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MICRO > Chapter 18 (Microbio) > Flashcards

Chapter 18 (Microbio) Flashcards

1
Q

The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called

A. acquired immunity.

B. memory immunity.

C. vaccination.

D. hypersensitivity.

A

C. vaccination.

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2
Q

The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called

A. Oriental poxination.

B. humoral immunity.

C. variolation.

D. naturally acquired immunity.

A

C. variolation.

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3
Q

Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against

A. measles.

B. bubonic plague.

C. rabies.

D. smallpox.

A

D. smallpox.

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4
Q

The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was

A. Pasteur.

B. Jenner.

C. Metchnikoff.

D. Fleming.

A

B. Jenner.

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5
Q

The term vaccination

A. is a general term that would include the process of variolation.

B. was coined by Jenner.

C. was coined by Pasteur.

D. comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

A

E. is a general term that would include the process of variolation, was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow, vacca.

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6
Q

The virus originally used for vaccination against smallpox is named

A. vaccinia.

B. cowpox.

C. rubella.

D. herpes.

A

B. cowpox.

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7
Q

The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in

A. 1900.

B. 1950.

C. 1965.

D. 1977.

E. 1989.

A

D. 1977.

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8
Q

Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are

A. the result of infection.

B. self-made.

C. IgM.

D. the result of passive immunity.

A

D. the result of passive immunity.

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9
Q

Which antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus?

A. IgA

B. IgG

C. IgM

D. IgD

A

B. IgG

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10
Q

Herd immunity

A. only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune.

B. occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune.

C. only provides protection to those that are already immune.

D. is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

E. occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

A

B. occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune

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11
Q

Attenuated agents are

A. dead viruses.

B. toxins.

C. weakened live organisms.

D. parts of an organism.

A

C. weakened live organisms.

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12
Q

Attenuated agents

A. may induce immunity after a single dose.

B. may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals.

C. multiply in the body.

D. may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains.

E. All of the choices are correct.

A

E. All of the choices are correct.

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13
Q

Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with

A. alcohol.

B. phenol.

C. formalin.

D. histamine.

A

C. formalin.

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14
Q

The Salk vaccine

A. contains live attenuated virus.

B. contains inactivated virus.

C. contains a portion of the polio virus.

D. occasionally causes disease.

A

B. contains inactivated virus.

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15
Q

The Salk vaccine

A. protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection.

B. protects only against gastrointestinal infection.

C. is a subunit vaccine.

D. protects only against nervous system infection.

E. protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection AND is a subunit vaccine.

A

D. protects only against nervous system infection.

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16
Q

Whole agent vaccines may contain

A. viruses.

B. bacteria.

C. toxins.

D. polysaccharides.

E. viruses AND bacteria.

A

E. viruses AND bacteria.

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17
Q

Toxoids are used in vaccines against

A. Haemophilus influenza type b.

B. diphtheria.

C. herpes simplex type I.

D. polio.

E. diphtheria AND herpes simplex type I.

A

B. diphtheria.

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18
Q

Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called

A. primary substances.

B. secondary substances.

C. adjuvants.

D. adjuncts.

A

C. adjuvants.

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19
Q

A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against

A. polio.

B. diphtheria.

C. hepatitis B.

D. pertussis.

A

C. hepatitis B.

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20
Q

The most common adjuvant is

A. ethanol.

B. formalin.

C. alum.

D. aluminum.

E. alum AND aluminum.

A

C. alum.

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21
Q

For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended?

A. polio

B. measles

C. hepatitis B

D. pertussis

A

D. pertussis

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22
Q

Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine?

A. acellular subunit

B. whole cell attenuated

C. adjuvant

D. toxin

A

A. acellular subunit

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23
Q

The vaccine that is stable to heat, has little unwanted material and causes minimal side effects is called a(n)

A. inactive vaccine.

B. active vaccine.

C. toxoid.

D. peptide.

A

D. peptide.

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24
Q

A poorly understood, yet promising type of vaccine that causes the host to produce microbial antigens for a short time involves the use of

A. subunits.

B. DNA.

C. alum.

D. toxoids.

E. glycoproteins.

A

B. DNA.

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25
Q

DNA vaccines work by

A. stimulating production of antibodies against DNA.

B. stimulating interferon production.

C. inactivating the host DNA.

D. having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen.

A

D. having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen.

26
Q

Which plant has been used to deliver vaccine?

A. peanuts

B. lima beans

C. spinach

D. potatoes

A

D. potatoes

27
Q

Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide

A. a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular antigen.

B. a single antibody that recognizes many antigens.

C. many antigens that recognize a specific antibody.

D. a large number of B cells.

A

A. a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular antigen.

28
Q

Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of

A. antibody to a single epitope.

B. an antibody that recognizes several epitopes.

C. additional antigen.

D. a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

A

D. a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

29
Q

Monoclonal antibodies

A. are usually of different classes.

B. usually recognize several epitopes.

C. have the same variable regions.

D. are always IgE.

A

C. have the same variable regions.

30
Q

Monoclonal antibodies may be used in the rapid diagnosis of

A. pregnancy.

B. hepatitis.

C. influenza.

D. chlamydia.

E. All of the choices are correct.

A

E. All of the choices are correct

31
Q

The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infecting agent, is called

A. ELISA.

B. complement fixation.

C. seroconversion.

D. RIA.

A

C. seroconversion.

32
Q

Immunological tests may determine the presence of

A. only antibody.

B. only antigen.

C. antigen or antibody.

D. neither antibody nor antigen.

A

C. antigen or antibody.

33
Q

If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256, the titer is

A. 128.

B. 1/512.

C. 1/256.

D. 256.

A

D. 256.

34
Q

Serological tests are most often conducted in

A. test tubes.

B. flasks.

C. microtiter plates.

D. graduated cylinders.

A

C. microtiter plates.

35
Q

An immune complex is defined as

A. antigen combined with antigen.

B. antigen combined with antibody.

C. antibody combined with antibody.

D. complement combined with LPS.

A

B. antigen combined with antibody.

36
Q

Precipitation reactions depend on

A. the antigen having one epitope.

B. the antibody having one epitope.

C. the antigen having two or more epitopes.

D. the antigen having no epitopes.

A

C. the antigen having two or more epitopes.

37
Q

Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called

A. hemagglutination tests.

B. complement fixation tests.

C. immunodiffusion tests.

D. RIA tests.

A

C. immunodiffusion tests.

38
Q

Precipitation occurs when

A. antigen combines with antigen.

B. antibody combines with antibody.

C. antibody combines with antigen.

D. antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions.

A

D. antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions.

39
Q

Immunodiffusion tests

A. allow detection of specific antigens.

B. are a simple method that produces visible results in the zone of optimal proportion.

C. allow quantitation of antigen concentrations.

D. All of the choices are correct.

A

D. All of the choices are correct.

40
Q

Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by

A. bacteria.

B. hormones.

C. fungi.

D. viruses.

E. All of the choices are correct.

A

E. All of the choices are correct.

41
Q

The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the

A. radioimmunoassay.

B. fluorescent antibody test.

C. ELISA test.

D. AIDS test.

A

B. fluorescent antibody test.

42
Q

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A. direct fluorescent antibody tests.

B. complement fixation test.

C. radioimmunoassay.

D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

A

D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

43
Q

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for AIDS by using the

A. complement fixation test.

B. radioimmunoassay test.

C. ELISA method.

D. RIA test.

A

C. ELISA method

44
Q

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A. direct fluorescent antibody tests.

B. indirect ELISA.

C. Western blot.

D. indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

E. indirect ELISA, Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

A

E. indirect ELISA, Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

45
Q

Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination.

A

FALSE

46
Q

Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.

A

TRUE

47
Q

Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.

A

TRUE

48
Q

Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective

A

TRUE

49
Q

Alum is an adjuvant

A

TRUE

50
Q

An adjuvant has been developed from Lipid A

A

TRUE

51
Q

Peptide vaccines have proven to be cheap and very immunogenic

A

FALSE

52
Q

The effectiveness of DNA vaccines stems from the effective production of antibodies against the naked DNA molecule.

A

FALSE

53
Q

DNA vaccines are dangerous due to the possibility of the DNA causing reversion in the inactivated pathogen

A

FALSE

54
Q

The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease

A

TRUE

55
Q

Agglutination reactions utilize particles rather than molecules

A

TRUE

56
Q

A monoclonal antibody is typically IgE and recognizes several epitopes

A

FALSE

57
Q

What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism?

A. Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient’s life when no is available for them to make their own active immune response.

B. Cost. It’s far cheaper to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively-immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.

C. Safety of delivery. It’s far safer to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively-immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.

D. Handling of treatment. It’s difficult to keep vaccines stored properly to keep their potency, especially in 3rd world countries without adequate ‘cold chains’ for transport into jungles and deserts. It’s much easier to keep a batch of antibodies stable, even in extremes of heat and humidity.

A

A. Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient’s life when no is available for them to make their own active immune response.

58
Q

What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just an antigen from that agent for a vaccine?

A. This is actually a disadvantage-it’s much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit (single antigen) vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state.

B. An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response) of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.

C. An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL, cell-mediated) side of the adaptive immune system. This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.

D. An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody) AND cell-mediated (T cell) portions of the adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

A

D. An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody) AND cell-mediated (T cell) portions of the adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

59
Q

Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the US, why is it still important for children to be immunized against them?

A. If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination, our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time.

B. There is always the likelihood that an individual from another country could import one of these illnesses into the US, sparking an outbreak of new infections, if we aren’t all properly vaccinated.

C. By keeping the population vaccinated, we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low. This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (very young children, pregnant women, immunocompromised individuals, the elderly).

D. Many of these diseases are HIGHLY contagious, and commonly through respiratory droplet (airborne) transmission. This makes an outbreak within a susceptible population very possible. Keeping the population resistant through mandatory vaccination prevents this possibility.

E. All of the options are correct.

A

E. All of the options are correct

60
Q

Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal?

A. Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe, the antibodies would be monoclonal.

B. Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens, and each antigen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.

C. Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes), the responding antibodies would be polyclonal.

D. Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process, the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal.

A

B. Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens, and each antigen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.

61
Q

Why is a false positive more significant in HIV testing of patients than in screening donated blood for transfusions?

A. It isn’t-both are equally dangerous/significant. False positives in PEOPLE can lead to psychological trauma, but false positives in BLOOD could lead to the useful blood being disposed.

B. A false positive in a PERSON is easily re-testable. This makes it more significant, because we would simply quickly retest the person to verify their actual HIV status.

C. A false positive in BLOOD is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.

D. This statement is backwards-false positives in blood testing are more significant. If the false positive rate is high and we don’t realize it, we’re more likely to dispose useful blood. This could lead to acute shortages of blood for patients that need transfusions.

A

C. A false positive in BLOOD is easily re-testable. This makes it less significant, because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.

MICRO (13 decks)

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