in committing or concealing a crime.

A

Accessory

106
Q

Any locally applied law; statues enacted by municipal (city) or county government.

A

Ordinance

107
Q

Court awards designed to compensate for the actual property damage, harm, or injury the plaintiff suffers.

A

Compensatory damage

108
Q

An offense in which a person commands, encourages, hires, or request another person to engage in specific conduct which would constitute the commissions of an offense or an attempt.

A

Solicitation

109
Q

A fair probability or reasonable grounds to believe that a crime was committed, based on the totality of circumstances.

A

Probable cause

110
Q

An unmarried person under the age of 18 who has not been emancipated by order of the court and who has been found or alleged to be the defendant, in need of services, or from a family in need of services; and married or unmarried person who is charged with the violation of law occurring prior to that a time that person reach the age of 18.

A

Juvenile

Law Enforcement (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions